CSAT Paper II of the 2014 Preliminary examination, held on 24 August 2014. 80 questions · 200 marks · qualifying at 33%. The questions broke down as Comprehension 29, Logical Reasoning 16, Basic Numeracy 14, Mental Ability 2, Data Interpretation 2.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
The author's central focus is on
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage begins by noting India's fast growth but immediately says there is no room for complacency because growth can be faster and its benefits spread more widely. It defines inclusive growth as growth whose gains are shared widely by the population, not heaped primarily on a small segment.
The author supports policies which will help
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but is not a sufficient condition by itself. It says policies for promoting growth must be complemented by policies that bring more people into the growth process.
Consider the following statements : According to the author, India's economy has grown but there is no room for complacency as 1. growth eradicates poverty. 2. growth has resulted in prosperity for all. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage says India has grown fast, but there is no room for complacency because the economy can develop faster and spread the benefits of growth more widely.
Consider the following statements : According to the passage, an oil company can make greater profits, if a transparent formula for petrol pricing is announced every fortnight or month, by 1. promoting its sales. 2. undertaking innovation. 3. cutting costs. 4. selling its equity shares at higher prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage says a transparent formula would fix petrol prices from crude price x and exchange rate y, so companies cannot simply raise prices to earn more. It also says the formula must be worked out so oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover their costs.
Consider the following statements : According to the passage, private oil companies re-enter the oil producing market if 1. a transparent rule-based petrol pricing exists. 2. there is no government interference in the oil producing market. 3. subsidies are given by the government. 4. regulations of anti-trust are removed. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage says government control of State-owned companies is easy through 'nods and winks', so the first corrective step is a transparent petrol-pricing formula.
A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Let the front row have x children; for n rows the row sizes are x, x-3, x-6, ..., x-3(n-1). Their total is n/2 [2x - 3(n-1)] = 630, so x = (1260/n + 3(n-1))/2 must be a whole number. For n = 3, 4, and 5, x equals 213, 162, and 132 respectively, giving valid integer row sizes.
There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be
UPSC's answer: (c) — Number the steps 1 to 7 from bottom to top; B is in the middle, so B is on step 4. E is between B and F, so F and E are on opposite sides of B; if F were above B, E would be above B and F above E, leaving no higher steps for A and C because A must be above E and C above A.
Consider that : 1. A is taller than B. 2. C is taller than A. 3. D is taller than C. 4. E is the tallest of all. If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — From 1, A is taller than B. From 2, C is taller than A, so C > A > B. From 3, D is taller than C, so D > C > A > B. From 4, E is the tallest of all, so E > D > C > A > B. With five people, the mid position is the third tallest, which is C, so option (c) follows.
Consider the following statements : There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. F is 1 km to the west of D. B is 1 km to the east of E. A is 2 km to the north of E. C is 1 km to the east of A. D is 1 km to the south of A. Which three villages are in a line ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Take E as (0, 0), so B is (1, 0) because B is 1 km east of E. A is (0, 2) because A is 2 km north of E, and D is (0, 1) because D is 1 km south of A. C is (1, 2) because C is 1 km east of A, and F is (-1, 1) because F is 1 km west of D.
Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Number the four seats 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. Since A is next to B, A and B must occupy two adjacent seats; since A is not next to C, C cannot sit in a seat adjacent to A. Since C is not next to D, C and D must be separated by at least one seat.
Assume that 1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking. 2. the clock shows a time between 8 o'clock and 9 o'clock. 3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other. After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The minute hand moves at 6° per minute and the hour hand at 0.5° per minute, so the minute hand gains 5.5° per minute on the hour hand. For the hands to be one above the other again, the minute hand must gain a full 360° relative to the hour hand.
Consider the following statements : Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to 1. melting of glaciers. 2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations. 3. poor productivity of crops. 4. wider adaptability of crop plants. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that shifting crop locations may be necessary in response to temperature changes and water availability, which matches statement 2. It also says some crops may not respond favourably to changing conditions, implying poor productivity can force a shift, matching statement 3.
According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that climate-change impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. It adds that some crops may respond favourably to changing conditions, while others may not.
According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases ? 1. Reducing the consumption of meat 2. Rapid economic liberalization 3. Reducing the consumerism 4. Modern management practices of livestock Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that mitigation requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, not merely a technological fix.
Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily ? 1. Inadequate technological development 2. Inadequate funds for research and development 3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that technological development for renewable energy has been slow and inadequate, so statement 1 is directly supported.
According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us ? 1. Reduces expenditure on public health 2. Reduces dependence on livestock 3. Reduces energy requirements 4. Reduces rate of global climate change Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that mitigation avoids the worst impacts of climate change and that the IPCC trajectory requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter, so mitigation reduces the rate of global climate change (statement 4).
What is the essential message of the passage ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage begins by stating that it is essential to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions to avoid the worst impacts of climate change. It argues that mitigation requires a major shift away from fossil fuels toward renewable energy, especially for India.
There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Total English speakers = 21, and both English and Hindi speakers = 10, so only English speakers = 21 - 10 = 11. Total students = 50, so only Hindi speakers = 50 - 11 - 10 = 29. Total Hindi speakers = only Hindi speakers + both speakers = 29 + 10 = 39.
A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden
UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the original length be L and the original width be W, so the original area is L × W. The new length is 40% more than L, so it is 1.40L. The new width is 20% less than W, so it is 0.80W. The new area is 1.40L × 0.80W = 1.12LW.
Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Green covers: B, C, E, F. Old volumes: C, E, F. Medical extracts: D, E, F. Books that are both old and medical extracts: E and F. Both E and F also have green covers. Therefore, the correct option is (b) E and F.
A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — From the left end, the marked interior points are at 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21 and 28 cm, giving 7 points. From the right end, the marked interior points are at 35, 33, 30, 26, 21, 15 and 8 cm, giving 7 points. The common points are at 15 cm and 21 cm, so they must be counted only once.
If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other
UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the same selling price of each goat be 100. For the goat sold at 10% profit, cost price = 100 / (11/10) = 1000/11. For the goat sold at 10% loss, cost price = 100 / (9/10) = 1000/9, so total cost price = 1000/11 + 1000/9 = 20000/99 and total selling price = 200.
Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — 5% of 120 musicians can play all three instruments, so all-three = 6. Musicians who can play exactly two instruments = 30. Musicians who can play guitar alone = 40.
Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Let k be the number of cards showing 2; initially k = 0, and each try flips exactly 4 cards, so k changes by 4 - 2x, where x is the number of 2-cards flipped. In one try, at most 4 cards can be turned to show 2, so k = 6 cannot be reached in 1 try.
Consider the following statements : According to the passage, the adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a 1. permanent disappearance of some of its flora and fauna. 2. permanent disappearance of ecosystem itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage says climate change can cause "possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services." "Loss of species" directly supports statement 1, i.e., permanent disappearance of some flora and fauna.
Which one of the following statements best implies the need to shift toward contemporary conservation approach ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage identifies climate change as a major threat to the Himalayan ecosystem, especially to endemics with restricted distribution and specialized habitats.
What is the most important message conveyed by the passage ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage first states that the Himalayan ecosystem is vulnerable to geological, population, resource-exploitation and climate-change pressures. It then identifies endemics with restricted distribution and specialized habitat requirements as among the most vulnerable elements.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploitation of natural resources should be completely avoided. 2. Not only anthropogenic but also natural reasons can adversely affect ecosystems. 3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states the Himalayan ecosystem is vulnerable due to geological reasons and due to stress from population pressure, exploitation of natural resources, and related challenges.
According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are viewed as processes leading to
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states that globalization’s basic philosophy emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production, and distribution patterns. It directly says this philosophy views government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency.
According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that the basic philosophy underlying globalization “emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns.” It further says employment and wages should be governed by the free play of market forces.
According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for ensuring globalization ? 1. Privatization of public enterprises 2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure 3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment 4. Privatization of social services like education and health Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestments and sales, so statement 1 is necessary. It states that employment and wages should be governed by the free play of market forces, so statement 3 is necessary.
According to the passage, in the process of globalization the State should have
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that the basic philosophy of globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets and views government interventions as distortions and inefficiency.
