UPSC Prelims 2017 — CSAT Paper II

CSAT Paper II of the 2017 Preliminary examination, held on 18 June 2017. 80 questions · 200 marks · qualifying at 33%. The questions broke down as Comprehension 36, Basic Numeracy 18, Logical Reasoning 16, Mental Ability 9.

The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.

  1. Q1

    What does the above passage imply?

    • (a)Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.
    • (b)There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.
    • (c)Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflict.
    • (d)Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that climate change causes or amplifies events that hasten the reduction of resources. It explicitly links this reduction to competition over diminishing resources, which ensues in the form of political or violent conflict.

  2. Q2

    The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that

    • (a)we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly
    • (b)we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged
    • (c)we should always remain broad-minded
    • (d)we should be resolute and achievement-oriented

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage contrasts ineffective behaviors (hesitation, fluctuating opinions) with the specific sequence required for success: consulting wisely, resolving firmly, and executing with perseverance.

  3. Q3

    Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

    • (a)Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high.
    • (b)Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival.
    • (c)Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear.
    • (d)Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that summer sea ice is melting earlier and faster, while winter freeze is coming later, indicating a lengthening melt period. It notes that summer ice extent has declined by about 30 per cent in the last three decades.

  4. Q4

    Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

    • (a)The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people.
    • (b)People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting.
    • (c)People cannot change their old habits.
    • (d)People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage identifies two critical barriers to toilet adoption: ideas of purity/pollution and the fear of pits/septic tanks filling up. It states that to eradicate open defecation, these specific issues must be confronted and dealt with properly.

  5. Q5

    Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?

    • (a)More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital.
    • (b)The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable.
    • (c)The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory.
    • (d)The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that while global GDP increased by 50% in the last two decades, inclusive wealth grew by only 6%. It explicitly mentions that GDP-driven economic performance has harmed inclusive wealth, specifically reducing natural capital by 30% and limiting human capital growth to 8%.

  6. Q6

    Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

    • (a)India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate.
    • (b)Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively.
    • (c)India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon.
    • (d)India is capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that 93% of India's labour force is in the unorganized sector and employment growth has slowed to 0.5% CAGR. It explicitly links labour reforms to the potential for unlocking double-digit growth in India.

  7. Q7

    The main idea of the passage is that

    • (a)it is essential for human beings to work
    • (b)there should be a balance between work and leisure
    • (c)working is a tyranny which we have to face
    • (d)human's understanding of the nature of work is essential

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage opens by stating that complete freedom from the obligation to work is 'unnatural' and 'ought to be illegal'. It argues that escaping one's share of work only shifts the burden to others, implying work is a collective necessity.

  8. Q8

    The author suggests that habits

    • (a)tend to make our lives difficult
    • (b)add precision to our lives
    • (c)make it easier for us to live
    • (d)tend to mechanize our lives

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that habits 'simplify the mechanism of life,' which directly implies they reduce complexity and effort in daily activities. It further explains that habits allow us to perform a multitude of things 'automatically,' preventing the need for fresh and original thought each time.

  9. Q9

    With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?

    • (a)Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the ‘party X’.
    • (b)There is at least one supporter of ‘party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend.
    • (c)No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z's campaign strategy.
    • (d)No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that 'some' supporters of Party X who knew Z and supported his strategy had friends in Party Y. The term 'some' implies that there is at least one individual in the group of Party X supporters who fits this description.

  10. Q10

    With reference to the above information, consider the following statements : 1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z. 2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z's campaign strategy, knew Z. 3. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z's campaign strategy. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 and 3 only
    • (c)3 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The given information says that the 'party X' supporters who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy did not agree to the alliance, and that some of them had friends in 'party Y'. So such supporters exist. Statement 1 ("some supporters of party X knew Z") is therefore true.

  11. Q11

    If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?

    • (a)23
    • (b)22
    • (c)21
    • (d)20

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Every month has at least 28 days, which guarantees at least 4 Saturdays and 4 Sundays, so the 2nd and 4th Saturdays always exist as holidays regardless of the month's length or starting day.

  12. Q12

    If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?

