GS Paper I of the 2026 Preliminary examination, held on 24 May 2026. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as History 21, Economy 19, General Science 14, Current Events 14, Polity & Governance 13, Environment & Ecology 9, Geography 8.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Hindustani thaats have direct Carnatic melakarta equivalents; Bilawal (all shuddha swaras, like the Western major scale) corresponds to Dheera Shankarabharanam, the 29th melakarta. Nat Bhairavi (20th melakarta) is the Carnatic equivalent of Asavari thaat, not Bilawal.
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Hilton-Young (Royal Currency) Commission of 1926 fixed the rupee at 1s 6d in gold, a rate Indian opinion considered artificially high.
Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following ? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pali canonical texts (c. 6th–4th century BCE) name coins such as kahapana, nikkha, kamsa and kakanika, and archaeology confirms silver punch-marked coins from the same period.
Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Nagara temples have a curvilinear (rekha) shikhara; Dravida temples have a stepped pyramidal vimana. The Chalukyan sites of Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal contain both styles side by side. Huchimalligudi at Aihole (c.
Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Jainism classifies all souls (jivas) in the cycle of rebirth into four gatis or states of existence. These are Deva (heavenly beings), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals, plants and other sub-human life) and Naraki (hell-beings).
The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Bagh Caves (Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh) are Buddhist rock-cut caves of the 5th–7th century, famous for murals in the Ajanta tradition.
Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The decimal place-value notation is India's major contribution to mathematics, and its spread can be dated from inscriptions.
Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The question tests whether each inference follows from its statement, not whether the statement itself is true. Inference 1 follows: spindle-whorls in ordinary houses without spinning wheels mean thread was spun by hand at home — slow, laborious domestic work.
Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Eka (Unity) Movement of 1921–22 arose in Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur districts of Awadh among tenants protesting excessive rent demands, oppressive rent collection and evictions; it was led locally by Madari Pasi and slipped out of Congress control.
Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statements I and II are about drawing water from wells with animal power for irrigation; the question asks which pieces of evidence support them. Evidence 1 supports both: the Rigveda mentions the ashma-chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails), the apparatus of well irrigation.
Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The assertion is a geological one about Pleistocene river capture between the Indus and Ganga systems, so its basis must be physical or biological evidence.
What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Early Buddhist art (Bharhut, Sanchi, early Amaravati) was aniconic: the Buddha was never shown in human form but indicated by symbols. Each symbol stands for an event: the empty seat or throne beneath the Bodhi tree represents the Buddha in meditation and his Enlightenment at Bodh Gaya.
Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Rigveda names the Punjab rivers, and their modern identifications are well settled. Vitasta is the Jhelum and Asikni is the Chenab, so pairs 1 and 2 have swapped the two rivers and are both wrong.
Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Amaravati Mahachaitya stood at Dharanikota on the lower Krishna in Andhra Pradesh, capital region of the Satavahanas and Ikshvakus — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The question asks which pairs are NOT correctly matched, so read carefully. Senguttuvan, the hero of the Silappadikaram tradition who built the Kannagi temple, was the greatest Chera king — pair 1 is correct.
Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Bose won the Tripuri Congress presidency in 1939 against Gandhi's candidate Pattabhi Sitaramayya but could not form a Working Committee without Gandhi's confidence, and resigned in April — factor 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — After annexing Awadh in 1856 the British treated the taluqdars as usurpers with no rightful claim to the land. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was made on the assumption that the taluqdars were outsiders, and it took away large numbers of their villages — statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Government of India Act 1919 kept the separate Muslim electorates created in 1909 and extended communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans — statement 1 is correct.
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) of Dharwad, Karnataka, was a Hindustani khayal vocalist and recipient of the Padma Vibhushan.
In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Atharvaveda contains agricultural charms and hymns, and it is here that the term kshetra-patni, 'mistress of the field', appears as a personification of the cultivated field.
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — India's LT-LEDS, submitted at COP27 (2022), lays out the pathway to the net-zero-by-2070 pledge; India's 4th Biennial Update Report (Dec 2024) reported that 2020 emissions fell about 7.9% from 2019.
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Western Hoolock Gibbon, India's only ape, is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected in the Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Jorhat, Assam — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience ? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Mangroves are protected for climate resilience because their dense roots and trunks dissipate wave and storm-surge energy, shielding coasts from cyclones and erosion.
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy ? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Vizhinjam, near Thiruvananthapuram, is India's first dedicated deep-water container trans-shipment port, developed by Adani Ports under a PPP with Kerala and commissioned in 2024–25.
