GS Paper I of the 2017 Preliminary examination, held on 18 June 2017. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 30, Polity & Governance 22, History 14, Environment & Ecology 13, General Science 9, Geography 7, Current Events 5.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A private member's bill is any bill introduced by an MP who is not a minister — elected or nominated — so statement 1 is wrong.
With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: the Rigveda mentions the varman (coat of mail) and sipra (helmet); no such armour has been found at Harappan sites. Statement 3 is correct: the horse was central to Vedic life and warfare; the Harappans have left no clear evidence of the horse (a few disputed bones apart).
‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
UPSC's answer: (a) — Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), a component of PMKVY, assesses and certifies skills that workers have acquired informally on the job, aligning them with the National Skill Qualification Framework.
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (Erode, Tamil Nadu) lies where the Eastern and Western Ghats meet, forming a vital corridor for elephants and tigers between the Nilgiri landscape (Mudumalai, Bandipur, BRT) and the Eastern Ghats — option (a).
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
UPSC's answer: (a) — Equality in political theory means that no person or group enjoys special privileges by birth, caste, wealth or status, and that all have equal claims to rights and opportunities — so equality implies the absence of privileges, option (a).
Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC) : 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — TRAFFIC, founded in 1976, is a non-governmental wildlife-trade monitoring network established as a joint programme of WWF and IUCN, headquartered in Cambridge, UK — it is not a UNEP bureau, so statement 1 is wrong.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment to the Constitution ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 42nd Amendment (1976) added four Directive Principles: Article 39(f) (healthy development of children), Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid), Article 43A (participation of workers in management of industries) and Article 48A (environment, forests and wildlife).
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Rights are the claims of individuals recognised by society and enforced by the State; fundamental rights in particular are claims of citizens against the State, limiting its power (Articles 12–13 make the State the addressee) — option (c).
Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Global Gender Gap Index has been published annually since 2006 by the World Economic Forum, ranking countries on economic participation, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment — option (a).
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017 ? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Smart India Hackathon (2017), run by the Ministry of HRD/AICTE, invited students to build digital solutions to problems posed by central ministries and departments — an innovation-identification initiative, statement 2.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) ? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The MPC, created by the 2016 amendment to the RBI Act (Section 45ZB), fixes the policy repo rate to meet the 4% ± 2% inflation target — statement 1 is correct.
With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements : 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Manipuri Sankirtana, inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2013, is a ritual singing, drumming and dancing performance of the Vaishnava community of Manipur (statement 1).
Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule ? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Ryotwari system, under which revenue was settled directly with individual cultivators (ryots), was first tried by Captain Alexander Read in the Baramahal district (1792) and developed and extended across the Madras Presidency by Thomas Munro (Governor 1820–27) — items 2 and 3.
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique ? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Bioremediation uses microbes, fungi or plants to break down pollutants; it works by stimulating the natural biodegradation processes already present in the environment (statement 1).
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 was passed amid rising labour militancy (Bombay textile strikes, 1928) and the Meerut Conspiracy Case.
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
UPSC's answer: (b) — Local self-government transfers decision-making power and resources to elected bodies at the village, block and district levels (Panchayati Raj) and to municipalities, bringing governance closer to the people — this is democratic decentralisation, option (b).
Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Directive Principles are positive instructions to the State to promote welfare; Article 37 makes them non-justiciable but 'fundamental in governance'.
The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Digital Single Market Strategy was adopted by the European Commission in May 2015 to remove online barriers among EU member states, harmonise digital rules, end geo-blocking and roaming charges, and boost the digital economy — option (c).
At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
UPSC's answer: (c) — Chandipur beach in Balasore district, Odisha, is famous for its 'hide-and-seek' sea: at low tide the water recedes up to 5 km, twice a day, exposing the sea floor for walking, and returns at high tide — option (c).
With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements : 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The PBPT Act (as amended in 2016) defines a benami transaction as one where property is held by one person but paid for by another for the latter's benefit; a case where the owner is unaware or denies knowledge is expressly included as benami, so statement 1 is wrong.