    • (a)16/243rd part of the population
    • (b)32/243rd part of the population
    • (c)32/729th part of the population
    • (d)64/729th part of the population

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Each year one-third of the remaining population leaves, so two-thirds stays. After six years the fraction left is (2/3) multiplied by itself six times: 2⁶/3⁶ = 64/729. So 64/729 of the population remains, option (d).

  13. Q13

    Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?

    • (a)Physics
    • (b)Biology
    • (c)Mathematics
    • (d)Chemistry

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the four consecutive days be Day 1, Day 2, Day 3, and Day 4. The condition 'Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held' means Chemistry is on Day 3 (since two tests precede it).

  14. Q14

    The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?

    • (a)A
    • (b)B
    • (c)C
    • (d)D

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Write the incomes as A, B, C and D. "A earns half as much as B and D together" gives B + D = 2A. "A + C equals B + D" then gives A + C = 2A, so C = A. "A + B is more than C + D" becomes A + B > A + D, so B > D.

  15. Q15

    Consider the following : Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions : I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. II. Even though one's voice is not good, one can keep practising. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusions?

    • (a)Only conclusion I follows from the statement.
    • (b)Only conclusion II follows from the statement.
    • (c)Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement.
    • (d)Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The statement asserts that a good voice is a natural gift, but improvement and excellence require continuous practice. Conclusion I states that natural gifts need nurturing and care, which is a direct logical inference from the requirement of practice to improve a natural gift.

  16. Q16

    There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6·5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?

    • (a)161 cm
    • (b)163 cm
    • (c)182 cm
    • (d)210 cm

    UPSC's answer: (b) — A's net gain per chance is 6 cm - 1 cm = 5 cm, but on the 40th chance it reaches the top before slipping. So pillar X height = 39 × 5 cm + 6 cm = 195 cm + 6 cm = 201 cm. B's net gain per chance is 7 cm - 3 cm = 4 cm, with the 40th chance adding 7 cm.

  17. Q17

    “Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.” In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?

    • (a)Rights aim at individual good only.
    • (b)Rights aim at social good only.
    • (c)Rights aim at both individual and social good.
    • (d)Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The statement explicitly defines rights as 'advantageous conditions of social well-being,' directly linking them to the collective benefit of society.

  18. Q18

    15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22ⁿᵈ from the top. What is his position from the bottom?

    • (a)18ᵗʰ
    • (b)17ᵗʰ
    • (c)16ᵗʰ
    • (d)15ᵗʰ

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Total students in the class are 52. 15 students failed, so the number of students in the merit list is 52 - 15 = 37. Ramesh's position from the top in this merit list is 22nd. To find his position from the bottom, use the formula: (Total in list - Position from top) + 1.

  19. Q19

    Consider the following : A + B means A is the son of B. A – B means A is the wife of B. What does the expression P + R – Q mean?

    • (a)Q is the son of P.
    • (b)Q is the wife of P.
    • (c)Q is the father of P.
    • (d)None of the above

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The expression is P + R - Q, which must be evaluated from left to right based on the given definitions. First, 'P + R' means P is the son of R, establishing that R is the parent of P. Next, 'R - Q' means R is the wife of Q, establishing that Q is the husband of R.

  20. Q20

    Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal's position if he agreed?

    • (a)Neither loss nor gain
    • (b)Loss 1%
    • (c)Gain 1%
    • (d)Gain 0·5%

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the original cost price (CP) of the phone for Gopal be 100. Gopal sells it to Ram at a 10% profit, so the selling price (SP) for Gopal (and CP for Ram) is 100 + 10 = 110. Ram sells it back to Gopal at a 10% loss on his cost price of 110.

  21. Q21

    The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve

    • (a)a high standard of living, progress and privileges
    • (b)equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance
    • (c)spirit of adventure and economic parity
    • (d)hard work, brotherhood and national unity

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage opens by stating, 'We have hard work ahead,' directly identifying hard work as the primary challenge for the public. It emphasizes that all citizens, regardless of religion, are 'equally the children of India,' which establishes the foundation for brotherhood.

