GS Paper I of the 2021 Preliminary examination, held on 10 October 2021. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as History 21, Economy 18, Polity & Governance 18, Environment & Ecology 16, General Science 11, Geography 9, Current Events 4.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. 2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: under Section 8 of the RBI Act, 1934 the Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government. Statement 3 is correct: the Governor's powers flow from the RBI Act (and the Banking Regulation Act), not from the Constitution, which does not mention the RBI.
With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements : 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: not all casual workers get Employees' Provident Fund cover. The EPF Act applies only to notified establishments with 20 or more employees, so casual workers in smaller or uncovered units are left out.
Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
UPSC's answer: (b) — In a recession demand collapses; the Keynesian remedy is expansionary fiscal policy — increasing government spending on public projects to create jobs and revive demand through the multiplier — option (b).
Consider the following statements : Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if 1. price of its substitute increases 2. price of its complement increases 3. the good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases 4. its price falls Which of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: if a substitute (e.g. coffee for tea) becomes dearer, consumers switch to the good, raising its demand. Statement 4 is correct: a fall in the good's own price increases the quantity demanded along the demand curve. Statement 2 is wrong: if a complement (e.g.
With reference to 'Urban Cooperative Banks' in India, consider the following statements : 1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) serve small borrowers in towns and cities under dual control of the RBI (banking functions) and State Registrars (cooperative matters).
Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Government bond yields reflect the return investors demand for holding government debt and respond to several forces. The RBI's policy rate, open-market operations and liquidity stance directly set the short end and shape the whole curve (item 2).
Consider the following : 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global depository receipts 4. Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
UPSC's answer: (a) — India's FDI policy (Consolidated FDI Policy and FEMA rules) counts as FDI any foreign investment in equity or equity-like instruments that confers a lasting interest.
Consider the following statements : The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily 1. improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets 2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency 3. improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Devaluation lowers the external value of the domestic currency, making exports cheaper in foreign currency and imports dearer at home. Statement 1 is correct: exports necessarily become more price-competitive abroad.
Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Black money is income on which taxes have not been paid; its defining harm to the Government is the loss of tax revenue that would otherwise fund public services and reduce deficits — option (d).
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Financing a deficit by creating new money (deficit monetisation, i.e. the RBI printing money to buy government bonds) directly expands the monetary base without any offsetting reduction in private spending, so it is the most inflationary — option (d).
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The money multiplier (broad money ÷ reserve money) rises when a larger share of money stays inside the banking system to be re-lent. A stronger banking habit means people hold less cash and more deposits, lowering the currency-deposit ratio and raising the multiplier — option (c).
With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following? 1. Expansionary policies 2. Fiscal stimulus 3. Inflation-indexing wages 4. Higher purchasing power 5. Rising interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Demand-pull inflation arises when aggregate demand outruns the economy's capacity to supply ("too much money chasing too few goods"). Expansionary monetary policy (1), fiscal stimulus (2) and higher purchasing power (4) all add to aggregate demand and so cause or increase demand-pull inflation.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Debt Bonds' in primary market. 2. The 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. The 'Central Depository Services Ltd.' is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: retail investors can bid non-competitively in primary auctions of T-bills and G-secs through demat/broker or the RBI Retail Direct route. Statement 2 is correct: NDS-OM is the RBI's electronic, anonymous order-matching platform for secondary trading in government securities.
With reference to 'WaterCredit', consider the following statements : 1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — WaterCredit is the flagship model of Water.org, a US-based non-profit co-founded by Gary White and Matt Damon. Statement 1 is correct: it channels microfinance (small affordable loans) into household water connections and toilets.
In India, the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of the following? 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis 3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — As lender of last resort the RBI provides emergency liquidity to solvent banks facing a temporary shortage, to prevent bank runs and systemic panic (item 2). Instruments include the Marginal Standing Facility, repo/LAF and special liquidity windows during crises.
'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
UPSC's answer: (a) — R2 (Responsible Recycling) is a voluntary certification standard developed by SERI (Sustainable Electronics Recycling International) with the US EPA.
Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment. 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment. 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Copper is smelted from sulphide ores (chalcopyrite), so roasting releases large amounts of sulphur dioxide, a major pollutant causing acid rain and respiratory harm (item 3).
With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements : 1. It is a product of oil refineries. 2. Some industries use it to generate power. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Furnace oil (fuel oil) is a heavy residual fraction obtained at the bottom of crude-oil distillation in refineries (statement 1). Industries such as textiles, ceramics, glass and captive power plants burn it in boilers and generators to produce heat and electricity (statement 2).
