GS Paper I of the 2020 Preliminary examination, held on 4 October 2020. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 27, History 18, Polity & Governance 17, Environment & Ecology 16, General Science 11, Geography 5, Current Events 3.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Consider the following statements : 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The question flows from the Supreme Court's Aadhaar judgment (K.S. Puttaswamy, 2018). Statement 4 is correct: Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which makes Aadhaar mandatory for subsidies and benefits funded from the Consolidated Fund of India, was upheld.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under Article 368 a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately with a special majority; there is no joint sitting, so Rajya Sabha's power is equal to Lok Sabha's — option (b).
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — MPLADS (1993) gives each MP ₹5 crore a year to recommend works in their constituency, implemented by the district authority. Statement 1 is correct: the guidelines require funds to create durable community assets — schools, health centres, roads, drinking water.
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form, making enforcement of any disability arising from it a punishable offence. Article 17 lies within Articles 14–18, the group titled 'Right to Equality' — option (d). The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 gives it teeth.
In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 50, a Directive Principle of State Policy, directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services — option (b).
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (Section 3) requires the Government to lay before Parliament, with the Budget, a Macro-Economic Framework Statement, a Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement and a Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement — option (d).
A constitutional government by definition is a
UPSC's answer: (d) — A constitutional government is one whose powers are defined and restrained by a constitution — by definition a limited government — option (d). Constitutionalism means rule of law, separation of powers, protected rights and judicial review that prevent arbitrary exercise of power.
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) ? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The UDHR (1948) covers civil-political rights and socio-economic rights, plus duties to the community. The Preamble (1) echoes it in promising justice, liberty, equality, fraternity and dignity of the individual.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens ? 1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹ 2,00,000 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000 4. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 lists who gets free legal aid: SC/ST members, women, children, persons with disability, industrial workmen, victims of trafficking, disaster or custody — and any person whose annual income is below the prescribed limit.
Consider the following pairs : International agreement / set-up — Subject 1. Alma-Ata Declaration — Healthcare of the people 2. Hague Convention — Biological and chemical weapons 3. Talanoa Dialogue — Global climate change 4. Under2 Coalition — Child rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 1 is correct: the Alma-Ata Declaration (WHO/UNICEF, 1978) championed 'Health for All' through primary health care. Pair 3 is correct: the Talanoa Dialogue, launched at COP23 (Fiji presidency, 2017), is a facilitative dialogue under the Paris Agreement on climate ambition.
A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
UPSC's answer: (b) — The defining feature of a parliamentary system is collective responsibility: the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from and answerable to the legislature and can be removed by a vote of no confidence — option (b); Article 75(3) embodies this in India.
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) set out the goals of a welfare state — social order with justice (Article 38), equitable distribution (Article 39), right to work, education and public assistance (Article 41), living wage (Article 43), free legal aid, health and…
Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Constitution nowhere defines a 'basic structure'. The doctrine was created by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), and its elements (federalism, secularism, democracy, judicial review, etc.) have been identified case by case.
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
UPSC's answer: (a) — Both Gandhism and Marxism regard the State as an instrument of coercion and look to its eventual disappearance: Marx foresaw the State 'withering away' after the proletarian revolution, and Gandhi's ideal of Ram Rajya / enlightened anarchy was a stateless society of self-governing villages — option…
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Bureaucracy is the permanent, professional civil service whose core function is to implement the public policies and laws made by the political executive and legislature — option (d).
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
UPSC's answer: (d) — In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution (overruling Berubari, 1960) and may be amended, as done by the 42nd Amendment.
"Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to
UPSC's answer: (d) — Each IMF member pays a quota, 25% of which was historically in gold (now reserve assets/SDRs) and 75% in its own currency.
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Part IV contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36–51). Article 37 says these principles 'shall not be enforceable by any court' but are 'fundamental in the governance of the country' and it is the duty of the State to apply them in making laws.
Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: Article 164(4) allows a person who is not a member of the State Legislature to be a minister for six consecutive months, but the person must be qualified to be a member of the Legislature (Article 173 — for example, at least 25 years old for the Assembly).