  22. Q22

    In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as

    • (a)the sum total of the private wills of the individuals
    • (b)what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals
    • (c)the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals
    • (d)the material interests of the community

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that individuals put their person and power in common under the 'supreme direction of the General Will'.

  23. Q23

    What does the above passage imply?

    • (a)In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.
    • (b)In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.
    • (c)In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty.
    • (d)In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that in a democratic state with high political maturity, the conflict between the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people 'seldom occurs'.

  24. Q24

    This passage relates to

    • (a)duty to vote
    • (b)right to vote
    • (c)freedom to vote
    • (d)right to participate in politics

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that a successful democracy depends on widespread interest and participation, with voting as an essential part.

  25. Q25

    The passage seems to suggest that

    • (a)a leader foresees his future position
    • (b)a leader is chosen only by a free country
    • (c)a leader must see that his country is free from despair
    • (d)despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage contrasts leaders in free countries, who are selected for outstanding character and ability, with dictators who often rise to power through chance or the 'unhappy state' of their country. The phrase 'unhappy state of his country' is synonymous with despair, instability, or crisis.

  26. Q26

    With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions. 2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that the 'creative use of leisure by a minority' has been the 'mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level,' which directly validates Assumption 2.

  27. Q27

    With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare. 2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that studying famous battles reveals qualities and attributes that enabled winners to win, specifically for those who lead or aspire to leadership.

  28. Q28

    Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5ᵗʰ person will be

    • (a)45 kg
    • (b)47·5 kg
    • (c)50 kg
    • (d)52·5 kg

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The total weight of all 9 persons is calculated as 9 multiplied by the average weight of 50 kg, which equals 450 kg. The total weight of the first 5 persons is 5 multiplied by their average weight of 45 kg, resulting in 225 kg.

  29. Q29

    In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?

    • (a)Amala
    • (b)Komala
    • (c)Nirmala
    • (d)Shyamala

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The four Sociology postgraduates are Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala, and two of them are bank employees. Amala and Komala are unemployed, so the two bank employees among them are Kamla and Nirmala. Nirmala is also one of the tennis players.

  30. Q30

    P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?

    • (a)P is greater than Q.
    • (b)Q is greater than P.
    • (c)P is equal to Q.
    • (d)None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Let A = 100 and B = 0 (satisfying A > B). Then P = 40 + 0 = 40 and Q = 50 + 0 = 50, so Q > P. Let A = 100 and B = 99 (satisfying A > B). Then P = 40 + 64.35 = 104.35 and Q = 50 + 49.5 = 99.5, so P > Q.

  31. Q31

    A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in every 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24-hour clock is followed?

    • (a)The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.
    • (b)The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days.
    • (c)The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days.
    • (d)None of the above statements is correct.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — One watch loses 2 minutes a day and the other gains 2 minutes a day, so the gap between them grows by 4 minutes a day. On a 24-hour clock they show the same time again only when the gap reaches 24 hours = 1,440 minutes. That takes 1,440 ÷ 4 = 360 days.

  32. Q32

    In a city, 12% of households earn less than ₹ 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than ₹ 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than ₹ 1,00,000 per year and 990 households earn between ₹ 30,000 and ₹ 1,00,000 per year. How many households earn between ₹ 1,00,000 and ₹ 2,00,000 per year?

    • (a)250
    • (b)240
    • (c)230
    • (d)225

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the total number of households be T. The percentage of households earning between ₹30,000 and ₹1,00,000 is calculated by subtracting the percentage earning less than ₹30,000 (12%) from the percentage earning less than or equal to ₹1,00,000 (100% - 22% = 78%), resulting in 78% - 12% = 66%.

  33. Q33

    A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock?

    • (a)20 seconds
    • (b)24 seconds
    • (c)28 seconds
    • (d)30 seconds

    UPSC's answer: (b) — UPSC's official answer is (b) 24 seconds, obtained by treating the striking time as proportional to the number of strikes: 5 strikes take 12 seconds, so 10 strikes take 12 × 10/5 = 24 seconds.

  34. Q34

    Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow : Statement : Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions : 1. All healthy people go for morning walk. 2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health. What is/are the valid conclusion/conclusions?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement 'Morning walk is good for health' establishes that morning walking is a beneficial activity, but it does not imply it is the only way to maintain health or that it is mandatory.