What is blue carbon?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Blue carbon is the carbon captured and stored by ocean and coastal ecosystems — mangroves, salt marshes and seagrass meadows — in their biomass and, especially, their sediments (option a).
In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Moss 4. Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Lichens (fungus–alga partnerships) are pioneer organisms that colonise bare rock, tree bark and walls, absorbing water and minerals directly from air and rain (item 2). Mosses (bryophytes) lack true roots and grow as mats on rocks, tree trunks and roofs, needing only moisture, not soil (item 3).
Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Lemongrass (Cymbopogon) yields citronella-type essential oils rich in citral and geraniol, which mosquitoes avoid; it is the base of natural repellent sprays, candles and coils — option (c). Congress grass (Parthenium) is an invasive weed causing allergies, not a repellent (a).
Consider the following kinds of organisms : 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Primary producers make their own food by photosynthesis; in oceans this is phytoplankton. Cyanobacteria (e.g. Prochlorococcus, Synechococcus) are photosynthetic bacteria and among the most abundant ocean producers (item 2).
Consider the following animals : 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Hedgehogs roll into a tight ball so their spines face outward and the soft belly, face and limbs are protected (item 1). Pangolins, covered in keratin scales, curl into an armoured ball that even lions struggle to open (item 3).
With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests', which of the following statements are correct? 1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014. 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests. 3. It is a legally binding international declaration. 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The New York Declaration on Forests was first endorsed at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014 (statement 1). It set a global timeline to halve natural forest loss by 2020 and end it by 2030, while restoring 350 million hectares (statement 2).
Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Filter feeders strain suspended food particles from water. Oysters draw water over their gills and trap plankton and organic matter — option (c).
In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle with no significant gaseous phase; phosphate enters ecosystems mainly when phosphate-bearing rocks (apatite) weather and release it into soil and water — option (c).
Which of the following are detritivores? 1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses 5. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Detritivores feed on dead organic matter (detritus), breaking it down and speeding nutrient recycling. Earthworms (1), millipedes (3) and woodlice (5) eat decaying leaves, wood and soil organic matter — classic detritivores.
The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Common Carbon Metric was developed by UNEP's Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) with the World Green Building Council.
Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms? 1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Cnidarians: reef-building corals and some sea anemones host photosynthetic zooxanthellae algae in their tissues; anemones also partner with clownfish (item 1). Fungi: lichens (fungus + alga/cyanobacterium) and mycorrhizae (fungus + plant roots) are textbook symbioses (item 2).
With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements : 1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 2. It is the only circular temple built in India. 3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. 4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Chausath Yogini temple at Mitaoli (Morena, MP) is circular, with 64 cells around an open courtyard, built c. 1323 CE by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (statement 1).
Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Dholavira (Kachchh, Gujarat), a Harappan city on Khadir island, is famed for its water management: a series of check dams on the seasonal Manhar and Mansar streams diverted water into a chain of 16 rock-cut, interconnected reservoirs around the city (option a).
In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? 1. Broach 2. Chicacole 3. Trichinopoly Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The English East India Company (chartered 1600) set up its earliest west-coast factories at Surat (1613) and soon after at Broach (Bharuch), Ahmedabad and Agra by 1619 — all within the first quarter of the 17th century (item 1).
From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India? 1. The Guptas of Magadha 2. The Paramaras of Malwa 3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar 4. The Maukharis of Kanauj 5. The Yadavas of Devagiri 6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Between the Gupta decline (c. 550 CE) and Harsha's rise (606 CE), northern India was divided among the Later Guptas of Magadha (1), the Pushyabhutis of Thanesar (3, Harsha's own line), the Maukharis of Kanauj (4) and the Maitrakas of Valabhi in Saurashtra (6).
According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the following areas? 1. Wrestling 2. Astrology 3. Accounting 4. Soothsaying Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Fernão Nuniz, a Portuguese horse-trader who lived in Vijayanagara c. 1535–37, recorded that the king's household employed women as wrestlers, astrologers, soothsayers, accountants, judges, bailiffs and guards.
With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — In February 1919 Rabindranath Tagore stayed at the Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle, where he rendered 'Jana Gana Mana' into English as 'The Morning Song of India'; the tune was set there by Margaret Cousins (option c).
Consider the following pairs : (Historical place) : (Well-known for) 1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines 2. Chandraketugarh : Terracotta art 3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Chandraketugarh (North 24 Parganas, West Bengal) is celebrated for exquisite terracotta plaques and figurines of the Sunga–Kushana period (pair 2 correct).