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences ? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Butterflies are pollinators of many flowering plants, so a crash in their numbers would hurt pollination of some species (1). Butterflies and their caterpillars are prey for parasitic wasps, spiders and insectivorous birds; losing them would reduce those predators' populations (3).
It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry ? 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Algal biofuel can be produced on land in open ponds or photobioreactors, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: designing photobioreactors, strain selection and processing require advanced expertise that developing countries often lack.
Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’ ? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan, approved 2017) targets stunting, undernutrition, low birth weight and anaemia among children, adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers through convergence, ICT-based monitoring and behaviour change.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Factories Act, 1881 only regulated child labour (minimum age 7, maximum 9 hours) and machinery safety; it said nothing about wages or trade unions (unions were legalised by the Trade Unions Act, 1926).
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration ? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Geological carbon sequestration injects captured CO2 into deep formations that can trap it for millennia. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs (2) have proven cap rocks and infrastructure; CO2 injection also enhances oil recovery. Deep saline aquifers (3) offer the largest storage capacity worldwide.
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Indian States Committee under Sir Harcourt Butler (1927–29) was appointed to examine the relationship between the British Crown (paramount power) and the princely States — option (d).
The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
UPSC's answer: (a) — Under the National Solar Mission, India required developers in certain project categories to use domestically made solar cells and modules — the Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Nuclear Security Summits (2010 Washington, 2012 Seoul, 2014 The Hague, 2016 Washington) were an initiative of US President Obama, held outside the UN framework.
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — NPS is mandatory for Central Government employees (except the armed forces) who joined on or after 1 January 2004, and for employees of State Governments that have adopted it, from the date each State notified — option (c).
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements : 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the Rangeet rises in West Sikkim (Kanchenjunga area) and joins the Teesta at Melli/Teesta Bazaar, forming part of the Sikkim–West Bengal border.
Consider the following statements : 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Zika virus is spread mainly by Aedes aegypti (and Aedes albopictus), the same day-biting mosquitoes that transmit dengue and chikungunya (statement 1).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: pneumatic tyres and tubes for automobiles are under compulsory BIS certification (Quality Control Order, 2009), so the ISI mark is mandatory.
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme ? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — e-NAM (2016) is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks existing APMC mandis into a unified national market for agricultural commodities (statement 1).
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements : 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The National IPR Policy (May 2016) reaffirmed India's commitment to the TRIPS Agreement and the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health, preserving flexibilities such as compulsory licensing (statement 1).
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law ? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Section 9 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 prohibits hunting of any wild animal listed in Schedules I–IV, except under Section 11 (danger to human life, disease, or scientific purposes with permission) or Section 12.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen ? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, added by the 42nd Amendment) are non-justiciable: the Constitution provides no legislative process or direct mechanism to enforce them, though Parliament may make laws on specific duties (e.g. Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act) — statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following pairs : 1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Raja Radhakanta Deb was the first president of the British Indian Association (Calcutta, 1851). Pair 3 is correct: Surendranath Banerjee, with Anandamohan Bose, founded the Indian Association in 1876.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Preamble secures to all citizens 'LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship'. Liberty of thought (a), expression (c) and belief (d) are thus expressly embodied.
With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements : 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Quality Council of India (1997) was set up as an autonomous non-profit body jointly by the Government of India (DIPP as nodal) and the three industry associations — ASSOCHAM, CII and FICCI (statement 1).
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India ? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The RBI licensed Small Finance Banks (2015) to further financial inclusion by providing savings facilities and credit to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised-sector entities (items 1 and 2).
With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements : 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The first APMCHUD was indeed held in New Delhi in December 2006, but its theme was 'A Vision for Sustainable Urbanisation in the Asia Pacific by 2020'; the theme quoted in statement 1 ('Emerging Urban Forms...') was the theme of the sixth APMCHUD, held in New Delhi in 2016 — so statement 1 is…
Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
UPSC's answer: (a) — Democratic theorists from Mill to Laski argue that democracy's chief merit is educative: by giving ordinary citizens a share in decisions, it draws out and develops their intelligence, judgement and civic character — option (a).