The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects : | Subject | Student A | Maximum Marks | Student B | Maximum Marks | | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: | | English | 60 | 100 | 80 | 150 | | Psychology | 70 | 100 | 70 | 100 | | History | 50 | 100 | 60 | 100 | | Sanskrit | 30 | 50 | 15 | 25 | The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is
UPSC's answer: (d) — Student A's total marks are 60 + 70 + 50 + 30 = 210 out of 100 + 100 + 100 + 50 = 350, so Student A's aggregate percentage is (210/350) × 100 = 60%. Student B's total marks are 80 + 70 + 60 + 15 = 225 out of 150 + 100 + 100 + 25 = 375, so Student B's aggregate percentage is (225/375) × 100 = 60%.
The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years : | Year | 1992 | 1993 | 1994 | 1995 | | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: | | Population in lakhs | 20 | 21 | 22 | 23 | | Income in crores (₹) | 1010 | 1111 | 1225 | 1345 | Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above data ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Calculate per capita income for 1992: ₹1010 crores / 20 lakhs = ₹5,050. Calculate per capita income for 1993: ₹1111 crores / 21 lakhs ≈ ₹5,290. Calculate per capita income for 1994: ₹1225 crores / 22 lakhs ≈ ₹5,568. Calculate per capita income for 1995: ₹1345 crores / 23 lakhs ≈ ₹5,848.
A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o'clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The bells ring together only after a time that is a common multiple of 18, 24, and 32 minutes. Factorize: 18 = 2 × 3², 24 = 2³ × 3, and 32 = 2⁵. The LCM takes the highest powers: 2⁵ × 3² = 32 × 9 = 288 minutes. 288 minutes equals 4 hours 48 minutes.
“Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage stamps, a day's labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, but values of all things except one would not.” The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage distinguishes price, which is the money expression of a good, from value, which is its relative worth in exchange. If every price doubles, the exchange ratio between any two goods remains unchanged, so coal still buys the same amount of bread as before.
A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has ₹ 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has ₹ 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A has ₹10, which is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. Therefore, the fare for two persons is ₹10 ÷ 0.80 = ₹12.50. B gives ₹3 to A, so A now has ₹10 + ₹3 = ₹13. After buying two tickets for ₹12.50, A is left with ₹13 - ₹12.50 = ₹0.50, i.e., 50 paise. Hence option (c) is correct.
As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal instalments without interest. After paying 18 instalments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many instalments were there in the agreement ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the total number of equal instalments be n. Since instalments are equal and without interest, each instalment refunds 1/n of the loan. After 18 instalments, the refunded amount is 18/n of the loan. This is given as 60 percent, so 18/n = 60/100 = 3/5. Solving gives n = 18 × 5/3 = 30.
A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is
UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the distance be d km and the scheduled travel time be T hours. At 5 km/hr, time taken is d/5, which is 3 minutes late, so d/5 = T + 3/60. At 6 km/hr, time taken is d/6, which is 7 minutes early, so d/6 = T - 7/60. Subtracting gives d/5 - d/6 = 3/60 + 7/60 = 10/60 = 1/6 hour.
“Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when it invades rights.” Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement asserts that liberty is conditional upon the government being accountable for rights violations, implying a necessary relationship between freedom and legal limits.
The apologists of the “Free Market System”, according to the passage, believe in
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that debates regarding the global banking crisis focus on 'free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction.' It explicitly links the 'apologists of the system' to the justification of capitalism's success, arguing that the recent crisis…
With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies that
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that the arguments of capitalism's apologists 'betray an ideological bias'. It explicitly identifies the assumptions behind this bias as the belief that 'an unregulated market is fair and competent'.
“The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage 1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism. 2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market. 3. shows the benevolent face of capitalism. 4. ignores resultant gross inequity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly states that the arguments of capitalism's apologists 'betray an ideological bias' with the assumption that 'the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest.' This directly supports statement 1, identifying the phrase as a component of the 'false ideology'…
According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector ? 1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process. 2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily. 3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding. 4. Effective competition policies are available now. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly lists 'comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of the public sector enterprises' as a reason, validating statement 2.
According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that rural roads have 'sparse traffic' which makes 'tolling unviable'. Because tolling is not viable, the private sector cannot generate revenue or monetary gains from these assets.
The portfolio composition of the government refers to
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly asks, 'What should the portfolio composition of the government be?' and immediately follows with examples of specific industries like airlines, rural roads, public health, and steel.
The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage argues that in regulated industries, the optimal structure is for the government to act as a regulator while the private sector operates as competing firms.
