UPSC Prelims 2015 — CSAT Paper II

CSAT Paper II of the 2015 Preliminary examination, held on 23 August 2015. 80 questions · 200 marks · qualifying at 33%. The questions broke down as Comprehension 32, Logical Reasoning 20, Basic Numeracy 16, Mental Ability 5, Data Interpretation 1.

The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.

  1. Q1

    Which one of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage ?

    • (a)Man seeks control over external things affecting him.
    • (b)In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’ human beings.
    • (c)Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conducive to systemic efficacy.
    • (d)Governing implies recognition of disparities in individual capacities.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage argues that excluding many from governance is justified to ensure the 'good of society' and the 'viability of the political process.' Option (c) directly supports this by stating that exceptions to universal participation aid systemic efficacy, which aligns with the 'viability'…

  2. Q2

    Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage ?

    • (a)The population of the world is growing very fast.
    • (b)Food security is a perennial problem only in developing countries.
    • (c)The world does not have enough resources to meet the impending food scarcity.
    • (d)Food security is increasingly a collective challenge.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — By 2050 the world's population will grow from seven to nine billion and food production may have to double, while climate change, limited arable land and potable water add pressure.

  3. Q3

    With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption ?

    • (a)Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us.
    • (b)The greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours.
    • (c)It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security.
    • (d)Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weapon-building.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The author says people who believe that cutting defence spending on weapons will bring peace are propagating a ‘false argument’.

  4. Q4

    Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence do not recognize the value of basic health practices.
    • (b)India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public health services.
    • (c)Universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem.
    • (d)The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage lists two sets of causes of child deaths: child-care gaps (breastfeeding, immunisation) and maternal-care gaps (no care for 2·6 crore women during pregnancy and after delivery, child marriage, anaemia in young women, poor adolescent hygiene).

  5. Q5

    With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are true ? 1. Consuming regionally grown food and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behaviour. 2. Food processing industry puts a burden on our natural resources. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that long-distance food transportation generates pollution and leads to environmental threats, implying that avoiding such food is eco-friendly, which validates statement 1.

  6. Q6

    The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this ?

    • (a)He has no intention to waste his time.
    • (b)He believes in the economy of words.
    • (c)He believes in restraining his thoughts.
    • (d)He has hesitancy in his speech.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that the author's hesitancy in speech has taught him the 'economy of words'. It further explains that he has 'naturally formed the habit of restraining his thoughts' as a direct result of his shyness.

  7. Q7

    The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that

    • (a)he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.
    • (b)he is a man of immense patience.
    • (c)he believes that he is a spiritual person.
    • (d)he is a votary of truth.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states, 'I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen.' Immediately following this statement, the author concludes, 'I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time.' The word 'thus' indicates a direct causal link…

  8. Q8

    For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount

    • (a)constitutional shyness.
    • (b)hesitancy in speech.
    • (c)suppression of thoughts.
    • (d)tendency to overstate.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that 'Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth... is a natural weakness of man.' It immediately follows that 'silence is necessary in order to surmount it,' referring directly to the proneness to exaggerate.

  9. Q9

    Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is

    • (a)One
    • (b)Zero
    • (c)Three
    • (d)Cannot be predicted

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The problem states that the host is selected by 'picking lots' (random selection) each month, not by a fixed rotation. Since the selection is random, any specific member has a probability of being chosen in any given month, but it is not guaranteed.

  10. Q10

    An automobile owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went up. The price-consumption relationship is as follows : Price (in ₹ per litre) 40 50 60 75 Monthly consumption (in litres) 60 48 40 32 If the price goes up to ₹ 80 per litre, his expected consumption (in litres) will be

    • (a)30
    • (b)28
    • (c)26
    • (d)24

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Multiply price by consumption for each pair: 40 × 60 = 2,400; 50 × 48 = 2,400; 60 × 40 = 2,400; 75 × 32 = 2,400. The owner always spends ₹ 2,400 a month on petrol, whatever the price. At ₹ 80 per litre he will therefore buy 2,400 ÷ 80 = 30 litres — option (a). Hence option (a).