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’ ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — UPI (NPCI, 2016) lets users pay directly from their bank accounts through a virtual payment address, in real time, from any UPI app. Because money moves bank-to-bank without pre-loading, mobile wallets that hold stored value become unnecessary for online payments — option (a).
The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Event horizon' and 'singularity' describe black holes; 'string theory' is a candidate theory of quantum gravity; the 'Standard Model' is the theory of fundamental particles and forces. All are terms of cosmology and particle physics — the observation and understanding of the Universe — option (a).
With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future ? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Genome sequencing reads a crop's entire DNA, revealing genetic markers linked to traits such as disease resistance and drought tolerance (1).
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
UPSC's answer: (c) — The defining merit of parliamentary government is that the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from and continuously accountable to the legislature, which can question, censure and remove it — ensuring responsible government — option (c).
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Rights and duties are two sides of one coin: my right implies a duty on others to respect it, and my rights carry a duty to use them for the common good — they are correlative (Laski, Gandhi) — option (a).
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Preamble states the source of the Constitution's authority ('We, the People'), the nature of the State and its objectives — justice, liberty, equality, fraternity — and so is described as the 'key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution' (Supreme Court in Berubari, 1960; Kesavananda…
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The shortest road route from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) runs: Nagaland → Assam → West Bengal → Odisha → Andhra Pradesh → Tamil Nadu → Kerala. That is seven States including origin and destination — option (b). Routes via Bihar, Jharkhand or Telangana add States rather than saving any.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Parliament holds the Council of Ministers accountable through several devices. Question Hour (2) and supplementary questions (3) compel ministers to answer for their departments daily.
Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Motupalli, on the Andhra coast in Prakasam district, was the chief port of the Kakatiya kingdom (12th–14th century); Marco Polo visited it around 1290 and praised its trade in diamonds and muslin.
With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA, 2007; GCCA+ since 2014) is a European Union initiative (statement 1). It gives technical and financial support to the most vulnerable developing countries — LDCs and small island states — to mainstream climate change into their development policies and…
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: Sautrantika and Sammitiya were schools of Hinayana Buddhism, not Jainism (Jain sects are Digambara and Shvetambara). Statement 2 is correct: the Sarvastivadins ('all exists') held that dharmas — the constituents of phenomena — exist in past, present and future, i.e.
Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries ? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Lebanon (3) and Syria (4) both have Mediterranean coastlines — Beirut and Latakia are their ports. Jordan (1) is almost landlocked, with only a short Red Sea coast at Aqaba; Iraq (2) has a short Persian Gulf coast at Basra/Umm Qasr. Hence 3 and 4 only, option (c).
With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of ₹ 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The NIIF (2015) is India's sovereign-backed infrastructure investment fund set up as a company/trust under the Ministry of Finance, with the Government holding 49% and the rest from foreign and domestic institutional investors — it is not an organ of NITI Aayog, so statement 1 is wrong.
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Global Infrastructure Facility (2014) is a World Bank Group partnership with governments, multilateral banks and private investors that helps prepare, structure and bring to market complex infrastructure PPPs so that private and institutional capital can be mobilised — option (b).
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under Section 4(d) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person can contest a Lok Sabha seat from any constituency in India provided he or she is an elector — registered on the electoral roll — of any parliamentary constituency in the country (not necessarily the one contested), and is a…
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat Lake, India's second-largest brackish lagoon, straddles Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Statement 1 is wrong: the Himalayas span more than ten States/UTs — J&K, Ladakh, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal, and parts of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur…
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
UPSC's answer: (c) — Biological Oxygen Demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen that microbes consume while decomposing organic matter in a water sample over five days at 20 °C.
With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct ? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: UN-Habitat, headquartered in Nairobi, is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements and adequate shelter for all.
With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct ? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The NSQF (2013) is a competency-based framework of ten levels that grades qualifications by knowledge, skill and aptitude, regardless of how they were acquired. Statement 1 is wrong: a learner can be certified through formal, non-formal or informal learning, including Recognition of Prior Learning.
