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UPSC Prelims 2017 question paper

UPSC held the 2017 Preliminary examination on 18 June 2017 — GS Paper I from 9:30 to 11:30 am and CSAT from 2:30 to 4:30 pm. 179 questions from that day are below, each with the Commission's official answer and our explanation of why the other three options fail.

General Studies Paper I

100 questions

Economy 30 · Polity & Governance 22 · History 14 · Environment & Ecology 13 · General Science 9 · Geography 7 · Current Events 5

  1. Q1 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only…
  2. Q2 With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the…
  3. Q3 ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
  4. Q4 From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats ?
  5. Q5 One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
  6. Q6 Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC) : 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme…
  7. Q7 Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment to the Constitution ?
  8. Q8 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
  9. Q9 Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world ?
  10. Q10 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017 ? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart…
  11. Q11 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) ? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body…
  12. Q12 With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements : 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the…
  13. Q13 Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule ? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro…
  14. Q14 In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique ? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the…
  15. Q15 The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
  16. Q16 Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
  17. Q17 Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2…
  18. Q18 The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
  19. Q19 At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the…
  20. Q20 With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements : 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami…
  21. Q21 Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences ? 1. Pollination of some plants could…
  22. Q22 It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry ? 1. Production of algae based biofuels…
  23. Q23 Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’ ? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To…
  24. Q24 Consider the following statements : 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M…
  25. Q25 In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon…
  26. Q26 The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
  27. Q27 The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
  28. Q28 Consider the following statements : 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is…
  29. Q29 Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?
  30. Q30 With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements : 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet…
  31. Q31 Consider the following statements : 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus…
  32. Q32 Consider the following statements : 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark…
  33. Q33 What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme ? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It…
  34. Q34 With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements : 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and…
  35. Q35 According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law ? 1. Gharial 2. Indian…
  36. Q36 Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen ? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are…
  37. Q37 Consider the following pairs : 1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3…
  38. Q38 Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
  39. Q39 With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements : 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman…
  40. Q40 What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India ? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To…
  41. Q41 With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements : 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in…
  42. Q42 Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
  43. Q43 Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’ ?
  44. Q44 The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
  45. Q45 With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future ? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to…
  46. Q46 The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
  47. Q47 In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties ?
  48. Q48 The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following ?
  49. Q49 If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination ?
  50. Q50 The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the…
  51. Q51 Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom ?
  52. Q52 With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and…
  53. Q53 With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the…
  54. Q54 Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries ? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below :
  55. Q55 With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of ₹…
  56. Q56 The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
  57. Q57 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
  58. Q58 Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over…
  59. Q59 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
  60. Q60 With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct ? 1. UN-Habitat has been…
  61. Q61 With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct ? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for…
  62. Q62 In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
  63. Q63 Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’ : 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2…
  64. Q64 Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news ?
  65. Q65 Consider the following statements : 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The…
  66. Q66 With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. IOD…
  67. Q67 If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit ?
  68. Q68 Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) : 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a…
  69. Q69 The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
  70. Q70 Consider the following pairs : Traditions — Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra – Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari – Santhals Which of the pairs given…
  71. Q71 Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture ? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing…
  72. Q72 Consider the following statements : The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. enabling the banks to assess the…
  73. Q73 Consider the following pairs : Commonly used / consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick – Lead 2. Soft drinks – Brominated…
  74. Q74 Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays ? 1. OLED displays…
  75. Q75 Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples ? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below :
  76. Q76 Consider the following statements : 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared…
  77. Q77 Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991 ? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India's…
  78. Q78 What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology ?
  79. Q79 Consider the following statements : 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card…
  80. Q80 The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
  81. Q81 What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’ ? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a…
  82. Q82 ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
  83. Q83 Consider the following statements : 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came…
  84. Q84 What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India ?
  85. Q85 In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents ? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct…
  86. Q86 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
  87. Q87 What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project ?
  88. Q88 What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’ ? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education…
  89. Q89 What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?
  90. Q90 Consider the following statements : 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of…
  91. Q91 In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?
  92. Q92 In India, Judicial Review implies
  93. Q93 With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events : 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is…
  94. Q94 Consider the following statements : 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has…
  95. Q95 Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?
  96. Q96 Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State ? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of…
  97. Q97 Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of…
  98. Q98 Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?
  99. Q99 Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
  100. Q100 Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ?

CSAT Paper II

79 questions

Comprehension 36 · Basic Numeracy 18 · Logical Reasoning 16 · Mental Ability 9

  1. Q1 What does the above passage imply?
  2. Q2 The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that
  3. Q3 Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
  4. Q4 Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
  5. Q5 Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?
  6. Q6 Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
  7. Q7 The main idea of the passage is that
  8. Q8 The author suggests that habits
  9. Q9 With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?
  10. Q10 With reference to the above information, consider the following statements : 1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z. 2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z's campaign…
  11. Q11 If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
  12. Q12 If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after…
  13. Q13 Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test…
  14. Q14 The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as…
  15. Q15 Consider the following : Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions : I. Natural gifts…
  16. Q16 There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips…
  17. Q17 “Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.” In the light of this statement, which one of the following…
  18. Q18 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22ⁿᵈ from the top. What…
  19. Q19 Consider the following : A + B means A is the son of B. A – B means A is the wife of B. What does the expression P + R – Q mean?
  20. Q20 Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal's position if he agreed?
  21. Q21 The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve
  22. Q22 In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as
  23. Q23 What does the above passage imply?
  24. Q24 This passage relates to
  25. Q25 The passage seems to suggest that
  26. Q26 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions…
  27. Q27 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare. 2…
  28. Q28 Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of…
  29. Q29 In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank…
  30. Q30 P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?
  31. Q31 A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in every 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the…
  32. Q32 In a city, 12% of households earn less than ₹ 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than ₹ 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than ₹ 1,00,000 per year and 990…
  33. Q33 A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at…
  34. Q34 Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow : Statement : Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions : 1. All healthy people go for morning walk. 2. Morning…
  35. Q35 There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
  36. Q36 Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who…
  37. Q37 There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3ʳᵈ of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to
  38. Q38 There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?
  39. Q39 A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at…
  40. Q40 In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal…
  41. Q41 Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?
  42. Q42 Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
  43. Q43 Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
  44. Q44 Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
  45. Q45 Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?
  46. Q46 Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
  47. Q47 On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture. 2. One of the aims of sustainable…
  48. Q48 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent in environment. 3. They are essential…
  49. Q49 Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics : 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on reversing the digits is also…
  50. Q50 Examine the following statements : 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that statement 4 is…
  51. Q51 How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
  52. Q52 If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode then the distribution is
  53. Q53 The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube…
  54. Q54 P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?
  55. Q55 Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F : 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F. 3. D…
  56. Q56 A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any…
  57. Q57 If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?
  58. Q58 The outer surface of a 4 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm small cubes. How many small…
  59. Q59 Consider the following : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G. F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at…
  60. Q60 In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates ‘white’ is
  61. Q61 Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
  62. Q62 Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
  63. Q63 Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
  64. Q64 Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
  65. Q65 Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
  66. Q66 Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?
  67. Q67 The above statement argues for
  68. Q68 The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0·40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0·50…
  69. Q69 Who is specialized in Geography?
  70. Q70 To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?
  71. Q71 Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?
  72. Q72 In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach…
  73. Q73 A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
  74. Q74 The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, each saves ₹ 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly…
  75. Q75 Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many meters is…
  76. Q77 In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?
  77. Q78 If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?
  78. Q79 There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there?
  79. Q80 What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?

Question papers and answer keys: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check.

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