Consider the following statements : 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Article 85(1) empowers the President to summon each House 'at such time and place as he thinks fit'. Statement 3 is correct: the Constitution fixes no minimum sitting days; it only requires that six months not elapse between two sessions.
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs : 1. Aurang — In-charge of treasury of the State 2. Banian — Indian agent of the East India Company 3. Mirasidar — Designated revenue payer to the State Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is wrong: 'aurang' is a Persian term for a warehouse or depot where goods were collected before export; treasury officers were called khazanchi/diwan.
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism. 2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism. 3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana Buddhism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Second Buddhist Council (Vaishali, c. 383 BCE) split the Sangha into the orthodox Sthaviravadins (Theravada/Hinayana) and the Mahasanghikas. Statement 1 is wrong: Sthaviravadins belong to the Hinayana/Theravada tradition, not Mahayana.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Britain's Industrial Revolution flooded India with cheap machine-made textiles after 1813, while Indian handloom exports lost their markets; weavers and artisans were ruined and 'deindustrialisation' set in — option (a).
Consider the following events in the history of India : 1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja 2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman – I 3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka – I 4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Mahendravarman I established Pallava power at Kanchi in c. 600–630 CE (event 2, earliest). Gopala founded the Pala dynasty in Bengal c. 750 CE, chosen by local chiefs to end anarchy (event 4). Mihira Bhoja raised the Gurjara-Pratiharas to imperial status c. 836–885 CE (event 1).
Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the 'Hundi' generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A hundi was an indigenous bill of exchange — a written order by which merchants transferred money or credit across distances without carrying cash — option (c).
With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements : 1. It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic conquest of the mind. 2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs. 3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Desher Katha' (1904) by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar, a Maharashtrian settled in Bengal, exposed the colonial drain of wealth and warned that the colonial State conquered not just territory but the Indian mind (statement 1).
The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
UPSC's answer: (a) — Gopal Baba Walangkar, a retired Mahar soldier and disciple of Jyotiba Phule, published 'Vital-Vidhvansak' (Destroyer of Brahmanical Pollution) in 1888 — the first periodical addressed to the untouchable communities — option (a).
With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote
UPSC's answer: (a) — Kulyavapa and dronavapa are units of land measurement found in Gupta-period copper-plate inscriptions from Bengal — option (a). They denote the area that could be sown with one kulya or one drona of seed (a kulyavapa = 8 dronavapas; also adhavapa and pataka). Such land grants (e.g.
Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription ? “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage is from Ashoka's Major Rock Edict XII, which preaches toleration of all sects and warns that glorifying one's own sect while disparaging others injures one's own sect — option (a). Ashoka urged 'samavaya' (concord) and restraint of speech, honouring the essentials of all faiths.
With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term 'paramitas'?
UPSC's answer: (c) — In Mahayana Buddhism the paramitas are the 'perfections' a bodhisattva cultivates on the path to Buddhahood — option (c). The six classical paramitas are dana (generosity), sila (morality), kshanti (patience), virya (energy), dhyana (meditation) and prajna (wisdom); later lists add four more…
In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around 1. women's right to gain education 2. age of consent 3. restitution of conjugal rights Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Rakhmabai, married as a child in Bombay, refused in adulthood to live with her husband Dadaji Bhikaji, who sued in 1884 for restitution of conjugal rights (item 3). The case ignited public debate on child marriage and a woman's consent, feeding directly into the Age of Consent Act, 1891 (item 2).
Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20ᵗʰ century because of
UPSC's answer: (b) — Indigo cultivation collapsed after 1897 when German chemists (BASF, following Adolf von Baeyer's work) commercialised synthetic indigo, which was cheaper and more uniform — option (b).
Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because
UPSC's answer: (d) — Lord Wellesley founded Fort William College in Calcutta in 1800 to train young Company civilians ('writers') in Indian languages, law, history and administration before posting — option (d).
With reference to the history of India, "Ulgulan" or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Ulgulan' (Great Tumult) is the Munda name for Birsa Munda's uprising of 1899–1900 in the Ranchi region against dikus (outsiders), zamindars, missionaries and the colonial State — option (d).