  11. Q12

    Consider the following matrix : | 3 | 8 | 10 | 2 | ? | 1 | | 6 | 56 | 90 | 2 | 20 | 0 | What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the matrix ?

    • (a)5
    • (b)0
    • (c)7
    • (d)3

    UPSC's answer: (a) — In each column, the lower number equals the upper number multiplied by one less than itself: n × (n − 1). Check: 3 × 2 = 6; 8 × 7 = 56; 10 × 9 = 90; 2 × 1 = 2; 1 × 0 = 0. For the fifth column, let the missing upper number be x; then x × (x − 1) = 20.

  12. Q13

    What is the missing number ‘X’ of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43 ?

    • (a)11
    • (b)12
    • (c)13
    • (d)14

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Try X = 13: the series becomes 7, 13, 21, 31, 43. The differences are 6, 8, 10, 12 — rising by 2 each time, a consistent pattern. Hence X = 13, option (c).

  13. Q15

    In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions were there in the test ?

    • (a)8
    • (b)10
    • (c)15
    • (d)16

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let each question carry 1 mark and let the test have N questions. Marks scored = 8 × 50% = 4. 4 is 40% of the total, so 0.4 × N = 4 and N = 10. Hence option (b).

  14. Q16

    A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father's and the mother's age is 51 years. What is the age of the son ?

    • (a)7 years
    • (b)5 years
    • (c)4 years
    • (d)3 years

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Let the son's age be represented by the variable 'x'. The father's age is given as nine times the son's age, which is 9x. The mother's age is given as eight times the son's age, which is 8x. The sum of the father's and mother's ages is stated to be 51 years, leading to the equation 9x + 8x = 51.

  15. Q17

    Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is the tallest among the four. C is taller than B. D is B's brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

    • (a)All four have family ties.
    • (b)B is the shortest among the four.
    • (c)C is taller than D.
    • (d)A is B's husband.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — D is B's brother, so D is male and B and D are siblings, not a married couple. A is tallest, so A cannot be a wife because her husband would have to be taller; hence A is male. With A and D male, B and C are female; since B and D cannot be a couple, the couples are A-B and C-D.

  16. Q18

    Consider the following statements : 1. A man had a wife, two sons and two daughters in his family. 2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic. 3. The man's father did not return from his work. Which of the following statements is true ?

    • (a)Only the man's wife was left at home.
    • (b)It is likely that the man's wife was left at home.
    • (c)None was left at home.
    • (d)More than one person was left at home.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The family is the man, his wife, two sons and two daughters. The daughters went to a feast and all male members — the man and both sons — went to a picnic; the man's father had also not returned from work.

  17. Q19

    Geeta : Naresh has become a better boxer since he started meditation. Radha : Impossible. A boxer's most important asset is his aggressiveness. Radha's statement reflects her belief that

    • (a)meditation tends to make a person less aggressive.
    • (b)meditation has little or no effect on the person who practises it.
    • (c)Naresh was a poor boxer earlier because he was not aggressive enough.
    • (d)Naresh would not have taken to meditation as he was a boxer.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Radha argues that a boxer's most important asset is aggressiveness, implying that any practice reducing this trait would be detrimental to boxing performance.

  18. Q20

    All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes. The best conclusion from this statement is that

    • (a)no bad athlete wants to win.
    • (b)no athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
    • (c)every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
    • (d)all athletes who want to win are good athletes.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let G be good athletes, W be those who want to win, and D be those who eat a well-balanced diet. The premise 'All good athletes want to win' translates to G ⊆ W. The premise 'All athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet' translates to W ⊆ D.

  19. Q21

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)The richer States must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy.
    • (b)The poor States always have to depend on rich States for electricity.
    • (c)The State Electricity Boards can improve their finances by undertaking clean energy projects.
    • (d)The high economic disparity between the rich and poor States is the major cause of high carbon emissions in India.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that richer states have a responsibility to cut carbon emissions and promote clean energy investments due to their higher per capita income and faster growth.