Consider the following statements : 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. 3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: in 1221 Chengiz Khan chased the Khwarezm prince Jalal-ud-din Mangbarni to the Indus; Iltutmish (r. 1211–36) wisely refused him shelter and the Mongols withdrew.
Consider the following statements : 1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order. 2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there. 3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Francis Xavier was one of the seven companions who, with Ignatius of Loyola, founded the Society of Jesus (Jesuits) in Paris in 1534. Statement 3 is correct: his feast on 3 December is a major annual celebration in Goa, with decennial expositions of his relics.
With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes. 2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property. 3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Mitakshara (Vijnaneshwara, 11th c.) and Dayabhaga (Jimutavahana, 12th c.) are two schools of Hindu inheritance law, applied regionally — Dayabhaga in Bengal and Assam, Mitakshara elsewhere — not by caste (statement 1 wrong).
With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous
UPSC's answer: (b) — Bhavabhuti (8th c., court of Yashovarman of Kanauj) wrote the Sanskrit plays Malatimadhava, Mahaviracharita and Uttararamacharita. Hastimalla (13th c.) was a Jain author of Sanskrit dramas such as Vikrantakaurava and Maithilikalyana; Kshemeshvara (10th c.) wrote Chandakaushika and Naishadhananda.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Montagu–Chelmsford Report (1919) did not recommend women's suffrage; it left the matter to the provincial legislatures, which extended a limited, property-qualified vote to women from 1921 onwards (Madras first).
With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — On 8 August 1942 the All India Congress Committee, meeting at Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay, adopted the Quit India Resolution; Gandhi gave the 'Do or Die' call the same night — option (a). Congress ministries resigned in October–November 1939 over India being dragged into the War (c).
Who among the following is associated with 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?
UPSC's answer: (c) — 'Songs from Prison' (1934) is a collection of Gandhi's English renderings of ancient Indian devotional lyrics and bhajans, made during his imprisonment in Yeravda Jail in 1930 — option (c). Gandhi translated them for his English friends and Ashram inmates; John S. Hoyland adapted the collection.
With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Mughal administration under Akbar divided the empire into Subas (provinces), each Suba into Sarkars (districts), and each Sarkar into Parganas (groups of villages). In ascending order of size, therefore: Pargana → Sarkar → Suba — option (a).
Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Hindu Female School was founded in Calcutta in 1849 by John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune, Law Member of the Governor-General's Council; it was renamed Bethune School after his death in 1851.
In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as
UPSC's answer: (d) — Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were officers of Subhas Chandra Bose's Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) — option (d). They were the accused in the first Red Fort trial (November 1945), defended by Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jawaharlal Nehru.
With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State. 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire. 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Carnatic (Arcot) Nawabship did not emerge out of Hyderabad State. Saadatullah Khan was appointed Nawab of the Carnatic by the Mughal emperor in 1710, before Nizam-ul-Mulk founded Hyderabad as a practically independent state in 1724; the Nizam's later claim of overlordship…
Which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The 30 Ajanta caves are cut into a horseshoe-shaped cliff above the gorge of the Waghora (Waghur) river in Aurangabad district, Maharashtra — option (a). Sanchi Stupa stands on a hill near the Betwa river in Madhya Pradesh, not in the Chambal gorge (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: International Mother Language Day (21 February) was proclaimed by UNESCO in 1999 and endorsed by the UN General Assembly, not by UNICEF. The date commemorates the 1952 Dhaka students killed while demanding recognition of Bangla.
How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming. 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions. 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Permaculture designs farms as self-sustaining ecosystems: polycultures, perennials, mulching, water harvesting and no synthetic inputs. Statement 1 is correct: permaculture discourages monoculture, whereas chemical farming typically relies on it.
With reference to 'palm oil', consider the following statements : 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. 3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the oil palm (Elaeis guineensis) is native to West Africa; Indonesia and Malaysia are today's largest producers but not its origin. Statement 2 is correct: palm oil derivatives (palmitic acid, glycerine) are used in lipsticks, soaps, perfumes and many cosmetics.
With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In the Punjab river system the Jhelum joins the Chenab at Trimmu, and the Ravi joins the Chenab near Ahmadpur Sial. The Chenab (now carrying Jhelum and Ravi) then meets the Sutlej (which has already absorbed the Beas) to form the Panjnad.
With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of
UPSC's answer: (d) — Didwana and Kuchaman (Nagaur district), Sargol and Khatu are inland saline lakes/playas of the Thar region of Rajasthan — option (d). Along with Sambhar, Pachpadra and Lunkaransar they are sources of salt, with brine evaporated in salt pans.