With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga. 2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana. 3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta – II. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 3 is correct: Kalidasa, author of Abhijnanashakuntalam and Meghaduta, is traditionally placed at the court of Chandragupta II Vikramaditya (c. 375–415 CE). Statement 1 is wrong: Panini, author of the Ashtadhyayi, lived c.
In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, "Pronuclear Transfer" is used for
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pronuclear transfer is a form of mitochondrial replacement therapy: after IVF, the pronuclei (nuclear DNA) of the parents' fertilised egg are moved into a donor's fertilised egg whose own pronuclei have been removed but whose mitochondria are healthy.
With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following ? 1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs 3. Disease diagnosis 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion 5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — As of 2020, AI could effectively cut electricity use in industrial units (1) — for example, DeepMind's control system reduced Google data-centre cooling energy by about 40% — diagnose diseases from scans and records (3), and convert text to speech (4).
With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm. 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication. 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth. 4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Visible Light Communication (Li-Fi) transmits data by rapidly modulating LED light in the visible band of roughly 375–780 nm (statement 1). Because light does not penetrate walls, VLC is a short-range optical wireless technology, so statement 2 is wrong.
With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements : 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls. 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A blockchain is a distributed ledger replicated across many nodes; in public chains anyone can inspect it and no single user controls it (statement 1).
With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements : 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are rolled sheets of graphene with very large surface area, high strength and electrical conductivity. Statement 1 is correct: functionalised CNTs are used as carriers of drugs and antigens (vaccine delivery) in the body.
Consider the following activities : 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Agricultural drones already spray pesticides and fertilisers; India's Kisan Drone scheme subsidises them (activity 1). Drones fly into volcanic craters to map lava lakes and sample gases where humans cannot go, e.g. at Kilauea and Stromboli (activity 2).
"The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft." The experiment in question refers to
UPSC's answer: (d) — The description matches Evolved LISA (eLISA/LISA), the European Space Agency's planned space-based gravitational-wave observatory: three spacecraft in a triangle with million-kilometre arms, using laser interferometry to detect ripples in spacetime — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent. 2. A person's genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. 3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: germline editing can alter the cells that produce eggs or sperm, so the change is heritable — technically feasible with CRISPR, though ethically restricted.
What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India ? 1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. 3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis, and is a leading killer of Indian children under five; PCV was added to the Universal Immunisation Programme in 2017 and rolled out nationwide in 2021.
In India, the term "Public Key Infrastructure" is used in the context of
UPSC's answer: (a) — Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is the system of digital certificates, certifying authorities and public–private key pairs that enables secure encryption and digital signatures — option (a).
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells ? 1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not. 2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do. 3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: plant cells have a rigid cellulose cell wall outside the membrane; animal cells have no cell wall. Statement 3 is correct: a mature plant cell has one large central vacuole (up to 90% of volume) for turgor and storage, while animal cells have several small vacuoles, if any.
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution ? 1. Automobile exhaust 2. Tobacco smoke 3. Wood burning 4. Using varnished wooden furniture 5. Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Benzene is a volatile aromatic hydrocarbon and a known human carcinogen (it causes leukaemia). The main sources of exposure named by WHO and health agencies are automobile exhaust and petrol vapour (1), tobacco smoke (2) and the burning of wood and other biomass (3).
If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India ? 1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings 2. Opening up to more foreign banks 3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Global crises transmit through sudden capital flight; economies with heavy short-term external debt (as in the 1997 Asian crisis) suffer most. Item 1 is correct: avoiding dependence on short-term foreign borrowings limits rollover risk and gives immunity.
If you withdraw ₹ 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be
UPSC's answer: (d) — Money supply (M1) = currency with the public + demand deposits with banks. Withdrawing ₹1,00,000 in cash reduces demand deposits by ₹1,00,000 and raises currency with the public by the same amount; the two components offset exactly.
With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — FDI is investment in equity or equity-like capital instruments that gives a lasting interest and a say in management; the investor shares in profits and risks rather than being owed a fixed repayment.
