Paper II — Q4
(a) (i) How do you differentiate between acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) based on…
How do you differentiate between acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) based on peripheral smear and bone marrow findings?
Describe the current standard of care for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) in adults and children. 10+15=25
Enumerate the various types of vaccines available in National Immunization Schedule (NIS) in children. Define adverse events following immunization. State the adverse events of any three vaccines. 6+3+6=15
Discuss the diagnostic approach to and curative management of renovascular hypertension. 10 marks
हिंदी में प्रश्न पढ़ें
परिसरिय आलेख तथा अस्थि मज्जा परिणामों के आधार पर तीव्र लसीकाकोशिकाप्रसू ल्यूकीमिया (ए० एल० एल०) तथा तीव्र मज्जाभ ल्यूकीमिया (ए० एम० एल०) के बीच कैसे भेद किया जाता है?
वयस्कों तथा बच्चों में तीव्र लसीकाकोशिकाप्रसू ल्यूकीमिया (ए० एल० एल०) के वर्तमान देखभेख (उपचार) मानकों का वर्णन कीजिए। 10+15=25
बच्चों के लिए राष्ट्रीय टीकाकरण सारणी (एन० आइ० एस०) में उपलब्ध विभिन्न प्रकार के टीकों (वैक्सीन) के नाम गिनाइए। टीकाकरण के पश्चात् होने वाली प्रतिकूल घटनाओं को परिभाषित कीजिए। किन्हीं तीन टीकों से होने वाली प्रतिकूल घटनाओं का वर्णन कीजिए। 6+3+6=15
वृक्क-धमनी अतिरक्तदाब के प्रति नैदानिक अप्रोच तथा रोगमुक्तिकर प्रबंधन की व्याख्या कीजिए। 10
Model answer
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(a)(i)
ALL and AML are differentiated by lineage of blasts on peripheral smear and marrow, using FAB morphology and WHO immunophenotypic and cytogenetic criteria. FAB classifies ALL as L1-L3 and AML as M0-M7, but WHO adds immunophenotype and cytogenetics. In ALL, peripheral smear shows lymphoblasts with high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, scant agranular cytoplasm, condensed chromatin and no Auer rods; immunophenotyping is TdT positive, with B-cell or T-cell markers. In AML, myeloblasts have more cytoplasm, fine chromatin, nucleoli, primary granules and Auer rods; they are myeloperoxidase and Sudan black B positive and express CD13/CD33. Peripheral smear may show circulating blasts in both, but morphology and immunophenotype identify lineage; marrow shows suppression of normal trilineage maturation. Bone marrow is hypercellular with maturation arrest in both, and marrow aspirate is required to quantify blasts. The WHO 2016 and ICC criteria use a blast threshold of 20% or more; the WHO 5th edition (2022) removed the blast cut-off for most AML with defining genetic abnormalities (such as t(15;17) PML::RARA, t(8;21) RUNX1::RUNX1T1, inv(16) CBFB::MYH11 and NPM1 mutation), which are diagnosed irrespective of blast percentage, whereas ALL is usually diagnosed with at least 20% (commonly 25%) lymphoblasts. Flow cytometry is now the key discriminator: ALL expresses TdT with CD19, CD10, CD22 and cytoplasmic CD79a (B-ALL) or cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7 (T-ALL), while AML expresses MPO, CD13, CD33, CD117 and, in monocytic types, CD14 and CD64. Cytogenetics further separate them: Philadelphia chromosome/BCR-ABL1 is characteristic of some ALL, while t(8;21) and inv(16) are recurrent AML abnormalities.
(a)(ii)
Current ALL therapy is age- and risk-stratified and guided by measurable residual disease (MRD) measured by flow cytometry or PCR at the end of induction and consolidation, which is the strongest prognostic factor; cure rates now approach 90% in children but only 40–50% in older adults. In children, protocols (COG, BFM, UKALL; in India ICiCLe) based on NCI risk criteria use induction with vincristine, a corticosteroid (dexamethasone or prednisolone) and pegylated L-asparaginase, adding an anthracycline (daunorubicin or doxorubicin) for higher-risk disease, followed by consolidation, delayed intensification, CNS prophylaxis with intrathecal methotrexate, and prolonged maintenance with daily oral 6-mercaptopurine and weekly methotrexate for about 2 years in total; cranial irradiation is now limited to overt CNS disease or very high risk. Blinatumomab added to consolidation improves survival in standard-risk B-ALL (COG AALL1731). Risk groups are defined by age, presenting white-cell count, CNS involvement and cytogenetics. Remission is assessed by marrow, and therapy is continued according to response and risk. In adolescents and young adults (up to about 39 years), paediatric-inspired regimens give better results than adult regimens; older adults receive hyper-CVAD or GRAALL-type regimens, and blinatumomab added to consolidation improves survival in MRD-negative B-ALL (E1910 trial); Ph+ ALL is treated with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (imatinib, dasatinib or ponatinib) combined with low-intensity chemotherapy or, increasingly, chemotherapy-free with blinatumomab, and allogeneic haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation is considered in high-risk or Ph+ disease, often in first remission. For relapsed or refractory B-ALL, blinatumomab, inotuzumab ozogamicin and CAR-T cell therapy, especially tisagenlecleucel in children and young adults, are used to achieve remission before transplant where eligible.