  35. Q35

    There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?

    • (a)47
    • (b)49
    • (c)51
    • (d)45

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Thirteen consecutive odd numbers form an arithmetic sequence with common difference 2: a, a+2, a+4, …, a+24. The first five terms are a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8, and their mean is (5a + 20)/5 = a + 4.

  36. Q36

    Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by

    • (a)A, B and C
    • (b)B, C and F
    • (c)A, B and F
    • (d)A, C and F

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Everyone starts with 10 cards. F borrows 2 from A: A 8, F 12. F gives 5 to C: F 7, C 15. C gives 3 to B: C 12, B 13. B gives 6 to D: B 7, D 16. D gives 1 to E: D 15, E 11. D + E = 15 + 11 = 26. B + C + F = 7 + 12 + 7 = 26, option (b).

  37. Q37

    There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3ʳᵈ of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to

    • (a)25%
    • (b)30%
    • (c)35%
    • (d)40%

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Let the initial volume of the milk sample be 3 units, which contains 1.5 units of water (50%) and 1.5 units of milk. One-third of this sample is taken, which equals 1 unit of the mixture. This 1 unit contains 0.5 units of water and 0.5 units of milk.

  38. Q38

    There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?

    • (a)16
    • (b)24
    • (c)36
    • (d)42

    UPSC's answer: (c) — A grid formed by 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines creates a 3x3 array of unit cells, resulting in 9 small squares. To form a rectangle or square, one must choose any 2 distinct horizontal lines and any 2 distinct vertical lines from the available sets.

  39. Q39

    A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?

    • (a)480 km
    • (b)260 km
    • (c)240 km
    • (d)120 km

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The freight train has a 2-hour head start at 40 km/hr, covering 80 km before the express train departs. The relative speed between the express train (60 km/hr) and the freight train (40 km/hr) is 20 km/hr. The time required for the express train to close the 80 km gap is 80 km / 20 km/hr = 4 hours.

  40. Q40

    In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?

    • (a)Randhir
    • (b)Neha
    • (c)Sonal
    • (d)Data are inadequate

    UPSC's answer: (d) — From the first two statements, Kunal + Debu < Randhir < Kunal + Shankar, so Shankar > Debu. Neha > Randhir and Sonal > Shankar. Nothing fixes Sonal against Neha.

  41. Q41

    Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?

    • (a)Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay.
    • (b)Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development.
    • (c)It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties.
    • (d)Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states that political development disrupts traditional institutions, leading to a mix of renewed traditional identifications and new alignments. It highlights that this process involves both the decay of old loyalties and the growth of new group awarenesses (class, tribe, region, etc.).

  42. Q42

    Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization.
    • (b)The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise.
    • (c)Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level.
    • (d)For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage defines political legitimacy as a 'mass demand from below' that creates the necessary political force for decentralization to succeed.

  43. Q43

    Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

    • (a)All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies.
    • (b)Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living.
    • (c)Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media.
    • (d)Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that the digital is not just a tool for specific tasks but is integral to our perception of identity and connection to the world. It emphasizes that digital technology is woven into the fabric of how we define our domains and exist in the present moment.

  44. Q44

    Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes.
    • (b)Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies.
    • (c)There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum.
    • (d)As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that the broad, overall cause of the middle-income trap is a 'collapse in the growth of productivity'. It defines the trap as a situation where average incomes, which were growing rapidly, stop growing beyond a certain point.

  45. Q45

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration.
    • (b)Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors.
    • (c)Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society.
    • (d)Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country's economic growth is rapid.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly states that an innovative India will be 'inclusive' and that innovation and R&D can 'mitigate increases in social inequality'. It further notes that the divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive sectors threatens to increase income inequality.

  46. Q46

    Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

    • (a)The world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees.
    • (b)We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change.
    • (c)Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future.
    • (d)Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that 'There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration.' It also notes that the international community has not reached a consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees.