In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
UPSC's answer: (d) — Dyarchy, introduced in the provinces by the Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms), divided provincial subjects into 'reserved' (law and order, finance, land revenue — under the Governor and his councillors) and 'transferred' (education, health, local government — under Indian…
Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’ : 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The National Career Service (2015) is a Mission Mode project of the Ministry of Labour and Employment — not DoPT — that runs an online portal linking job-seekers, employers, career counsellors and training providers, transforming the old employment exchanges.
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — S4A (June 2016) was an RBI scheme allowing banks to split a large stressed loan (over ₹500 crore, in projects that had begun operations) into a sustainable portion serviceable from current cash flows and an unsustainable portion converted into equity or quasi-equity — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (2012) was launched by UNEP with six countries (US, Canada, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Bangladesh); it is a voluntary partnership of governments, IGOs and NGOs, not a G20 initiative — statement 1 is wrong.
With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Indian Ocean Dipole is the difference in sea-surface temperature between the western tropical Indian Ocean (Arabian Sea) and the eastern tropical Indian Ocean (off Sumatra) — not the eastern Pacific, so statement 1 is wrong.
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The gharial, a critically endangered fish-eating crocodilian, survives mainly in the Chambal river, where the National Chambal Sanctuary (MP–Rajasthan–UP) holds over 75% of the wild population — option (b). Smaller populations exist in the Girwa (Katarniaghat), Son and Gandak rivers.
Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) : 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — IONS was launched by the Indian Navy in February 2008 in New Delhi, with India as the first chair — not 2015, so statement 1 is wrong.
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Bodhisattva Padmapani (lotus-bearer, a form of Avalokiteshvara) is the celebrated mural on the left of the shrine entrance in Cave 1 at Ajanta, Maharashtra, painted in the late 5th century under the Vakatakas — option (a).
Consider the following pairs : Traditions — Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra – Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari – Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pair 1 is correct: the Chaliha Sahib festival, a 40-day fast and prayer in honour of Jhulelal, is observed by the Sindhi community.
Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture ? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Reduced or zero tillage (1) leaves soil structure intact, cutting evaporation and improving infiltration and moisture retention. Crop residue left as mulch (3) shades the soil, reduces evaporation and run-off, and adds organic matter that holds water.
Consider the following statements : The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Soil Health Card Scheme (2015) tests each farm's soil for 12 parameters (N, P, K, S, micronutrients, pH, EC, organic carbon) and gives crop-wise fertiliser recommendations.
Consider the following pairs : Commonly used / consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick – Lead 2. Soft drinks – Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food – Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Lipsticks (1) have been found to contain traces of lead from pigments, a concern flagged by the US FDA and Indian studies. Brominated vegetable oil (2) was used as an emulsifier in citrus soft drinks; it is banned in the EU and Japan and was banned in the US in 2024.
Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays ? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — OLEDs emit light from thin organic layers themselves, needing no backlight, unlike LCDs. This lets them be printed on flexible plastic substrates (1), made into roll-up or wearable displays woven into clothing (2), and built as transparent displays (3) since the organic layers can be nearly clear…
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples ? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Arasavalli in Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh, has the Suryanarayana Swamy temple, one of India's few ancient Sun temples still in worship, built by the Eastern Ganga kings — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — India uses the first-past-the-post system: the candidate with the most votes wins, even with far less than 50% — so statement 1 is wrong.
Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991 ? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — After 1991, India's share of world merchandise exports rose from about 0.5% to around 1.7–1.8% (2), FDI inflows grew from under USD 1 billion to over USD 70 billion a year (3), and foreign exchange reserves climbed from about USD 1 billion in 1991 to over USD 600 billion (4).
What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) removes the nucleus of an egg cell and replaces it with the nucleus of a body (somatic) cell; the reconstructed egg develops into an embryo genetically identical to the donor.
Consider the following statements : 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — NPCI (2008), set up by the RBI and IBA, operates retail payment systems — UPI, IMPS, AePS, BHIM, NFS — that bring low-cost digital payments to the unbanked and rural population, advancing financial inclusion (statement 1).