The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of
UPSC's answer: (a) — West Texas Intermediate (WTI) is a light, sweet grade of crude oil produced in the US and priced at Cushing, Oklahoma; it is one of the three global benchmarks with Brent (North Sea) and Dubai/Oman — option (a).
In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following ? 1. Housing loans owed by households 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards 3. Treasury bills Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Non-financial debt' is the debt owed by the non-financial sectors of an economy — households, non-financial companies and the government — as opposed to debt of banks and other financial institutions (this is how the BIS and IMF measure it).
In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under "IAEA Safeguards" while others are not ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under the 2008 India–US civil nuclear deal and India's Separation Plan, India placed its civilian reactors under IAEA safeguards while keeping strategic (military-linked) reactors outside.
With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The WTO's TRIMs Agreement (1994) bars investment measures that violate GATT's national-treatment (Article III) and quantitative-restriction (Article XI) rules.
If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do ? 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate 3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — An expansionist (accommodative) monetary policy aims to increase money supply and lower borrowing costs. Cutting the SLR (1) frees bank funds for lending, and cutting the Bank Rate and Repo Rate (3) makes borrowing cheaper — both are expansionary steps the RBI would take.
With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements : 1. Worker productivity (₹ per worker at 2004 – 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas. 2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased. 3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased. 4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — After 1991 the rural economy diversified: construction, trade, transport and services grew faster than agriculture, so the rural non-farm economy expanded (statement 3).
Consider the following statements : 1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. 2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The short-term cooperative credit structure is three-tiered: State Cooperative Bank → District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) → Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Statement 2 is correct: DCCBs' core function is to refinance and supply funds to PACS, which lend directly to farmers.
In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits ? 1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Individual cyber-insurance policies in India (e.g. HDFC ERGO, Bajaj Allianz) cover financial loss from online fraud plus related costs.
In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture ? 1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops 2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies 3. Social Capital development 4. Free electricity supply to farmers 5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Public investment means government capital spending that creates productive assets or capacity in agriculture, as distinct from subsidies and transfers that support current consumption.
What is the importance of the term "Interest Coverage Ratio" of a firm in India ? 1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. 3. The higher a borrowing firm's level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) = earnings before interest and tax ÷ interest expense; it shows how comfortably a firm can pay interest from operating profit. Statement 1 is correct: a lender uses the current ICR to gauge the firm's present ability to service debt.
Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past ? 1. Minimum Support Price 2. Government's trading 3. Government's stockpiling 4. Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Rice prices in India are shaped by a web of government interventions. MSP (1) sets a floor at which FCI procures paddy; government trading (2) — open-market sales, exports/import decisions and export bans — moves market supply.
Consider the following statements : 1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade. 2. "Textile and textile articles" constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. 3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: cotton, yarn and textile articles are among the largest items in India–Bangladesh trade, feeding Bangladesh's garment industry. Statement 1 is wrong: India–Sri Lanka trade has fluctuated over the decade, falling in several years (e.g.
In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20 ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The G20 comprises 19 countries plus the EU (and, since 2023, the African Union): Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, UK, USA.
Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes ? 1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets 2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks 3. Consumption requirements of farm households 4. Post-harvest expenses 5. Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Kisan Credit Card (1998) provides short-term revolving credit for crop cultivation and allied needs at subsidised interest.
Consider the following statements : 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. 3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: food and beverages carry about 45.9% weight in CPI (Combined) versus roughly 24% for primary food articles and food products in WPI. Statement 2 is correct: WPI covers only goods traded in bulk; CPI includes services such as housing, education, health and transport.
Consider the following pairs : River — Flows into 1. Mekong — Andaman Sea 2. Thames — Irish Sea 3. Volga — Caspian Sea 4. Zambezi — Indian Ocean Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 3 is correct: the Volga, Europe's longest river, ends in the Caspian Sea, an endorheic basin. Pair 4 is correct: the Zambezi flows through Victoria Falls and Mozambique into the Indian Ocean.