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information : 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Sutlej rises near Rakas Tal on the Tibetan Plateau, cuts through the Himalaya in the Shipki La gorge (antecedent drainage) and flows through China, India and Pakistan — three countries.
Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The question asks which statements are NOT correct. Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh touches eight States (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) plus Delhi, the most of any State.
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct ? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Amur Falcons breed in Siberia, Mongolia and north China and stop over at Doyang reservoir in Wokha district, Nagaland, each October–November on their way to southern Africa — the longest raptor migration.
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Rainfed Area Development (RAD) is a component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry ? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Eri silk, the 'peace silk' of Assam and Meghalaya, is spun from Samia ricini cocoons without killing the moth and is traditionally produced with minimal chemical processing.
Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea outlet of the Persian Gulf, connecting it to the Gulf of Oman and thence the Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean. Bahrain and Qatar lie entirely on the Persian Gulf, so their ships must pass through Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean — 1 and 3 are correct.
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Tungurahua ('Throat of Fire') is an active stratovolcano of about 5,023 m in the Andes of central Ecuador, near the town of Baños in Tungurahua province.
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Madhav National Park lies in Shivpuri district, Madhya Pradesh, on the edge of the Vindhyan hills; it was once the hunting preserve of the Gwalior Scindias.
With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie between 6° and 14° N in the Bay of Bengal, so temperatures stay warm (23–30 °C) and humidity high all year — a humid tropical coastal (maritime) climate; statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Peninsular Block is the ancient, stable Gondwana shield of India; its features reflect great age and only gentle later tectonism.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Sagarmala (2015) is the Union Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways' flagship for port-led development: port modernisation, connectivity, port-linked industrialisation and coastal community development.
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Rhynchostylis retusa, the foxtail orchid (Kopou phul in Assamese), grows on tree trunks and branches as an epiphyte, drawing moisture from the air — statement 1 is correct. It is the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh and is worn by Bihu dancers in spring — statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Moidams at Charaideo, Assam, were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2024 — India's 43rd, and the first cultural site from the North-east.
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”. Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — FAO's Strategic Framework 2022–31 is built on the 'Four Betters': better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better life, leaving no one behind.
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Lake Turkana, in the arid north of Kenya (its northern tip in Ethiopia), is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake — statement 1 is correct.
Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — REDD+ rewards forest communities for reducing emissions from deforestation and degradation; Plan Vivo is a voluntary standard that certifies community-led projects and issues tradable carbon certificates.
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Genetic medicines (gene therapies, antisense oligonucleotides, siRNA, mRNA therapeutics) work by supplying a functional copy of a gene, silencing a harmful one or editing a defect, thereby correcting or compensating for the faulty gene — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — An LLM is a neural network trained on vast text to predict the next token: it computes a probability distribution over possible next words and, in basic decoding, selects the most probable one — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Stealth aims to make an aircraft or ship hard to detect: faceted or blended shapes deflect radar energy away from the receiver and radar-absorbing materials (RAM) convert the rest to heat, giving a very small radar cross-section — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — A 'black box' is actually two bright-orange units: the Flight Data Recorder, logging hundreds of parameters such as altitude, speed and control positions, and the Cockpit Voice Recorder, capturing crew speech and cockpit sounds — statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Hydrogen is colour-coded by how it is made: grey from natural gas reforming, blue when that process is paired with carbon capture and storage, and green when produced by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme : 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — IN-SPACe, set up in 2020 under the Department of Space, is the autonomous single-window agency that authorises and promotes private participation in space activities, sharing ISRO facilities and expertise — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — A drone swarm is a group of unmanned aircraft that coordinate autonomously through drone-to-drone links, sharing position and task data so the swarm keeps functioning even if some units are lost — statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — GenomeIndia, launched in 2020, is funded by the Department of Biotechnology and executed by a consortium of some 20 institutions led by the Centre for Brain Research, IISc Bengaluru — statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct ? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The National Quantum Mission was approved in April 2023 with an outlay of about ₹6,000 crore for 2023–24 to 2030–31, implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct ? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Deep Ocean Mission (approved 2021, about ₹4,077 crore) is implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways — statement 1 is wrong.
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Accountability means an official answers for outcomes and takes responsibility for acting when public interest is threatened, even at personal or political cost. Mr.
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above : 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Mediation in a community conflict works only when each side feels heard; acknowledging the tribal community's sacred-land concern first builds the trust needed before technical options can be discussed — statement 1 contributes.