  47. Q47

    On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture. 2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance. 3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

    • (a)1 and 2 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)1 and 3 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Assumption 1 is incorrect because the passage highlights the dangers of synthetic pesticides but does not state they should 'never' be used; it only suggests botanical alternatives are safer, implying a preference rather than an absolute ban.

  48. Q48

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent in environment. 3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)1 and 2 only
    • (c)1 and 3 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct because biopesticides are derived from natural materials like animals, plants, bacteria, or minerals, making them generally non-toxic and safe for human health compared to synthetic chemicals.

  49. Q49

    Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics : 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7. How many such 3-digit numbers are there?

    • (a)2
    • (b)4
    • (c)6
    • (d)8

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the number be 100a + 10b + c and its reverse be 100c + 10b + a; since both are divisible by 7, their difference 99(a - c) is divisible by 7.

  50. Q50

    Examine the following statements : 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?

    • (a)1 and 2 are true.
    • (b)3 is true.
    • (c)2 is false.
    • (d)1 is false.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 4 states 'Some colours are not pleasant,' which is a particular negative proposition (O-type) in categorical logic. In the traditional Square of Opposition, the O proposition is contradictory to the A proposition, which is 'All colours are pleasant' (Statement 1).

  51. Q51

    How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?

    • (a)64
    • (b)80
    • (c)90
    • (d)104

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The numbers must be strictly between 99 and 1000, meaning they range from 100 to 999. These are all three-digit numbers of the form XYZ, where X is the hundreds digit, Y is the tens digit, and Z is the units digit. The condition states that the digit 8 occupies the units place, so Z is fixed as 8.

  52. Q52

    If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode then the distribution is

    • (a)symmetric
    • (b)skewed to the right
    • (c)neither symmetric nor skewed
    • (d)skewed to the left

    UPSC's answer: (d) — In a negatively skewed distribution, the long tail extends toward lower values, pulling the mean below the median. The median lies between the mean and mode because it is less affected by extreme low values than the mean but more than the mode.

  53. Q53

    The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?

    • (a)42
    • (b)38
    • (c)25
    • (d)16

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let Mr. X's age last year be n² and his age next year be m³. Since these differ by 2 years, we have m³ − n² = 2, i.e., n² + 2 = m³. Testing small values of m: for m = 3, m³ = 27, so n² = 25 and n = 5. This gives last year's age = 25, current age = 26, and next year's age = 27 = 3³.

  54. Q54

    P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?

    • (a)3 : 1 : 1
    • (b)3 : 2 : 4
    • (c)4 : 3 : 4
    • (d)3 : 1 : 4

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Let the work rate of Q be 1 unit per day. Since P works thrice as fast as Q, P's rate is 3 units per day. The combined rate of P and Q is 3 + 1 = 4 units per day. The problem states that P and Q together work four times as fast as R, so 4 = 4 * (R's rate), which means R's rate is 1 unit per day.

  55. Q55

    Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F : 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F. 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. 4. B is the son of A. 5. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

    • (a)A, B and C are all females.
    • (b)A is the husband of D.
    • (c)E and F are children of D.
    • (d)D is the daughter of F.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — A and E are sons of F and B is the son of A, so A, E and B are male. With three males and three females, C, D and F are female; F is the mother of A and E. D is the mother of a boy and a girl. The only boy not already accounted for as F's son is B, so D's children are B and C.

  56. Q56

    A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?

    • (a)17
    • (b)16
    • (c)13
    • (d)11

    UPSC's answer: (b) — To find the minimum number of balls needed to guarantee at least one of each color, we must consider the worst-case scenario. In the worst case, you pick all balls of the two most numerous colors before picking the first ball of the third color.

  57. Q57

    If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?

    • (a)3
    • (b)6
    • (c)12
    • (d)24

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Arrange the 2 boys first: 2 ways. This creates 3 gaps (before, between, after). Put the 2 girls into 2 different gaps so they are not next to each other: 3 × 2 = 6 ways (choosing and ordering the gaps). Total = 2 × 6 = 12, option (c).

  58. Q58

    The outer surface of a 4 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?