  20. Q22

    This is a sensitive issue-based story which tries to sensitise the readers about

    • (a)Male chauvinism and infidelity
    • (b)Love and betrayal
    • (c)Lack of legal safeguards for women
    • (d)Influence of patriarchal mindset

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The story centers on Manak's mother forcing a second marriage to secure a male heir, reflecting a societal obsession with lineage and male offspring.

  21. Q23

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)The true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom.
    • (b)The primary concern of government is to provide absolute social security to all its citizens.
    • (c)The best government is the one that allows the citizens to enjoy absolute liberty in all matters of life.
    • (d)The best government is the one that provides absolute physical security to the people of the country.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states the aim of government is to free every man from fear so he can live in security and strengthen his natural right to exist and work. It explicitly rejects ruling by fear or demanding obedience, emphasizing that government should not turn rational beings into beasts or puppets.

  22. Q24

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)The task of providing urban services is a complex issue which requires the organisational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country.
    • (b)Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies.
    • (c)Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management.
    • (d)Our country is not taking advantage of the demographic dividend to manage the problems associated with rapid urbanization.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that urban services delivery is complex and requires high specialization and professionalism. It identifies that municipal corporations are understaffed and that current recruitment rules fail to factor in necessary technical and managerial competencies.

  23. Q25

    Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?

    • (a)Mass nesting in all species of birds is essential to ensure complete survival of their offspring.
    • (b)Only birds have the capacity to develop social behaviour and thus can do mass nesting to raise their chicks in safety.
    • (c)Social behaviour in some species of birds increases the odds of survival in an unsafe world.
    • (d)All species of birds set up crèches for their chicks to teach them social behaviour and loyalty.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage describes flamingos as social and loyal, performing group mating dances, and gathering chicks into crèches specifically 'for protection' while both parents go to find food. A corollary must be a conclusion that follows directly from these stated facts without overgeneralising.

  24. Q26

    What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage ?

    • (a)MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.
    • (b)The paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment in the present scenario.
    • (c)The goal of electronic wage payments was not to eliminate mediation by village leaders.
    • (d)It is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage highlights that a vast number of rural citizens are financially and functionally illiterate with little technology experience. It notes that despite the shift to electronic wage payments, over a third of households with bank accounts still receive cash via village leaders.

  25. Q27

    With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements : 1. In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options. 2. Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related. 3. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 and 3 only
    • (c)2 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is incorrect because the passage states that individuals and leaders operate under 'strong institutional, structural and political constraints,' implying that institutional frameworks are just one of several constraints, not the 'only' requirement.

  26. Q28

    With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity. 2. Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth. Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions ?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences, which directly supports Assumption 2.

  27. Q29

    If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then, as compared to A, C runs

    • (a)slower than A
    • (b)faster than A
    • (c)with same speed as A
    • (d)Given data is not sufficient to determine

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The statement 'A runs less fast than B' establishes the inequality A < B. The statement 'B runs as fast but not faster than C' means B is not slower than C and not faster than C, implying B = C. Substituting C for B in the first inequality gives A < C. Therefore, C runs faster than A.

  28. Q30

    Each of A, B, C and D has ₹ 100. A pays ₹ 20 to B, who pays ₹ 10 to C, who gets ₹ 30 from D. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

    • (a)C is the richest.
    • (b)D is the poorest.
    • (c)C has more than what A and D have together.
    • (d)B is richer than D.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Each person starts with ₹ 100, so the total money in the system is ₹ 400, and this total remains constant throughout all transactions. A pays ₹ 20 to B, leaving A with ₹ 80 and B with ₹ 120. B pays ₹ 10 to C, leaving B with ₹ 110 and C with ₹ 110.

  29. Q31

    In a town, 45% population read magazine A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read magazine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines B and C, 25% read magazines A and C; and 10% read all the three magazines. What percentage do not read any magazine ?

    • (a)10%
    • (b)15%
    • (c)20%
    • (d)25%

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Use the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion to find the percentage of people reading at least one magazine: |A ∪ B ∪ C| = |A| + |B| + |C| - (|A∩B| + |B∩C| + |A∩C|) + |A∩B∩C|. Substitute the given values: 45 + 55 + 40 - (30 + 15 + 25) + 10. Calculate the sum of individual readers: 45 + 55 + 40 = 140.