Consider the following statements : 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: open-ended (unlimited) MSP procurement applies effectively only to wheat and rice in procuring States; for pulses and oilseeds, procurement under PSS is capped (typically 25% of production) and coarse cereals are procured selectively.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. 'Commercial Paper' is a short-term unsecured promissory note. 2. 'Certificate of Deposit' is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation. 3. 'Call Money' is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions. 4. 'Zero-Coupon Bonds' are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Commercial Paper is an unsecured promissory note issued by highly rated corporates for 7 days to 1 year. Statement 3 is correct: call money is overnight (up to 14 days as notice money) borrowing among banks to manage reserves.
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs : 1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer 2. Shramana — Priest with a high status 3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: a parivrajaka was a wandering renunciant who left home to seek truth, common in the 6th century BCE. Pair 3 is correct: upasaka (male) and upasika (female) are lay followers of Buddhism who observe the five precepts without ordination.
With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements : 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: elephant herds are matriarchal, led by the oldest, most experienced female; adult males live alone or in bachelor groups. Statement 2 is correct: elephants have the longest gestation of any mammal, 18–22 months.
Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin ? 1. Nagarhole National Park 2. Papikonda National Park 3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Cauvery rises in Kodagu (Karnataka) and its basin spans Karnataka, Kerala (Wayanad) and Tamil Nadu. Nagarhole NP (1) lies on the Kabini, a Cauvery tributary; Wayanad WLS (4) drains via the Kabini; Sathyamangalam TR (3) lies on the Bhavani and Moyar, Cauvery tributaries.
With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
UPSC's answer: (a) — All four are birds: the Ceylon (Sri Lanka) frogmouth is a nocturnal bird of the Western Ghats; the coppersmith barbet is a common green barbet with a metallic 'tuk-tuk' call; the grey-chinned minivet is a Himalayan cuckoo-shrike; the white-throated redstart is a Himalayan chat — option (a).
Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The hard-ground barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) is a sub-species of swamp deer adapted to firm ground and feeding only on grasses; it survives in the wild only in Kanha National Park, Madhya Pradesh — option (a).
Steel slag can be the material for which of the following ? 1. Construction of base road 2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Steel slag, the by-product of steel-making, is increasingly reused rather than dumped. Processed slag aggregates are used in road base and sub-base layers (1); India's first steel-slag road was built at Hazira, Surat in 2022 by CRRI and AMNS.
Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat ? 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Gangotri National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Himalayan musk deer lives in alpine forests and scrub at 2,500–4,500 m in the western and central Himalaya. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand) (1) was created specifically to protect musk deer, and Gangotri National Park (2) in the high Uttarkashi Himalaya is prime habitat.
In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint ? 1. Copper slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — PMGSY promotes 'green technologies' in rural roads to cut carbon footprint and use waste. Copper slag (1), an industrial waste, replaces natural aggregate; cold-mix asphalt (2) is laid at ambient temperature, saving the fuel and emissions of heating bitumen; geotextiles (3) stabilise soil and…
Consider the following statements : 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: coal ash (fly ash and bottom ash) concentrates heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, mercury and cadmium. Statement 2 is correct: burning coal releases SO2 and NOx, the precursors of acid rain and smog; India set emission norms for power plants in 2015.
What is the use of biochar in farming ? 1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. 2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. 3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Biochar is charcoal made by heating biomass without oxygen (pyrolysis) and added to soil or growing media. Its porous structure holds water and nutrients, so media containing biochar retain moisture longer (statement 3) and it can form part of soilless growing media in vertical farms (statement 1).
If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Schedule VI of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 listed specified plants such as Beddome's cycad, blue vanda, red vanda, kuth, ladies' slipper orchids and pitcher plant.
With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as
UPSC's answer: (a) — Ghantasala (on the Krishna delta, Andhra), Kadura (Kadalur/Cuddalore on the Coromandel coast) and Chaul (Konkan coast, near Mumbai) were ports engaged in overseas trade during the Gupta period — option (a).
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture ? 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop. 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Zero tillage sows seed directly into unploughed soil with a seed drill, leaving crop residue in place. It lets wheat be sown straight into rice stubble with a Happy Seeder, removing the need to burn residue (statement 1) — a key answer to Punjab–Haryana stubble burning.