Consider the following rivers : 1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali 3. Subarnarekha 4. Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Nagavali rises near Lakhbahal in Kalahandi district and the Vamsadhara near Thuamul Rampur in Kalahandi — both in the Eastern Ghats of Odisha, flowing south-east into the Bay of Bengal in Andhra Pradesh (items 2 and 4).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on seafloor in international waters. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: licences for seabed exploration in international waters are granted by the International Seabed Authority (ISA, Kingston, Jamaica) under UNCLOS; the Global Ocean Commission was an advocacy body (2013–16), not a licensing authority.
Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Sugarcane is a 12–18 month crop needing roughly 1,500–2,500 mm of water (20,000+ litres per kg of sugar), making it the least water-efficient of the four — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. 2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: in the tropics the trade winds blow east to west, piling warm surface water on the western side of ocean basins (e.g. the West Pacific warm pool), while upwelling cools the eastern side.
In the context of India's preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements : 1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's research centres. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: the Climate-Smart Village approach was piloted in India (Haryana, Punjab, Bihar) by CCAFS with ICAR, BISA and state governments. Statement 2 is correct: CCAFS was a CGIAR research programme, and CGIAR's system organisation is headquartered in Montpellier, France.
"Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees." This is the most likely description of
UPSC's answer: (d) — Rapid leaf-litter decomposition, a nearly bare forest floor, and abundant lianas (climbers) and epiphytes rooted on upper branches are hallmarks of the tropical rain forest — option (d).
The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? 1. Burrowing animals and termites 2. Fire 3. Grazing herbivores 4. Seasonal rainfall 5. Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Savannas persist as grassland because tree establishment is repeatedly checked by disturbance and climate. Fire (2), often set in the dry season, kills tree seedlings while grasses resprout from their bases.
With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements : 1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. 2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Of Earth's freshwater, roughly 68–69% is locked in polar ice caps and glaciers, about 30% is groundwater, and only about 0.3% lies in rivers and lakes. Statement 2 is correct: ice caps and glaciers hold more than twice as much water as all groundwater.
Consider the following statements : 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. 3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: Moringa oleifera belongs to the family Moringaceae, not the legume family, though it is a fast-growing tree; it is deciduous in dry conditions.
The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
UPSC's answer: (b) — Black cotton soil (regur) forms from the weathering of basalt, the fissure-type volcanic rock that erupted through cracks to create the Deccan Traps about 66 million years ago — option (b).
With reference to recent developments regarding 'Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the following statements : 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Recombinant vector vaccines insert a gene for a pathogen's antigen into a harmless carrier (vector) microbe, which then expresses the antigen inside the body to provoke immunity. Statement 1 is correct: creating such a vector requires genetic engineering (recombinant DNA technology).
In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements : 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Mitochondria carry their own DNA, and only the egg's mitochondria pass to the embryo; sperm mitochondria are destroyed after fertilisation. Statement 2 is correct: mitochondrial diseases are therefore inherited entirely from the mother.
Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
UPSC's answer: (b) — Bollgard I and Bollgard II are Monsanto–Mahyco's genetically modified cotton technologies: Bollgard I (2002) carries the Cry1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis, Bollgard II (2006) adds Cry2Ab, giving resistance to bollworms — option (b).
Consider the following : 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Virus Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Bacteria (1) and fungi (2) are cellular organisms with their own metabolism, so they grow on artificial media such as nutrient agar, broth or Sabouraud agar.
Consider the following statements : 1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. 2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes, while retroviruses (e.g. HIV) have single-stranded RNA genomes that are reverse-transcribed into DNA inside the host cell.
Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
UPSC's answer: (a) — Water is called the 'universal solvent' because its molecule is polar (dipolar): oxygen carries a partial negative charge and the hydrogens a partial positive charge — option (a).
With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. 2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps. 3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: a sodium-vapour arc tube emits light in all directions (360°), needing reflectors, whereas LEDs are directional (about 180°), so more light reaches the road.
The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of
UPSC's answer: (d) — ACE2 (angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) is a receptor protein on the surface of cells in the lungs, heart, kidneys and gut. SARS-CoV-2, the COVID-19 virus, uses its spike protein to bind ACE2 and enter cells, so ACE2 became central to explaining the spread and severity of the disease — option (d).
Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Bisphenol A is a monomer that reacts with phosgene to make polycarbonate, the hard clear plastic used in water bottles, baby bottles, CDs and eyewear; it is also used in epoxy can linings — option (b).
‘Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Triclosan is an antibacterial and antifungal agent added to toiletries — toothpastes, soaps, hand sanitisers, deodorants and mouthwashes — option (d).
Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A light-year is the distance light travels in one year (about 9.46 trillion km); it is a reliable unit because the speed of light in vacuum is a universal constant, identical everywhere and at all times — option (d).
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: the British Parliament is sovereign and no court can strike down its Acts, whereas India's Parliament is bound by a written Constitution, the federal division of powers, fundamental rights and judicial review.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is treated as incorrect in the official key. The N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar report on the Reorganisation of the Machinery of Government (1949) recommended restructuring the Central Secretariat (a Department under a Secretary, a Ministry under a Minister) and setting up Organisation and…
'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
UPSC's answer: (c) — In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) a nine-judge Constitution Bench unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 — option (c). It overruled M.P.
Consider the following statements : 1. 'Right to the City' is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. 'Right to the City' gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. 'Right to the City' means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Right to the City' (Henri Lefebvre, 1968) is the idea that all urban residents have a claim to use, shape and take part in the life of the city.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under CrPC Section 167 (now BNSS 187), a magistrate may remand an accused either to police custody (max 15 days, lock-up at the police station) or to judicial custody (in jail, under the magistrate's authority).
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Parole is a temporary, conditional release of a convict for a specific purpose (illness, family death, marriage), granted by the executive under prison rules.
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises individual and community rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers over forest land and resources. Section 11 of the Act names the Ministry of Tribal Affairs as the nodal agency for its implementation at the national level — option (d).
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws, and the Supreme Court reads it as prohibiting arbitrariness (E.P. Royappa, 1974; Maneka Gandhi, 1978).
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A federation divides power between the Union and the States under a supreme written Constitution; disputes over that division need a neutral umpire.
Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — In political science a State has four essential elements: population, definite territory, government and sovereignty (independence from external control).
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements : 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, with the prior consent of the President, request any retired Supreme Court judge (or a retired High Court judge qualified for appointment) to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: India provides single citizenship and a single domicile for the whole country; there is no separate State citizenship (unlike the USA).
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Liberal democracy protects liberty chiefly by preventing the concentration of power: Montesquieu's separation of powers among legislature, executive and judiciary, with checks and balances, so that no organ can act tyrannically — option (d).
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 39(c), a Directive Principle of State Policy, directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment — option (b).
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The right to property was originally a Fundamental Right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. The 44th Amendment, 1978 deleted it from Part III and inserted Article 300A: 'No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.' It is therefore a constitutional/legal right, not a…
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The original Preamble adopted on 26 November 1949 and in force on 26 January 1950 declared India a 'Sovereign Democratic Republic' — option (b). The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' (and 'integrity' in the unity clause) were inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 during the Emergency.
Constitutional government means
UPSC's answer: (d) — Constitutional government (constitutionalism) means a government whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution, so that authority is exercised under law and not arbitrarily — option (d).
With reference to India, the terms 'Halbi, Ho and Kui' pertain to
UPSC's answer: (d) — Halbi, Ho and Kui are tribal languages of central and eastern India — option (d). Halbi is an Indo-Aryan language of the Halba tribe in Bastar (Chhattisgarh); Ho is an Austroasiatic (Munda) language of the Ho people of Jharkhand and Odisha; Kui is a Dravidian language of the Kandha (Khond) tribe of…
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The question asks which statements are NOT correct. Statement 1 is not correct: in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court held that Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not 'titles' under Article 18(1), though they must not be used as prefixes or suffixes.
Consider the following statements : Statement 1 : The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World. Statement 2 : Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In February 2021 Hyderabad was recognised as a '2020 Tree City of the World' by the Arbor Day Foundation and the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the only Indian city that year. Statement 1 is wrong: the co-recogniser was the FAO, not the UN Capital Development Fund (UNCDF).
Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 : 1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. 2. The award was received mostly by 'Formula One' players so far. 3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Laureus World Sports Awards, instituted in 2000, honour the year's best sportsman, sportswoman, team and others. Statement 1 is correct: Tiger Woods won the inaugural Sportsman of the Year award in 2000.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics : 1. The official motto for this Olympics is 'A New World'. 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 32nd Summer Olympics were Tokyo 2020, held in July–August 2021 after a pandemic postponement. Statement 1 is wrong: the official motto was 'United by Emotion'; 'A New World' was not the motto.
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship : 1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. 2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The inaugural ICC World Test Championship (2019–21) ranked teams by percentage of points earned from matches played, adopted after COVID disrupted schedules — not by number of matches won. Statement 1 is wrong: finalists (India and New Zealand) were decided on percentage of available points.
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