  30. Q32

    Examine the following statements : 1. Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage. 2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger. 3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas. The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that

    • (a)peas are as tasty as lady's finger.
    • (b)peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady's finger.
    • (c)cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables.
    • (d)cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 tells us Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage, and statement 2 tells us Cauliflower is tastier than Lady's finger. Chaining these two inequalities gives Cauliflower > Lady's finger > Cabbage, so Cauliflower is necessarily tastier than cabbage.

  31. Q33

    Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit always turns right. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    • (a)After both have travelled 2 km, the distance between them is 4 km.
    • (b)They meet after each has travelled 3 km.
    • (c)They meet for the first time after each has travelled 4 km.
    • (d)They go on without ever meeting again.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the starting point be the origin (0,0). Shahid travels North (positive y-axis) and Rohit travels South (negative y-axis) initially. After 1 km, Shahid is at (0,1) and Rohit is at (0,-1). Shahid turns left (West) and Rohit turns right (West).

  32. Q34

    In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 metres behind. What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same time ?

    • (a)25 : 21
    • (b)25 : 20
    • (c)5 : 3
    • (d)5 : 7

    UPSC's answer: (a) — In a 500 m race, A starts at the 0 m mark and must cover the full 500 m to win. B starts 45 m ahead, so B's starting position is at 45 m, meaning B only needs to cover 500 - 45 = 455 m to reach the finish line.

  33. Q35

    Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of milk and water in the pot ?

    • (a)7 : 17
    • (b)1 : 3
    • (c)9 : 21
    • (d)11 : 23

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Let the capacity of each glass be 12 units (LCM of 3 and 4) to simplify calculations. The first glass contains 1/3 of 12 = 4 units of milk and is filled with 8 units of water. The second glass contains 1/4 of 12 = 3 units of milk and is filled with 9 units of water.

  34. Q36

    Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and Mathematics. The number of students who passed finally is

    • (a)40
    • (b)50
    • (c)55
    • (d)60

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Use the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion to find the number of students who failed in at least one subject: Failed in English + Failed in Mathematics - Failed in both. Calculate the total failures: 62 + 52 - 24 = 90 students.

  35. Q37

    In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages only and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group ?

    • (a)21
    • (b)22
    • (c)23
    • (d)24

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Add the language counts: 6 + 15 + 6 = 27. A person who speaks exactly two languages is counted twice, and the person who speaks all three is counted three times. Extra counts = 2 persons × 1 extra + 1 person × 2 extra = 4. Number of persons = 27 − 4 = 23. Hence option (c).

  36. Q38

    In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. The number of cars parked is

    • (a)35
    • (b)45
    • (c)50
    • (d)55

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Let there be c cars and s two-wheelers. Wheels = 4c + 2s; twice the number of vehicles = 2c + 2s. The difference is 4c + 2s − (2c + 2s) = 2c, and this equals 100. So c = 50. Hence option (c).

  37. Q39

    The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are consumed by tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles. Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement ?

    • (a)Coastal areas cannot have food chains without mangroves.
    • (b)Mangroves are an essential component of all marine ecosystems.
    • (c)Mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains.
    • (d)The composition of marine flora and fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage describes a specific food chain starting with mangrove leaf litter, which is decomposed by fungi and bacteria. This decomposition supports tiny worms and crustaceans, which then feed small fish, larger fish, birds, and crocodiles.

  38. Q40

    “By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.” Which one of the following expresses the view implied in the above statement ?

    • (a)Liberty is the absence of restraint on human action.
    • (b)Liberty is what law permits people to perform.
    • (c)Liberty is the ability to do what one desires.
    • (d)Liberty is the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement defines liberty as maintaining an 'atmosphere' where individuals can be their 'best selves'. The phrase 'best selves' refers to the full development and realization of one's potential, which is synonymous with the growth of human personality.

  39. Q41

    Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?