(b)
The National Immunization Schedule under the Universal Immunization Programme protects against 12 diseases. For infants and children it includes BCG, OPV-0 and hepatitis B birth dose at birth; bOPV, pentavalent vaccine (DPT + hepatitis B + Hib) and rotavirus vaccine at 6, 10 and 14 weeks; fractional IPV at 6 and 14 weeks and 9 months; PCV at 6 and 14 weeks with a booster at 9 months; measles-rubella (MR) at 9–12 and 16–24 months; JE vaccine at 9–12 and 16–24 months in endemic districts; DPT booster and OPV booster at 16–24 months; DPT second booster at 5–6 years; and Td at 10 and 16 years (Td replaced TT in 2019). Vitamin A is given with MR, though it is not a vaccine. These include live attenuated vaccines such as BCG, OPV, MR and JE, and inactivated, subunit or conjugate vaccines such as IPV, hepatitis B, DPT, pentavalent and PCV. An adverse event following immunization is any untoward medical occurrence after vaccination, whether or not causally related to the vaccine. The WHO classifies AEFIs by cause into vaccine product-related reactions, vaccine quality defect-related reactions, immunization error-related reactions (programmatic errors, such as a non-sterile injection causing abscess), immunization anxiety-related reactions, and coincidental events. Serious AEFIs (death, hospitalization, disability, or cluster) must be reported and investigated by the district AEFI committee, and AEFI reporting supports vaccine safety surveillance. Examples: DPT may cause local sterile abscess, high febrile reaction, hypotonic-hyporesponsive episode or encephalopathy; measles/MMR may cause fever, febrile seizures, rash or thrombocytopenia; OPV may cause vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (about 1 in 2.7 million doses, mostly with the first dose); BCG may cause local ulceration, suppurative lymphadenitis, and rarely disseminated BCG disease in immunodeficient infants; and rotavirus vaccine carries a small risk of intussusception.
(c)
Renovascular hypertension (about 1–5% of hypertension; 90% atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis in older adults, 10% fibromuscular dysplasia in young women, and Takayasu arteritis as an important cause in young Indians) is suspected when hypertension begins before 30 or after 55 years, is resistant, has an abdominal bruit, or presents with flash pulmonary oedema, unexplained kidney injury, a rise in creatinine of more than 30% after starting an ACE inhibitor or ARB, or asymmetric kidney size (difference of more than 1.5 cm). Screening is usually Doppler ultrasound of renal arteries (peak systolic velocity >180–200 cm/s, renal–aortic ratio >3.5, and a resistive index that also predicts response to revascularization); CTA or MRA confirms stenosis, while catheter-based renal angiography remains the gold standard and allows intervention. Management depends on aetiology. In fibromuscular dysplasia, percutaneous transluminal renal angioplasty, with stenting if needed, is curative and first-line. In atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis, the ASTRAL and CORAL trials showed no added benefit of routine stenting over medical therapy, so optimal medical therapy with antihypertensives, ACE inhibitors or ARBs with caution in bilateral stenosis, statins, antiplatelet therapy and risk-factor control is the cornerstone; revascularization is reserved for refractory hypertension, recurrent flash pulmonary oedema, acute kidney injury, or severe bilateral/solitary-kidney disease, and may be endovascular or surgical. Surgical revascularization is considered for selected atherosclerotic lesions, such as long-segment or complex stenosis, or failed endovascular therapy. In Takayasu arteritis, immunosuppression to achieve remission precedes angioplasty or bypass.
How this answer will be evaluated
Framework: Clinical Sequence (Definition > Aetiology > Features > Investigation > Management)
What earns full marks: Precise clinical differentiation, protocol-specific management, and accurate diagnostic hierarchy.
Evaluation rubric
Each sub-part is marked on its own, against the marks and word limit printed on the paper.
