The above statement argues for
- (a) distribution of wealth equally to all
- (b) rule according to the consent of the governed ✓ UPSC's answer
- (c) rule of the poor
- (d) expropriation of the rich
Why the answer is (b)
• The passage explicitly states that every man living under a government must first give his own consent to be subject to it.
• It argues that the poorest man is not bound by a government in which he has no voice or representation.
• This logic establishes that legitimate political authority derives from the agreement of the people, not from wealth or status.
• Therefore, the statement advocates for the principle that government rule must be based on the consent of the governed.
Why the other options are wrong
- (a) distribution of wealth equally to all
- The text focuses on political consent and representation, not on the economic redistribution of wealth.
- (c) rule of the poor
- The argument is for universal consent and voice for all, not specifically for political rule by the poor class.
- (d) expropriation of the rich
- The passage does not mention taking property from the rich, but rather the right to political participation.
Asked in the CSAT Paper II of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2017, held on 18 June 2017. Question and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanation: UPSC Answer Check.