    • (a)Government should allocate more funds to poverty alleviation programmes and increase food subsidies to the poor communities.
    • (b)Poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other and therefore we have to re-imagine our food systems.
    • (c)All the countries of the world must unite in fighting poverty and malnutrition and treat poverty as a global problem.
    • (d)We must stop unsustainable agricultural practices immediately and control food prices.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that climate change disrupts crop yields and increases hunger, particularly affecting the poorest communities. It simultaneously notes that poverty drives climate change because desperate communities resort to unsustainable resource use.

  40. Q42

    Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)Foregin portfolio investments are not good for emerging economies.
    • (b)Advanced economies undermine the global financial stability.
    • (c)India should desist from accepting foreign portfolio investments in the future.
    • (d)Emerging economies are at a risk of shock from advanced economies.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that the share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in emerging economies has doubled to 12 percent over the past decade.

  41. Q43

    Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resources to afford a latrine for each household.
    • (b)Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.
    • (c)Open defecation reduces the human capital of India's workforce.
    • (d)Open defecation is a public health problem in all developing countries.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage details a causal chain: open defecation leads to contamination, which causes disease and prevents the absorption of calories and nutrients.

  42. Q44

    Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage ?

    • (a)Our country has a lot of diversity with its many castes, communities and religions.
    • (b)True democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all.
    • (c)So far none of us have actually understood the meaning of democracy.
    • (d)It will never be possible for us to establish truly democratic governance in our country.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage argues that current democracy is 'phoney' because people favor their own caste, community, or religion over merit. It explicitly states that we must respect individuals as humans and extend opportunities for development to those who deserve them, not just those in our group.

  43. Q45

    With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements : 1. Indian financial institutions do not offer any financial instruments to rural households to mobilise their savings. 2. Poor households tend to spend their earnings/savings due to lack of access to appropriate financial instruments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is incorrect because the passage states that access to financial institutions is 'not always available' in rural areas, which implies limited or partial access rather than a complete absence of any financial instruments.

  44. Q46

    What is the crucial message conveyed in the passage ?

    • (a)Establish more banks
    • (b)Increase the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate
    • (c)Increase the interest rate of bank deposits
    • (d)Promote financial inclusion

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage says safe, reliable financial institutions and instruments are fundamental to mobilising savings, but access to them is not always available, especially in rural areas.

  45. Q47

    Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage ?

    • (a)Government should always be given wide discretionary power in all matters of administration.
    • (b)The supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influence of exclusive discretion of authority.
    • (c)Parliamentary democracy is possible only if the Government has wider discretionary power.
    • (d)None of the above statements is a logical assumption that can be made from this passage.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that discretionary powers to the administration can be done away with and that it is difficult to keep such power within limits. It explicitly argues that where discretion must be used, there must be rules and safeguards to prevent misuse.

  46. Q48

    A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the post of Principal while they all are eligible for the post of Vice-Principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is

    • (a)4
    • (b)12
    • (c)18
    • (d)None of the above

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The Principal can be chosen only from the 2 eligible candidates: 2 ways. The two Vice-Principals are then chosen from the remaining 5 candidates: 5C2 = 10 ways. Total selections = 2 × 10 = 20. 20 is not among 4, 12 or 18, so the answer is ‘None of the above’ — option (d). Hence option (d).

  47. Q49

    A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, Economics, Statistics, Mathematics I and Mathematics II. Mathematics II can be offered only if Mathematics I is also opted. The number of different combinations of two subjects which can be opted is

    • (a)5
    • (b)6
    • (c)7
    • (d)8

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Without any restriction, 2 subjects can be picked from 5 in 5C2 = 10 ways. Mathematics II is allowed only with Mathematics I, so the pairs Commerce–Maths II, Economics–Maths II and Statistics–Maths II are ruled out.

  48. Q50

    A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%. What was the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order ?

    • (a)10
    • (b)15
    • (c)20
    • (d)25

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Let a brown pair cost p, so a black pair costs 3p, and let n brown pairs be ordered. Correct bill = 5 × 3p + n × p = (15 + n)p. With the numbers swapped, the bill = n × 3p + 5 × p = (3n + 5)p. A 100% increase means the wrong bill is double: 3n + 5 = 2(15 + n), so n = 25. Hence option (d).