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Ms. X holds unverified, confidential information; the ethical course must balance transparency with fairness to the contractor and with the proper channel for such material.
'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' for Part III to include any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Each statement claims that a certain provision is absent from the Constitution; all three provisions in fact exist in Part XXII (Articles 393–395). Article 393 (Short title) states: 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India' — so statement 1 is wrong.
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016 (in force from April 2017), not 2018; it does mandate reservation in education and employment and accessibility duties, but the year makes statement 1 wrong.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is wrong: the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are administered under the Sixth Schedule (autonomous district councils); the Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in other States.
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — In Parliament a starred question (marked with an asterisk) is one for which the Member wants an oral answer in the House; supplementary questions may follow it during Question Hour.
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India : 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs (est. 1968) has 30 members: 20 elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 by the Rajya Sabha, so statement 2 has the numbers reversed and is wrong.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India : 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Mission Sudarshan Chakra was announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2025 as an indigenous, multi-layered national security shield, named after Lord Krishna's discus.
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries : 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Maitri Setu (2021) spans the Feni river and links Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh; statement 1 has the towns on the wrong sides of the border and is therefore wrong.
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — A Zero FIR lets a victim register a cognizable offence at any police station regardless of where the crime occurred; the FIR is numbered '0' and transferred to the station with jurisdiction. Section 173(1) of the BNSS gives this statutory footing.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details : Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Row 1 is wrong: the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau, which coordinates economic intelligence among enforcement agencies, works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance — not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi : 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The AI Impact Summit (New Delhi, February 2026) was the first such global summit hosted in the Global South, following Bletchley Park, Seoul and Paris. Statement 1 is wrong: the Summit's three foundational Sutras were People, Planet and Progress — not 'Planning'.
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The ASEAN members bordering India's North-east are Myanmar and, beyond it, Thailand; connectivity projects with them count as India–ASEAN cooperation.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Project Supported by India) A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project B. Restoration of Stor Palace C. District Hospital at Dickoya D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies List II (Country) 1. Maldives 2. Afghanistan 3. Bhutan 4. Sri Lanka Code : A B C D
UPSC's answer: (b) — Mangdechhu (720 MW) is an India-assisted hydroelectric project on the Mangdechhu river in Trongsa, Bhutan, commissioned in 2019 — A matches 3.
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Su-30 MKI, though of Russian (Sukhoi) design, has been licence-manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd at Nashik since the early 2000s, with progressively higher indigenous content — item 1 is made in India.
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation : 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Colombo Process (2003) is a regional consultative process of Asian labour-sending countries, including India; like all such processes it is non-binding and its recommendations carry no legal force, so statement 1 ('binding decisions') is wrong.
Consider the following UN organisations/agencies : 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Office of the UN High Commissioner for Refugees is the only body among the four to have won the Nobel Peace Prize twice — in 1954 and again in 1981. UNICEF won the Peace Prize once, in 1965, for its work for children.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) A. UNMIL B. MINURCAT C. MINUSTAH D. UNMISET List II (Period of Operation) 1. 2007 – 2010 2. 2002 – 2005 3. 2003 – 2018 4. 2004 – 2017 Code : A B C D
UPSC's answer: (b) — UNMIL, the UN Mission in Liberia, was set up after the civil war in September 2003 and closed in March 2018 — A matches 3 (2003–2018). MINURCAT, the UN Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad, operated from 2007 to 2010 — B matches 1.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (BIMSTEC Centre / Establishment) A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility List II (Location) 1. NOIDA 2. Bengaluru 3. Colombo 4. Thimphu Code : A B C D
UPSC's answer: (c) — BIMSTEC has designated member-country hosts for its sectoral centres. The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (and Commission) is hosted by Bhutan at Thimphu — A matches 4. The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is located in Bengaluru, India — B matches 2.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Indian Army Corps) (Headquarters)
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Indian Army's corps are numbered formations, each with a fixed headquarters. 3 Corps ('Spear Corps'), responsible for Nagaland and Manipur, is headquartered at Rangapahar, Dimapur — pair (a) is correct.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan was approved by the Cabinet in April 2022 for implementation from 2022–23 to 2025–26 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), so the dates in statement 1 are wrong.
Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The European Union currently has 27 member states after the United Kingdom's exit in 2020. Poland joined in the 2004 enlargement and Germany is a founding member (as West Germany, 1957), so both are EU members. Belarus is not a member; it is closely aligned with Russia and is under EU sanctions.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (INTERPOL Notice) A. Silver Notice B. Blue Notice C. Black Notice D. Green Notice List II (Description) 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety 4. To identify and trace criminal assets Code : A B C D
UPSC's answer: (c) — INTERPOL colour-coded notices are international alerts circulated among member police forces. The Silver Notice, piloted in January 2025 with India among the participants, is used to identify and trace criminal assets such as property and bank accounts — A matches 4.
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — NIRANTAR is a 2025 initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change that networks its research and training institutions into thematic verticals with a designated lead institute for each.
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India’s first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — DIR-V (Digital India RISC-V) is the Ministry of Electronics and IT programme to build indigenous microprocessors on the open RISC-V architecture, drawing on IIT Madras's Shakti and C-DAC's Vega families.
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — In 2025 the Bureau of Indian Standards published IS 19445:2025, the first national standard for testing and assessing bomb-disposal systems — statement 1 is correct.
‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’ :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics went to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for demonstrating macroscopic quantum tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit — the foundation of superconducting quantum computers.
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The four Grand Slams (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, US Open) are run by their national federations but coordinate through the Grand Slam Board, a shared governance partnership that sets common rules — statement 1 is correct.
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under the India Semiconductor Mission, approved fabrication and assembly-test (OSAT) plants have fixed locations. CG Power's OSAT unit with Renesas and Stars Microelectronics is at Sanand, Gujarat — pair (a) is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct ? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Bharat Forecast System (BFS), launched in May 2025, is a global weather model with a 6 km grid — the finest operational resolution in the world, compared with the 12 km of the earlier model.
Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' : 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Boong' is a Manipuri-language coming-of-age film about a boy searching for his missing father along the India–Myanmar border.
Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct ? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — A blockchain is a distributed ledger: every participating node holds a full copy that is updated and synchronised as new blocks are added — statement 2 is correct.
An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :
UPSC's answer: (a) — In dropshipping the online seller lists and prices products but holds no inventory; when an order arrives, it forwards the order and shipping details to a supplier, who ships directly to the customer, and the seller keeps the margin.
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The RBI launched the Financial Inclusion Index in 2021 to measure, on a 0–100 scale, how far financial services have reached across banking, investment, insurance, postal and pension sectors.
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — ONDC, launched in 2022 by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, is an open, interoperable network built on open protocols, like UPI for payments.
Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — UPI is a real-time payment rail moving money between bank accounts; the Digital Rupee (e₹) is a central bank digital currency — a direct liability of the RBI, the digital form of a banknote — so statement (a) is correct.
Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct ? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 × 7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Tokenisation converts ownership rights in real-world assets — property, bonds, gold, art, invoices — into digital tokens recorded on a blockchain that can be held and traded in fractions; statement 1 is correct.
A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under the International Capital Market Association principles, bonds are labelled by the use of their proceeds. A green bond finances only environmental projects (renewables, clean transport, pollution control); a social bond finances only social projects (affordable housing, health, education…
Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — M1xchange is one of the RBI-licensed platforms under the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), alongside RXIL and Invoicemart.
Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — When a government runs a deficit it borrows from the same pool of savings that firms draw on; the extra demand for loanable funds pushes interest rates up.
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Rare earth elements are indispensable in permanent magnets, lasers, sensors and electronics used in AI hardware, robotics, satellites and space systems — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Aviation hull insurance covers physical loss of or damage to the aircraft itself — airframe, engines and installed equipment — whether on the ground or in flight; statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct ? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Crowdfunding raises small amounts from a large number of people through an online platform or social network to finance a specific project, venture or cause; statement 1 is the standard (SEBI) definition and is correct.
With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed 1. | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India 2. | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India 3. | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India 4. | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Row 1 is wrong: the R.N. Malhotra Committee (1993) did recommend insurance-sector reforms, but it was set up by the Government of India; IRDAI itself was created in 1999 on its recommendation, so it could not have formed the committee. Row 2 is correct: SEBI appointed the L.C.
Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India : 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — NBFCs differ from banks in three classic ways: they cannot accept demand deposits (statement 1 correct), they are not part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves (statement 3 wrong), and DICGC deposit insurance does not cover their depositors (statement 4…
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) : 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Both the global MPI of UNDP–OPHI and India's national MPI use the Alkire–Foster method, which identifies a person as poor if deprived in at least one-third of weighted indicators — statement 1 is correct.
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