- (a)(i) Differentiate ALL and AML using peripheral smear and bone marrow findings. 10 marks
compare— paired headings or point-wise contrast → key differences → significance → conclusion
Must cover
- Lineage-based differentiation: FAB morphology (ALL L1–L3; AML M0–M7) plus WHO immunophenotype/cytogenetics
- ALL: lymphoblasts with high N:C ratio, scant agranular cytoplasm, condensed chromatin; no Auer rods; TdT positive
- AML: myeloblasts with more cytoplasm, nucleoli, granules, Auer rods; MPO and SBB positive; CD13/CD33
- Marrow hypercellular; ≥20% blasts (WHO 2022: no cut-off for AML with defining genetic abnormalities); flow cytometry markers; cytogenetics (Ph in ALL; t(8;21)/inv(16) in AML)
Loses marks
- Listing symptoms without morphological basis
- Confusing markers between lineages
Earns more
- Cytogenetic abnormalities (Philadelphia chromosome)
- Flow cytometry details
- Peripheral smear specific features
Extra mark
- Reference to WHO classification criteria
- (a)(ii) Outline standard of care for ALL in adults and children. 15 marks
describe— define → structure or process in order → labelled diagram → significance
Must cover
- Risk- and MRD-guided therapy; children: induction (vincristine, steroid, pegaspargase ± anthracycline)
- Consolidation, delayed intensification, CNS prophylaxis (intrathecal methotrexate), maintenance (6-MP + methotrexate)
- Adults: paediatric-inspired (AYA) or hyper-CVAD; blinatumomab in consolidation; Ph+ ALL with TKI (imatinib/dasatinib/ponatinib); allo-HSCT for high-risk/MRD+
- Relapsed/refractory B-ALL: blinatumomab, inotuzumab, CAR-T (tisagenlecleucel) as bridge to transplant
Loses marks
- Management without phase-wise priority
- Ignoring age-specific differences
Earns more
- Stem cell transplant indications
- Central nervous system prophylaxis
- Risk stratification (low/intermediate/high)
Extra mark
- Mention of specific trial protocols (e.g., COG, NCCN)
- (b) List NIS vaccines, define AEFI, and state adverse events of three vaccines. 15 marks
enumerate— list the items in order → one line each → no commentary
Must cover
- NIS vaccines with schedule: BCG, OPV/bOPV, fIPV, HepB birth dose, pentavalent, rotavirus, PCV, MR, JE, DPT boosters, Td
- Live attenuated vs inactivated/subunit/conjugate classification
- AEFI definition (any untoward occurrence, causally related or not) and WHO cause-specific classification
- AEFIs of three vaccines: DPT (local abscess, HHE, encephalopathy); MR (fever, febrile seizures, thrombocytopenia); OPV (VAPP)
Loses marks
- Listing vaccines without specific adverse events
- Vague definition of AEFI
Earns more
- Schedule timing (birth, 6 weeks, etc.)
- Specific side effects (fever, swelling, seizures)
- Mention of contraindications
Extra mark
- Reference to National Immunization Schedule (NIS) guidelines
- (c) Discuss diagnostic approach and curative management of renovascular hypertension. 10 marks
discuss— intro → 3-4 dimensions → example → balanced close
Must cover
- Clinical clues: onset <30 or >55 years, resistant HTN, abdominal bruit, flash pulmonary oedema, unexplained kidney injury
- Screening Doppler; confirmation CTA/MRA; catheter angiography gold standard
- FMD: PTRA (± stent) curative and first-line
- Atherosclerotic RAS: optimal medical therapy first (ASTRAL/CORAL), revascularization only for refractory HTN/flash oedema/AKI/severe bilateral disease; surgery in selected cases
Loses marks
- Focusing only on medical management
- Ignoring diagnostic hierarchy
Earns more
- Renin levels and lab findings
- Medical management (ACE inhibitors/ARBs)
- Indications for intervention
Extra mark
- Mention of specific surgical procedures (aortorenal bypass)
What "Differentiate" is asking you to do
Fix the criteria on which the two differ and apply each criterion to both, so the pair can no longer be mixed up. Differentiate stems usually carry a further task attached — describe the mechanism, set out the principles, discuss the applications — and that task carries its own marks.
Structure that answers it
Criterion 1 applied to both → criterion 2 → criterion 3 → summary line or table → the attached second demand answered in full
Where marks are lost
Two standalone definitions placed side by side, leaving the reader to extract the difference. The second common loss is running out of space before the attached task, which is often worth as much as the differentiation.
Practice this exact question
Write your answer and it is marked point by point against the model answer above — what you covered, what you missed, what you got wrong.
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