  49. Q53

    Two pipes A and B can independently fill a tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will they take to fill the tank completely ?

    • (a)10 minutes
    • (b)12 minutes
    • (c)15 minutes
    • (d)25 minutes

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Pipe A fills the tank in 20 minutes, so in one minute it fills 1/20 of the tank. Pipe B fills the tank in 30 minutes, so in one minute it fills 1/30 of the tank. When both pipes are opened simultaneously, the combined rate per minute is 1/20 + 1/30 = 3/60 + 2/60 = 5/60 = 1/12 of the tank.

  50. Q54

    Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following information is given : 1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces. 2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces. 3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces. 4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces. Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O ?

    • (a)B
    • (b)V
    • (c)G
    • (d)I

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Y is adjacent to O and B (1), to I and G (2), and to B and G (3). So Y's four neighbours are O, B, I and G, and Y must be opposite V. B is adjacent to Y and O (1), to G (3) and to V (4). So B's neighbours are Y, O, G and V, and B must be opposite I.

  51. Q55

    Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions : Statements : Some men are great. Some men are wise. Conclusion I : Men are either great or wise. Conclusion II : Some men are neither great nor wise. Which one of the following is correct ?

    • (a)Only conclusion I is valid
    • (b)Only conclusion II is valid
    • (c)Both the conclusions are valid
    • (d)Neither of the conclusions is valid

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement 'Some men are great' establishes that at least one man is great, but it does not imply that all men are great or that no men are not great. Similarly, 'Some men are wise' confirms the existence of wise men but does not exclude the possibility that some men are neither great nor wise.

  52. Q56

    Consider the following statements : 1. Some claim to have seen UFOs (Unidentified Flying Objects). 2. Life on other heavenly bodies is considered to be a possibility. 3. Voyage to space is now an established fact. From the above statements, it may be concluded that

    • (a)UFOs are heavenly bodies
    • (b)UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies
    • (c)Some living species in other heavenly bodies are more intelligent than man
    • (d)Nothing definite can be said about the UFOs

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 notes that some people claim to have seen UFOs, but this is a subjective claim, not a verified fact. Statement 2 states that life on other heavenly bodies is only considered a possibility, not a confirmed reality.

  53. Q57

    If ABC × DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E ?

    • (a)D = 2, E = 0
    • (b)D = 0, E = 1
    • (c)D = 1, E = 0
    • (d)D = 1, E = 2

    UPSC's answer: (c) — ABCABC is the three-digit number ABC written twice, which equals ABC × 1001 (for example, 123123 = 123 × 1001). So ABC × DEED = ABC × 1001, and DEED = 1001. Reading the digits, D = 1 and E = 0 — option (c). Hence option (c).

  54. Q60

    Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner ?

    • (a)Kamala
    • (b)Priti
    • (c)Swati
    • (d)Usha

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The statement 'Usha runs faster than Kamala' establishes the order: Usha > Kamala. The statement 'Swati runs slower than Kamala' establishes the order: Kamala > Swati. Combining these gives the sequence: Usha > Kamala > Swati.

  55. Q61

    What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage ?

    • (a)Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalisation policies and all subsidies.
    • (b)Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalisation process.
    • (c)There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuing poverty and inflation in India in the near future.
    • (d)Economic reforms can often create a high inflation economy.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that persistent high inflation in India is driven by factors such as administered price increases, demand-supply imbalances, and imported inflation. It identifies a common element among these causes: many are outcomes of economic reforms.

  56. Q62

    In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements is the most convincing explanation ?

    • (a)The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and scriptures.
    • (b)Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal property is therefore violative of economic justice.
    • (c)The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the principle of cooperation.
    • (d)The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that no right is absolute, exclusive, or inviolable, establishing that rights must be viewed within a broader social context.

  57. Q63

    The author's viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements ?

    • (a)The conflict between the claims of State and individual remains unresolved.
    • (b)Anarchy and chaos are the obvious results of democratic traditions.
    • (c)Old values, ideas and traditions persist despite the dynamic nature of human society.
    • (d)Constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech is not in the interest of society.