    • (a)8
    • (b)16
    • (c)24
    • (d)36

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The 4 cm cube is cut into 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 cubes of 1 cm. Cubes with no painted face lie in the interior, after removing the outer layer on every side. The interior block is (4 − 2) × (4 − 2) × (4 − 2) = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 cubes, option (a).

  59. Q59

    Consider the following : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G. F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at the extreme end. A is sixth to the left of E. H is sixth to the right of C. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?

    • (a)C is to the immediate left of A.
    • (b)D is immediate neighbour of B and F.
    • (c)G is to the immediate right of D.
    • (d)A and E are at the extreme ends.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Number the positions 1 to 8 from the left. "A is sixth to the left of E" gives (A, E) = (1, 7) or (2, 8); "H is sixth to the right of C" gives (C, H) = (1, 7) or (2, 8). These pairs cannot share positions, so one is (1, 7) and the other (2, 8).

  60. Q60

    In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates ‘white’ is

    • (a)2
    • (b)4
    • (c)5
    • (d)8

    UPSC's answer: (b) — '256' (red colour chalk) and '254' (white colour chalk) share 2 and 5, which stand for 'colour' and 'chalk'. The remaining digit of '256', 6, is 'red'; the remaining digit of '254', 4, is 'white'. So 'white' is 4, option (b).

  61. Q61

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free.
    • (b)There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country.
    • (c)Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities.
    • (d)In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that the AQI is most useful when pollution levels are normally low, allowing the public to take preventive action during temporary spikes. It explicitly notes that in many large Indian cities, pollution levels remain well above health standards for a large part of the year.

  62. Q62

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion.
    • (b)We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion.
    • (c)We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture.
    • (d)We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that for agricultural per capita incomes to rise, the number of people dependent on agriculture must shrink. It notes that while industry creates jobs, many are low-productivity and unorganized, offering poor protection and benefits.

  63. Q63

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters.
    • (b)All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture.
    • (c)Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there.
    • (d)The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — In hurricane Mitch, farms using ecoagriculture suffered 58–99 per cent less damage than conventional farms: less vulnerability to disasters.

  64. Q64

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    • (a)India's GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries.
    • (b)Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India.
    • (c)India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development.
    • (d)India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that to increase manufacturing's share in GDP to 25%, India must capture global markets in high-technology and capital-intensive sectors. It defines high-tech industries as being mainly capital and technology intensive, implying a need for significant investment in these areas.

  65. Q65

    Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

    • (a)Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition.
    • (b)Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.
    • (c)India's agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further.
    • (d)Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage highlights a paradox: India has record agricultural production and is a top global producer, yet it still houses a quarter of the world's undernourished people.

  66. Q66

    Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?

    • (a)A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong.
    • (b)A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity.
    • (c)A strong Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy.
    • (d)State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The metaphor compares the Centre to a thread and States to pearls, implying the Centre holds the States together. The phrase 'if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered' indicates that without the Centre, the States would disintegrate or lose unity.

  67. Q67

    The above statement argues for

    • (a)distribution of wealth equally to all
    • (b)rule according to the consent of the governed
    • (c)rule of the poor
    • (d)expropriation of the rich

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that every man living under a government must first give his own consent to be subject to it. It argues that the poorest man is not bound by a government in which he has no voice or representation.

  68. Q68

    The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0·40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0·50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?

    • (a)0·60 inch
    • (b)0·70 inch
    • (c)0·80 inch
    • (d)0·90 inch

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Calculate the total rainfall for the first four days: 4 days × 0.40 inch/day = 1.60 inches. Calculate the total rainfall for all six days: 6 days × 0.50 inch/day = 3.00 inches. Determine the combined rainfall for the last two days (5th and 6th): 3.00 - 1.60 = 1.40 inches.

  69. Q69

    Who is specialized in Geography?

    • (a)B
    • (b)D
    • (c)E
    • (d)Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Fixed by the clues: C Delhi (Sociology), D Shillong, F Srinagar (Commerce), G Chennai (Statistics), A Economics. The cities left for A, B and E are Hyderabad, Kanpur and Mumbai.

  70. Q70

    To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?