The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
UPSC's answer: (b) — M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is a GPS/GIS-based software and mobile app developed by the NTCA and Wildlife Institute of India in 2010 for patrol tracking, crime mapping and ecological monitoring in tiger reserves — option (b).
What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’ ? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — GST (2017) subsumed central excise, service tax, VAT, octroi, entry tax and other levies into one destination-based tax with input-tax credit across the chain, removing inter-State tax barriers and creating 'one nation, one market' (statement 1).
‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement is the free-trade agreement negotiated between India and the European Union since 2007; talks stalled in 2013 over tariffs on cars, wines and spirits, data security and services, and were relaunched in 2022 — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Trade Facilitation Agreement, which simplifies customs procedures, was concluded as part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package in December 2013 (statement 2). India ratified it in April 2016 (statement 1).
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Chabahar, on Iran's Makran coast in the Gulf of Oman, is being developed by India (agreement 2016, operations from 2018) with road and rail links to Afghanistan (Zaranj–Delaram highway) and the International North–South Transport Corridor.
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents ? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 and the CERT-In Rules, 2013, service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates must report cyber-security incidents to CERT-In within a reasonable time (now six hours under the 2022 directions).
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
UPSC's answer: (c) — The right to vote flows from Article 326 of the Constitution (adult suffrage) and the right to contest from Articles 84 and 173, with details in the Representation of the People Acts. The Supreme Court (N.P. Ponnuswami, 1952; Jyoti Basu v.
What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — eLISA (evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna), now LISA, is the European Space Agency's planned space observatory of three spacecraft in a triangle with million-kilometre laser arms to detect low-frequency gravitational waves from merging supermassive black holes — option (b).
What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’ ? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Vidyanjali (2016; relaunched 2021) is a school volunteer programme of the Ministry of Education that invites private-sector professionals, retired teachers, NRIs and community members to volunteer in government schools — teaching, mentoring and supporting co-scholastic activities — to improve…
What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (2014), coordinated by IIT Delhi under the Ministry of Education, links higher-education institutions with clusters of villages so that faculty and students study local problems and apply appropriate technologies for rural development — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 3 is correct: under Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission decides disputes over splits and mergers of recognised parties (e.g. Shiv Sena, 2023).
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 gives the highest legal protection: absolute prohibition on hunting, the harshest penalties (3–7 years' imprisonment) and no permitted trade.
In India, Judicial Review implies
UPSC's answer: (a) — Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts (Articles 13, 32, 226) to examine whether laws passed by legislatures and orders of the executive conform to the Constitution, and to strike them down if they do not — option (a).
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events : 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Second Round Table Conference was held in London in September–December 1931, with Gandhi as Congress representative (event 3). The Quit India Movement was launched on 8 August 1942 (event 2). The Royal Indian Navy mutiny broke out in Bombay in February 1946 (event 1).
Consider the following statements : 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: India's tax-to-GDP ratio has hovered around 10–11% (Centre) or 16–17% (combined) with dips (e.g. 2008–10, 2019–20), not a steady rise.
Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Because all Asiatic lions live in one landscape around Gir, a single epidemic or disaster could wipe them out; the Supreme Court in 2013 ordered translocation of some lions to Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh — option (b).
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State ? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — When President's Rule is proclaimed under Article 356, the State Council of Ministers is necessarily dismissed, since the President assumes the functions of the State Government (item 2 is a necessary consequence).
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Right against Exploitation comprises Article 23 — prohibition of traffic in human beings, begar and forced labour (1) — and Article 24 — prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work (4).
Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Great Nicobar, India's southernmost island, lies only about 150 km north-west of the northern tip of Sumatra (Indonesia) across the Great Channel; Indira Point is closer to Sumatra than to the Indian mainland — option (a).
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Cabinet system rests on collective responsibility: the Council of Ministers acts as one body, stands or falls together, and is answerable to the legislature and through it to the people (Article 75(3)) — option (c).
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The question asks which is NOT a feature of Indian federalism. Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among pre-existing sovereign units (unlike the USA); the States were created by the Constitution and Parliament can alter their boundaries (Article 3) — so option (d) is not a feature.
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