GS Paper I of the 2023 Preliminary examination, held on 28 May 2023. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 20, Environment & Ecology 17, Polity & Governance 14, Geography 13, History 13, General Science 11, Current Events 10.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Consider the following statements : 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: the Jhelum flows into and out of Wular Lake in the Kashmir valley, India's largest freshwater lake, which acts as a natural flood-absorption basin.
Consider the following pairs : Port : Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam Port : Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Kamarajar Port at Ennore, Tamil Nadu, was the first major port in India to be incorporated as a company (1999) rather than run by a port trust.
Consider the following trees : 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Deciduous trees shed all their leaves in the dry season; evergreens keep foliage year-round. Mahua (Madhuca indica), a tree of the central Indian dry deciduous forests valued for its flowers and oil, is deciduous.
Consider the following statements : 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: India has about 156 million hectares of arable land, the second-largest in the world, more than China's roughly 120 million hectares despite China's larger total area.
Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Rann of Kutch in Gujarat was once a shallow arm of the Arabian Sea; repeated falls in sea level, silting by the Indus and Luni systems and tectonic uplift (notably after the 1819 earthquake) turned it into the vast salt marsh seen today.
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Ilmenite (FeTiO₃) and rutile (TiO₂) are the principal ores of titanium, found in the beach placer sands of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh along with monazite, zircon and garnet.
About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Democratic Republic of the Congo produces roughly 70–75% of the world's cobalt, mainly as a by-product of copper mining in the Katanga copperbelt around Kolwezi and Lubumbashi.
Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Congo Basin, the world's second-largest rainforest after the Amazon, spans six countries: Cameroon, the Central African Republic, the Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
Consider the following statements : 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Amarkantak plateau, source of the Narmada and Son, lies where the Vindhya and Satpura ranges meet — the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) is far to the south-west.
With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements : 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the East–West Corridor (Silchar to Porbandar) is part of the National Highways Development Project's North-South and East-West Corridors, a separate component from the Golden Quadrilateral, and it does not connect Dibrugarh with Surat.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II : Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: coal-fired plants supply about 70% of India's electricity, while nuclear power contributes only around 3%, despite uranium deposits at Jaduguda (Jharkhand), Tummalapalle (Andhra Pradesh) and elsewhere.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Marsupials — pouched mammals such as kangaroos, koalas, wombats and opossums — occur naturally only in Australasia and the Americas; none is native to India, so Statement-I is correct.
'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of experts under the Species Survival Commission of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Honeybees communicate the location of food through the 'waggle dance', decoded by Karl von Frisch, who won the 1973 Nobel Prize for the discovery.
Consider the following statements : 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Mushrooms are the fruiting bodies of fungi and show a remarkable range of chemistry. Medicinal: shiitake, reishi and Cordyceps are used in traditional medicine and modern research for immune and anti-tumour compounds — statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels : 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Indian squirrels — the palm squirrels (Funambulus) and giant squirrels (Ratufa) — are arboreal: they build nests (dreys) of leaves and twigs in trees or roof spaces, not burrows in the ground, so statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Extremophiles are microorganisms adapted to conditions lethal to most life. Hyperthermophiles such as Methanopyrus kandleri grow at 100–122 °C in deep-sea hydrothermal vents, where pressure keeps water liquid above its normal boiling point — statement 1 is correct.
Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Tool use is a hallmark of the great apes; orangutans in Sumatra have been observed stripping sticks to probe tree holes and logs for insects and honey, and to extract seeds from Neesia fruit.
Consider the following : 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) replaced ozone-depleting CFCs and HCFCs but are potent greenhouse gases, now being phased down under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II : InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — InvITs pool investor money into revenue-earning infrastructure such as toll roads, power lines and pipelines, and must distribute at least 90% of cash flows to unit-holders.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — After the pandemic, supply disruptions, stimulus spending and the Ukraine war pushed inflation to multi-decade highs; from 2022 the US Federal Reserve, ECB, Bank of England, RBI and others raised policy rates sharply — Statement-I is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement-I is correct: carbon markets — emissions trading systems and carbon-credit markets under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement — are spreading rapidly (EU ETS, China's national ETS, India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023) and are seen as a central tool for cutting emissions at least cost.
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Sterilisation is the RBI's practice of offsetting the effect of its foreign-exchange interventions on domestic money supply.
Consider the following markets : 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Financial markets are divided by maturity: the money market deals in funds for up to one year, the capital market in long-term funds of more than a year.
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
UPSC's answer: (b) — 'Small Farmer Large Field' (SFLF) is a model in which neighbouring smallholders keep their own land but organise into groups and synchronise operations — sowing, variety choice, irrigation, pest control and harvest — so that many small plots function like one large field — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Niger (ramtil) is a minor oilseed grown mainly by tribal farmers on marginal hill soils in Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. Statement 1 is correct: niger seed is among the 22 crops for which the Government announces a Minimum Support Price each year.