    • (a)Hyderabad
    • (b)Mumbai
    • (c)Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
    • (d)Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The cities left for A, B and E are Hyderabad, Kanpur and Mumbai (C Delhi, D Shillong, F Srinagar, G Chennai). A teaches Economics, so A is not the Kanpur (Geography) lecturer; clue 5 says A is not from Hyderabad. So the Economics lecturer, A, is from Mumbai, option (b).

  71. Q71

    Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?

    • (a)B
    • (b)E
    • (c)Neither B nor E
    • (d)Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    UPSC's answer: (b) — A is from Mumbai (see the previous items), so B and E share Hyderabad and Kanpur. B teaches neither History nor Mathematics, so B teaches the remaining subject, Geography, and is the Kanpur lecturer. So E is from Hyderabad, option (b).

  72. Q72

    In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of subjects?

    • (a)A
    • (b)B
    • (c)D
    • (d)E

    UPSC's answer: (b) — A and B teach Hindi and English, so A teaches Hindi and English, and B teaches Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography, so B adds Geography, and C teaches English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi, so A adds Mathematics, and D teaches Mathematics and Hindi.

  73. Q73

    A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?

    • (a)9
    • (b)27
    • (c)36
    • (d)45

    UPSC's answer: (d) — For a number and its reverse, the larger divided by the smaller gives the biggest remainder when the quotient is 1, and then the remainder equals their difference, 9 × (difference of the digits). The quotient stays 1 only if the larger is less than twice the smaller.

  74. Q74

    The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, each saves ₹ 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income?

    • (a)₹ 28,000
    • (b)₹ 42,000
    • (c)₹ 56,000
    • (d)₹ 84,000

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the monthly incomes of X and Y be 4k and 3k respectively, based on the given ratio of 4:3. Let their monthly expenses be 3m and 2m respectively, based on the given ratio of 3:2. Since each saves ₹6,000, we form the equations: 4k - 3m = 6,000 and 3k - 2m = 6,000.

  75. Q75

    Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?

    • (a)4
    • (b)6
    • (c)12
    • (d)15

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Take P as the corner. The fly's distances from the two walls and the ceiling are its three perpendicular coordinates, and its distance from P is the length of the diagonal. So 1² + 8² + h² = 9², that is 1 + 64 + h² = 81, giving h² = 16 and h = 4. The fly is 4 m from the ceiling, option (a).

  76. Q77

    In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?

    • (a)1
    • (b)2
    • (c)3
    • (d)4

    UPSC's answer: (d) — From F the only way out is the two-way F–D (B to F is one-way into F). From D the train can go to H or E. Via H: H goes only to G; from G, C then A works (G to B leads back to F, already visited). Route: F–D–H–G–C–A. Via E: E–A directly; E–C–A; and E–G–C–A. Routes: F–D–E–A, F–D–E–C–A, F–D–E–G–C–A.

  77. Q78

    If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?

    • (a)E
    • (b)D
    • (c)A
    • (d)B

    UPSC's answer: (c) — With G-C closed, from H the only outgoing passage is H to G, so every H-to-C route must start H-G. From G the only usable outgoing passage is G to B, because G-C is closed and G-B is two-way, so the route must continue G-B.

  78. Q79

    There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there?

    • (a)3
    • (b)4
    • (c)5
    • (d)None of the above

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Let the 2-digit number be 10a + b (a ∈ {1,…,9}, b ∈ {0,…,9}); its reverse is 10b + a, and the difference is (10a + b) − (10b + a) = 9(a − b). Setting |9(a − b)| = 27 gives |a − b| = 3, so either a − b = 3 or b − a = 3.

  79. Q80

    What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?

    • (a)262
    • (b)342
    • (c)360
    • (d)450

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Pages 1 to 9 are single-digit numbers, contributing 9 × 1 = 9 digits. Pages 10 to 99 are two-digit numbers, contributing 90 × 2 = 180 digits. Pages 100 to 150 are three-digit numbers, contributing 51 × 3 = 153 digits.

Question paper and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check. Practise this paper with a timer →

Practise Prelims PYQs and the daily 21 free

Score the daily set, see your rank, and let Guru explain what you missed.

Start free

Already have an account? Log in