A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets : A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year's paper is most likely to contain a question on
UPSC's answer: (b) — The rule states that modern poets (E, F, G, H) figure in the question paper in alternate years. Since last year's paper contained a question on A (a medieval poet), this year's paper is most likely to feature a modern poet.
In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The group consists of 6 women: Girija, Vanaja, Jalaja, Shailaja, Tanuja, and Pooja. Pooja is identified as the single actress, so she is not a dancer, vocal musician, or violinist.
The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — P is assigned the integer 4. The difference between P and T is 5, so T is either 4 + 5 = 9 or 4 - 5 = -1. Since the integers are from 1 to 9, T must be 9. The difference between N and T is 3, so N is either 9 + 3 = 12 or 9 - 3 = 6. Since the integers are from 1 to 9, N must be 6.
The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement gives crude mortality rates: 8 deaths per 1000 army personnel and 20 deaths per 1000 civilians. Crude rates do not adjust for age, sex, health status, occupation, or selection criteria.
Given the statement : “Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses”, which of the following conclusions can we draw ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement provides comparative data on the number of accidents caused by buses, cars, and trucks, but it does not provide data on the total number of vehicles on the road for each category.
“If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society’s level of political development.” In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage says that if political leadership fails to emerge, the military is likely to take over power, and that radical students or labour cannot compete with it. The underlying assumption is that when a political vacuum arises, the military is the force that fills it.
Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of ₹ 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact ₹ 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Let the amount with Dinesh be D. Since Chander has half of Dinesh's money, Chander has D/2. Alok has ₹5 more than Dinesh, so Alok has D + 5. The total money is ₹100, and Alok + Bhupesh = Chander + Dinesh, which implies each pair has ₹50.
Examine the following statements : 1. George attends Music classes on Monday. 2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. 3. His Literature classes are not on Friday. 4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes. 5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 places Music on Monday. Statement 5 places Sports on Tuesday. Statement 2 places Mathematics on Wednesday. Statement 4 states History is on the day following Mathematics (Wednesday), so History is on Thursday.
In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’ ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Initially, A is at the 11th position from the left, so A's position is 11. B is at the 10th position from the right. Let the total number of persons be N. Then B's position from the left is N - 10 + 1 = N - 9. When A and B interchange positions, A moves to B's original position.
Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is
UPSC's answer: (b) — Location B is directly north of A, and location C is directly east of A, forming a right-angled triangle with the right angle at A. The distance AB is given as 5 km, which serves as one leg of the triangle. The distance AC is given as 12 km, which serves as the other leg of the triangle.
Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at
UPSC's answer: (a) — The total distance between the two cars is 160 km. Since they are moving towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: 50 km/h + 30 km/h = 80 km/h.
If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 3rd is Monday, so the 10th, 17th and 24th are also Monday. From the 17th Monday, the 21st is 4 days later, so the 21st is Friday. Counting the fifth day from the 21st as the fifth day after it: 22nd Saturday, 23rd Sunday, 24th Monday, 25th Tuesday, 26th Wednesday.
For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of ₹ 5 each, one-third at the rate of ₹ 3 each and the rest for ₹ 2 each. What was the total amount received ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Total tickets sold = 420. Half sold at ₹5: 420 / 2 = 210 tickets; amount = 210 × 5 = ₹1,050. One-third sold at ₹3: 420 / 3 = 140 tickets; amount = 140 × 3 = ₹420. Remaining tickets: 420 - 210 - 140 = 70 tickets; amount = 70 × 2 = ₹140. Total amount = 1,050 + 420 + 140 = ₹1,610.
What is the profession of B ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The two married couples are A (engineer) with the lady stenographer, and the judge with the lawyer C. B is F's parent, so B is married; B is not A, so B must be in the judge–lawyer couple — B is the judge, married to C.
Which of the following is/are a couple/couples ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The two married couples are A (engineer) with the lady stenographer, and the judge with the lawyer C. B is F's parent, so B is married; B is not A, so B must be in the judge–lawyer couple — B is the judge, married to C.
What is the profession of D ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The two married couples are A (engineer) with the lady stenographer, and the judge with the lawyer C. B is F's parent, so B is married; B is not A, so B must be in the judge–lawyer couple — B is the judge, married to C.
Question paper and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check. Practise this paper with a timer →
Practise Prelims PYQs and the daily 21 free
Score the daily set, see your rank, and let Guru explain what you missed.
Already have an account? Log in