Consider the investments in the following assets : 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Intangible assets have no physical form but yield value: brand recognition, patents, copyrights, trademarks, software, goodwill and customer databases. Brand recognition (item 1), intellectual property (item 3) and a mailing list of clients (item 4) are all intangible investments.
Consider the following : 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 15th Finance Commission's horizontal devolution formula (2021–26) uses six criteria: income distance (45%), population 2011 (15%), area (15%), forest and ecology (10%), demographic performance (12.5%) and tax and fiscal efforts (2.5%).
Consider the following infrastructure sectors : 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The UN Office for Project Services runs the Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative to attract private capital into infrastructure that advances the SDGs in developing countries.
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Due process of law', an American doctrine, requires that a law depriving a person of life or liberty must itself be just, fair and reasonable — courts examine both the procedure and the substance of the law.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement-I is correct: 'Prisons' is Entry 4 of the State List, so each State Government runs its prisons under its own prison manual and rules.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The chief purpose of a constitution, in the constitutionalist tradition, is to define the powers of government and to limit them — establishing what the State may do and protecting citizens from arbitrary rule — option (c).
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India : 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A constitutional body is one created by the Constitution itself; a statutory body is created by an Act of Parliament. The National Commission for Backward Classes became a constitutional body under Article 338B through the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 — item 1 qualifies.
Consider the following statements : 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: Article 71(2) provides that if the President's election is declared void, acts done in the exercise of the office before the decision are not invalidated.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — A Money Bill (Article 110) deals only with taxation, borrowing and Consolidated Fund matters; a Finance Bill contains those plus other provisions, and Finance Bills of categories II and III are treated like ordinary bills in the Rajya Sabha.
Consider the following statements : Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Community Reserves were created by the 2002 amendment to the Wild Life (Protection) Act (Section 36C) for private or community land where people voluntarily conserve wildlife; the State Government, not the Centre, notifies them.
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements : 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: under paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule, the President by order declares an area to be a Scheduled Area, and may alter it after consulting the Governor.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Article 335 says the claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration 'consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration' in appointments. Statement-I is correct: in Indra Sawhney (1992), M.
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Dhanyakataka (modern Dharanikota–Amaravati) on the lower Krishna in Andhra was a Satavahana capital and a great Buddhist centre from the 3rd century BCE.
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: burial mounds over the remains of chieftains and holy men existed in Vedic and pre-Buddhist India; Buddhism adopted and elaborated the stupa rather than inventing it.
With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
UPSC's answer: (b) — Sangam literature and Greco-Roman sources describe a flourishing maritime trade from the Tamil coast around the 1st–3rd centuries CE.
Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Vattakirutal (vadakkiruttal, 'facing north') was a heroic Sangam-age custom in which a king who suffered defeat or dishonour in battle sat facing north with his sword and fasted to death to preserve his honour — option (d).
Consider the following dynasties : 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
UPSC's answer: (d) — All four dynasties belong to the early medieval period after the 10th century, not the early 8th century. The Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra rose in the 11th century and became independent of the Chalukyas under Vishnuvardhana (c. 1110); the Gahadavalas of Kanauj were founded by Chandradeva around 1090.
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs : Literary work Author 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: the Hammira-Mahakavya, on the Chauhan king Hammira of Ranthambore, was written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri (15th century). Pair 4 is correct: the Nitivakyamrita, a treatise on polity, is by the Jain author Somadeva Suri (10th century).
"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Jainism holds that jiva (soul) pervades not only animals and plants but also the elements — earth, water, fire, air — so that rocks, running water and even wind are 'one-sensed' living beings.
Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Devaraya I (1406–1422) of the Sangama dynasty faced water scarcity at Vijayanagara and, as the chronicler Nuniz records, built a large dam across the Tungabhadra and a long canal-cum-aqueduct carrying water to the capital, which also boosted irrigation and revenue — option (a).
Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Bahadur Shah of Gujarat (1526–1537), hard pressed by Humayun's invasion in 1535, sought Portuguese help; having already ceded Bassein by the Treaty of Bassein (1534), he allowed them in 1535 to build a fort at Diu, which thus passed into Portuguese control — option (c).
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India, with full civil and military authority over all British territories in India; Lord William Bentinck was the first — option (d).
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Janani Suraksha Yojana (2005) is a safe-motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission, a Central scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, implemented through States — so statement 1, calling it a State Health Department scheme, is wrong.