According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels ? 1. Cassava 2. Damaged wheat grains 3. Groundnut seeds 4. Horse gram 5. Rotten potatoes 6. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 widens ethanol feedstocks to sugarcane juice, sugar-containing materials like sugar beet and sweet sorghum, starch-containing materials like corn and cassava, and damaged food grains (wheat, broken rice) and rotten potatoes unfit for human consumption.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’ ? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in money terms, of the long-term economic damage caused by emitting one additional tonne of CO₂ in a given year — lost agricultural output, health costs, property damage and so on — option (a).
With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements : 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop. 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. 3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: black gram (urad) is grown in kharif across India and as a rabi/summer crop in the south and in rice fallows. Statement 2 is wrong: chickpea (gram/chana), not green gram, accounts for nearly half of India's pulse output; moong is under 10%.
“The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Cotton is a subtropical kharif crop: it needs 210 frost-free days, 50–100 cm rainfall (or irrigation), high temperatures and bright sunshine at boll opening, and light, well-drained soils that hold moisture such as black regur — option (a).
With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements : 1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps. 2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Solar water pumps run on DC or AC motors powered by photovoltaic panels; the motor type, not the energy source, decides the pump design. Statement 1 is wrong: solar power drives both surface pumps and submersible pumps — PM-KUSUM in fact installs mostly submersible solar pumps.
With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements : 1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when 'bud chip settlings' are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field. 2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds. 3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts. 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: raising bud-chip settlings in a nursery and transplanting them cuts seed-cane requirement by about 80% compared with planting whole setts. Statement 4 is correct: tissue-culture-raised settlings are used to multiply disease-free seed of new varieties.
In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture ? 1. Crop diversification 2. Legume intensification 3. Tensiometer use 4. Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Crop diversification (1) breaks pest and disease cycles and reduces the risks of monoculture. Legume intensification (2) adds nitrogen to the soil through biological fixation and cuts the need for chemical fertiliser.
What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ? 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Fertigation delivers water-soluble fertilisers through drip or sprinkler irrigation directly to the root zone. Acids injected into the system can neutralise alkaline irrigation water and prevent emitter clogging (statement 1).
Consider the following minerals : 1. Bentonite 2. Chromite 3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under the MMDR Act, 1957 minerals are 'major' unless notified as 'minor' by the Central Government (Section 3(e)); minor minerals are regulated by States.
With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements : 1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: urea is made by reacting ammonia with CO2, and ammonia in India is produced mainly from natural gas (or imported LNG) by steam reforming.
With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Desert National Park (3,162 sq km) in Rajasthan spreads over Jaisalmer and Barmer districts (statement 1). It is the most important remaining habitat of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard, along with chinkara, desert fox and the fossil park at Akal (statement 3).
Siachen Glacier is situated to the
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Siachen Glacier lies in the eastern Karakoram, north of the Nubra Valley in Ladakh; the Nubra river rises from its snout — option (d). It lies west of Aksai Chin, north of Leh and east (not north) of Gilgit.
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs : Famous Place — Present State 1. Bhilsa — Madhya Pradesh 2. Dwarasamudra — Maharashtra 3. Girinagar — Gujarat 4. Sthanesvara — Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Bhilsa is modern Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh, near Sanchi (pair 1 correct). Girinagar is Girnar/Junagadh in Gujarat, site of Ashoka's rock edict and Rudradaman's inscription (pair 3 correct). Dwarasamudra, the Hoysala capital, is Halebidu in Karnataka, not Maharashtra (pair 2 wrong).
Consider the following statements : 1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or "critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the Central Ground Water Authority was constituted in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate groundwater extraction.
Consider the following statements : 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. 3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 2 is correct: only well-organised, intense tropical cyclones develop a clear eye; weaker storms and extra-tropical cyclones usually do not. Statement 1 is wrong: jet streams (polar and subtropical) exist in both hemispheres.
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger Habitat" ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in the Nallamala hills of Andhra Pradesh is India's largest tiger reserve, with a Critical Tiger Habitat (core) of about 2,600 sq km — option (c). Corbett's core is about 822 sq km, Ranthambore's about 1,113 sq km and Sunderbans' about 1,700 sq km.
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