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage opens by stating that the conflict between man and the State is as old as State history. It explicitly notes that although attempts have been made for centuries to adjust these competing claims, the solution seems to be still far off.

  58. Q64

    According to the passage, which of the following is/are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in climate change ? 1. The scale and size of required financial support. 2. The crop loss due to climate change in the developing countries. 3. To enhance the mitigation and adaptation actions in the developing countries. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 and 3 only
    • (c)1 and 3 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly states that 'The scale and magnitude of the financial support required by developing countries' is a matter of intense debate, which corresponds to statement 1.

  59. Q65

    In this passage, the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of 1. their higher level of per capita incomes. 2. their large quantum of GDP. 3. their large contribution to the stock of GHGs in the atmosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)1 and 2 only
    • (c)3 only
    • (d)1, 2 and 3

    UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage explicitly states that the Convention puts the responsibility for financial support on developed countries 'taking into account their contribution to the stock of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere.' This directly links the obligation to the historical and current emission levels…

  60. Q66

    With regards to developing countries, it can be inferred from the passage that climate change is likely to have implications on their 1. domestic finances. 2. capacity for multilateral trade. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    • (a)1 only
    • (b)2 only
    • (c)Both 1 and 2
    • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that 'domestic finances are likely to fall short of the current and projected needs' of developing countries due to the high costs of climate action.

  61. Q67

    Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage ?

    • (a)Conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation
    • (b)Occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by the developed countries
    • (c)Lack of political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans
    • (d)Governance problems of developing countries as a result of climate change

    UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that the scale and magnitude of financial support required by developing countries is a 'matter of intense debate' in UNFCCC negotiations.

  62. Q68

    Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at

    • (a)6 : 15 PM
    • (b)6 : 18 PM
    • (c)6 : 36 PM
    • (d)6 : 48 PM

    UPSC's answer: (c) — At 6:00 the hour hand stands at the 6, which is 180° round the dial from the 12, and the minute hand stands at the 12. The minute hand moves 6° a minute and the hour hand 0.5° a minute, so the minute hand gains on it at 5.5° a minute.

  63. Q69

    There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task-1 cannot be assigned to either person-1. or person-2. Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or person-4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done ?

    • (a)6
    • (b)12
    • (c)24
    • (d)144

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Task-2 must be assigned to either Person-3 or Person-4, giving 2 possible choices for this specific task. Once Task-2 is assigned, 4 persons remain for the remaining 4 tasks (Task-1, Task-3, Task-4, Task-5). Task-1 cannot be assigned to Person-1 or Person-2.

  64. Q70

    The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves ₹ 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in ₹)

    • (a)24,000 and 18,000
    • (b)28,000 and 21,000
    • (c)32,000 and 24,000
    • (d)34,000 and 26,000

    UPSC's answer: (a) — Let the monthly incomes of Peter and Paul be 4x and 3x respectively, based on the given ratio of 4:3. Let their monthly expenses be 3y and 2y respectively, based on the given ratio of 3:2. Since each saves ₹6,000, we form the equations: 4x - 3y = 6,000 and 3x - 2y = 6,000.

  65. Q71

    Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car ?

    • (a)45 km/hr
    • (b)48 km/hr
    • (c)50 km/hr
    • (d)55 km/hr

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The total distance traveled is the sum of the distance from A to B and B to A, which is 360 km + 360 km = 720 km. The time taken to travel from A to B is calculated by dividing the distance by the speed: 360 km / 40 km/hr = 9 hours.

  66. Q72

    Which one of the following is possible ?

    • (a)D is 20 years old
    • (b)F is 18 years old
    • (c)F is 19 years old
    • (d)F is 20 years old

    UPSC's answer: (b) — The ages are six different whole numbers from 17 to 22, and E is 22. A = C + 1 and C > D, so A and C are near the top; with E at 22, A can be at most 21. Trying A = 21, C = 20 leaves 17, 18 and 19 for B, D and F.