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Anaemia Mukt Bharat (2018) uses a '6x6x6' strategy — six interventions, six target groups, six institutional mechanisms — to cut anaemia among children, adolescents and women. Statement 1 is wrong: the supplementation provided is prophylactic iron and folic acid (IFA), not calcium.
Consider the following statements : 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Carbon fibre — thin strands of carbon woven and set in resin — is exceptionally strong and light, which is why it is used in aircraft fuselages and wings (e.g. Boeing 787, Airbus A350), racing and luxury car bodies, and sports equipment — statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following actions : 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
UPSC's answer: (c) — An accelerometer is a micro-electromechanical sensor that measures acceleration (change in velocity) along one or more axes, including the constant pull of gravity. Airbag systems use accelerometers to detect the sudden deceleration of a crash and fire the airbag within milliseconds (action 1).
With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements : 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — A Recirculating Aquaculture System reuses water in tanks by passing it through mechanical filters, biofilters and oxygenation before returning it to the fish.
Consider the following pairs : Objects in space : Description 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pair 3 is correct: pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars, the collapsed cores left when massive stars exhaust their fuel and explode as supernovae; they emit beams of radiation like a lighthouse.
Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS, 'Michibiki'), a regional navigation constellation that augments GPS over Japan and the Asia-Oceania region — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 reverses the facts: ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the boost phase and then follow an unpowered, arcing trajectory, often at hypersonic speed; cruise missiles are jet-propelled throughout their flight at low altitude, usually subsonic or supersonic.
Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution : 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: artisanal and small-scale gold mining, which uses mercury to amalgamate gold, is the single largest source of mercury pollution globally under the Minamata Convention's assessments.
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Green hydrogen, produced by electrolysis with renewable power, is a versatile energy carrier. Statement 1 is correct: hydrogen can be burnt directly in modified internal-combustion engines; manufacturers such as Toyota and Indian firms have demonstrated hydrogen ICE vehicles.
Consider the following countries : 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Ukraine borders seven countries: Russia, Belarus, Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania and Moldova. Of the listed countries, Hungary (in the Transcarpathian west) and Romania (along the south-west and the Danube delta) share land borders with Ukraine — items 3 and 6.
With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Option (c) is correct: the infrared part of solar radiation is largely absorbed by water vapour, which is concentrated in the lower troposphere, along with carbon dioxide; this is a key part of the greenhouse effect.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-II is correct: in the hot, humid conditions of tropical rainforests, dead leaves and organic matter decompose within weeks, releasing nutrients rapidly.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-II is correct: water has a higher specific heat than land, so it warms and cools more slowly. Statement-I is incorrect: because land heats and cools faster, the temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greatest in winter, when continental interiors become bitterly cold while…
Consider the following statements : 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Earthquakes generate body waves of two kinds: P (primary) waves and S (secondary) waves. Statement 1 is correct: P waves travel faster (about 6 km/s in the crust versus 3.5 km/s for S waves), so they reach a seismograph first — hence 'primary'.
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: coastal plants such as Tata Power's Mundra UMPP, Adani's Mundra plant and NTPC Simhadri use seawater for cooling.
'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Wolbachia is a bacterium that lives naturally in many insects; when introduced into Aedes aegypti mosquitoes it blocks the replication of dengue, Zika, chikungunya and yellow-fever viruses inside them.
Consider the following activities : 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
UPSC's answer: (c) — All three activities are proposed carbon dioxide removal or storage techniques. Spreading finely ground basalt on farmland is 'enhanced rock weathering': the rock reacts with CO₂ and rainwater to form bicarbonates that are locked away in soils and oceans (activity 1).
'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Metagenomics sequences all the genetic material in an environmental sample at once, without culturing individual organisms.
'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Microsatellites (short tandem repeats) are stretches of DNA in which a short motif of 1–6 bases is repeated many times; the number of repeats varies greatly between individuals and populations.
Consider the following statements with reference to India : 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: under the revised criteria notified in 2020 under the MSMED Act, a medium enterprise is one with investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore (raised further in 2025); the ₹15–25 crore figure is not the definition.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A central bank digital currency (CBDC) is a digital form of a country's sovereign currency issued directly by its central bank.
In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to
UPSC's answer: (d) — In finance, 'beta' is a number that measures how much a stock's returns move relative to the overall market: a beta of 1 moves with the market, above 1 is more volatile, below 1 less volatile — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the SHG–Bank Linkage Programme was initiated by NABARD in 1992 as a pilot, building on MYRADA's experience, not by the State Bank of India.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II : Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement-I is correct: India's public health spending and infrastructure have historically been skewed towards hospitals and curative care, with preventive, promotive and rehabilitative services under-provided — a gap the 2017 National Health Policy and Health and Wellness Centres seek to close.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: the UN World Water Development Report 2022 notes that India is the world's largest groundwater user, accounting for over a quarter of global withdrawals.
Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: Article 355 makes it the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.
Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Somalia in the Horn of Africa has endured civil war since the collapse of the Siad Barre regime in 1991, with al-Shabaab insurgency, clan conflict and weak central government.
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 requires every local body to set up a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) to document local biodiversity in People's Biodiversity Registers and to conserve it.
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India : 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is wrong: only elected members of both Houses of Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies (plus Delhi and Puducherry) form the Electoral College; nominated members are excluded.
With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
UPSC's answer: (a) — All five were archaeologists or antiquarians of the colonial period who excavated and recorded South Indian sites — option (a). Alexander Rea excavated Adichanallur and Amaravati; A.H.
Consider the following pairs : Site : Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: Bhaja near Lonavala in Maharashtra has 2nd-century BCE Buddhist rock-cut chaityas and viharas of the Hinayana phase. Pair 3 is correct: Sittanavasal in Tamil Nadu is a Jain cave temple famous for its Pandya-period murals of lotus ponds.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement-I is correct: 7 August is celebrated as National Handloom Day, first observed in 2015. Statement-II is correct: on 7 August 1905 a meeting at Calcutta Town Hall formally launched the Swadeshi Movement against the partition of Bengal, calling for the boycott of foreign goods and the…
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 : Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-II is correct: the Flag Code of India, 2002 prescribes that the National Flag shall be rectangular with a length-to-height ratio of 3:2.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: since 2015 the Government has observed 26 November as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) to promote constitutional values, marking the day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution in 1949.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: Switzerland is the world's largest exporter of gold by value because most of the world's gold is refined there (Valcambi, PAMP, Argor-Heraeus) before being re-exported, chiefly to India and China.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: the US and the EU launched the Trade and Technology Council in June 2021 to coordinate on trade, technology standards, export controls, AI and supply chains.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-I is incorrect: India's share of global merchandise exports is about 1.8% (WTO data); the 3.2% figure is not correct for goods.
Consider the following statements : The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Stability and Growth Pact (1997) is the EU's fiscal rulebook for members, especially those using the euro. Statement 1 is correct: it limits budget deficits to 3% of GDP and public debt to 60% of GDP, with corrective procedures for breaches.
Consider the following statements : 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Global Compact for Migration was adopted at Marrakesh in December 2018 and endorsed by the UN General Assembly with 152 votes in favour; the United States, Hungary, Israel, Poland and the Czech Republic voted against and several abstained — so statement 1 ('all the countries') is wrong.
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Home Guards are a voluntary force first raised in Bombay in 1946 and reorganised after the 1962 war. Statement 1 is wrong: 'police' being a State subject, Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Acts and Rules of the respective States and Union Territories; the Centre only lays down model…
With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Action : The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 penalises the unauthorised use of uniforms, including police and military uniforms, and impersonation of officials.
Consider the following pairs : Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pair 1 is wrong: North Kivu and Ituri are provinces of the eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo, in the news for M23 and ADF militia violence — not the Armenia–Azerbaijan war.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II : The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement-I is correct: Israel has diplomatic relations with Egypt (1979), Jordan (1994) and, under the 2020 Abraham Accords, the UAE, Bahrain, Morocco and Sudan.
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, India's highest sporting honour, is given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance over the preceding four years. Pair 3 is correct: the Dronacharya Award honours coaches who have produced medal-winning sportspersons or teams.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 : 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named 'Thambi'. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 44th Chess Olympiad was held at Mamallapuram near Chennai from 28 July to 10 August 2022 — the first time India hosted the event (statement 1 correct), after it was moved from Russia. Statement 2 is correct: the mascot was a knight in a veshti named 'Thambi' ('younger brother' in Tamil).
Consider the following pairs : Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located 1. Donbas : Syria 2. Kachin : Ethiopia 3. Tigray : North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pair 1 is wrong: Donbas is the industrial region of eastern Ukraine (Donetsk and Luhansk) at the centre of the Russia–Ukraine war, not in Syria. Pair 2 is wrong: Kachin is a state in northern Myanmar where the Kachin Independence Army fights the junta, not in Ethiopia.
In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Chad (2021, military takeover after President Déby's death), Guinea (September 2021), Mali (2020 and 2021) and Sudan (October 2021) all experienced successful military coups within about a year of each other — option (d).
Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Green hydrogen is targeted at 'hard-to-abate' industries that already use hydrogen or need high-temperature processes. Fertiliser plants use hydrogen (now made from natural gas) to make ammonia; switching to green hydrogen decarbonises urea production (item 1).
Consider the following statements about G-20 : 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: the G20 was founded in 1999, after the Asian financial crisis, as a forum of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the major economies; it was raised to leaders' level only in 2008 after the global financial crisis.
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