  67. Q73

    What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age ?

    • (a)1
    • (b)2
    • (c)3
    • (d)4

    UPSC's answer: (b) — From the previous item, E = 22, A = 21, C = 20 and F = 18 are fixed, while B and D share 17 and 19 in either order. The two possible orders of increasing age are B, F, D, C, A, E (B = 17, D = 19) and D, F, B, C, A, E (D = 17, B = 19).

  68. Q74

    In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes. Which one among the following numbers indicates the possible number of hugs ?

    • (a)39
    • (b)30
    • (c)21
    • (d)20

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Let there be m men and w women. Handshakes happen only between a man and a woman, so m × w = 24. Hugs happen between two people of the same sex, so hugs = m(m − 1)/2 + w(w − 1)/2. Possible (m, w): (1, 24) gives 276 hugs; (2, 12) gives 67; (3, 8) gives 31; (4, 6) gives 6 + 15 = 21.

  69. Q75

    Two men, Anil and David, and two women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one man and one woman can drive a car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can drive. Which of the following statements is true ?

    • (a)Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car.
    • (b)Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car.
    • (c)Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi.
    • (d)One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Only one man and one woman can drive, and Rekha and David can drive, so the two drivers are David and Rekha; Anil and Shabnam do not drive. Anil speaks Tamil and Shabnam speaks Marathi. Since exactly two speak each language, one of David and Rekha speaks Tamil and the other Marathi.

  70. Q76

    In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to line V. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

    • (a)Z, U and W are parallel.
    • (b)X, V and Y are parallel.
    • (c)Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W.
    • (d)Y, V and W are parallel.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — Since X is perpendicular to Y and parallel to Z, Z is also perpendicular to Y. Since U is perpendicular to both V and W, V and W are parallel to each other. Since X is perpendicular to V and V is parallel to W, X is perpendicular to W; since X is parallel to Z, Z is perpendicular to W.

  71. Q77

    A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs between ₹ 600 and ₹ 800, which of the following is a most valid conclusion ?

    • (a)A cow costs more than ₹ 2,500.
    • (b)A cow costs less than ₹ 3,600.
    • (c)A cow costs between ₹ 2,600 and ₹ 3,800.
    • (d)A cow costs between ₹ 2,400 and ₹ 4,000.

    UPSC's answer: (d) — A goat costs between ₹ 600 and ₹ 800, and a cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. Lowest possible cow price: just over 4 × 600 = ₹ 2,400. Highest: just under 5 × 800 = ₹ 4,000. So all we can say for certain is that a cow costs between ₹ 2,400 and ₹ 4,000 — option (d). Hence option (d).

  72. Q78

    A society consists of only two types of people — fighters and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent to one another. If A and B are enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A and E are not enemies, while B and F are enemies. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    • (a)B, C and F are cowards.
    • (b)A, E and F are fighters.
    • (c)B and E are in the same category.
    • (d)A and F are in different categories.

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Since C and D are friends, and only two cowards are always friends, both C and D must be cowards. Since E and F are indifferent to each other, and only fighters are indifferent to one another, both E and F must be fighters.

  73. Q79

    In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five more white marbles than the green ones. If there are a total of 10 white marbles, how many marbles are there in the box ?

    • (a)26
    • (b)28
    • (c)32
    • (d)36

    UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the number of white marbles be W, red marbles be R, and green marbles be G. The problem states there are 10 white marbles, so W = 10. There are three less white marbles than red ones, meaning W = R - 3, so R = W + 3 = 10 + 3 = 13.

  74. Q80

    Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% men and 75% women cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    • (a)Success rate is higher for women.
    • (b)Overall success rate is below 50%.
    • (c)More men cleared the examination than women.
    • (d)Both (a) and (b) above are correct.

    UPSC's answer: (c) — Assume a total of 100 candidates: 60 men and 40 women. Men who cleared the final test: 60 * 70% * 80% = 33.6 men. Women who cleared the final test: 40 * 75% * 70% = 21 women. Comparing the final successful candidates, 33.6 men is greater than 21 women.

Question paper and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check. Practise this paper with a timer →

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