UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper — GS & CSAT with Answers

UPSC held the 2023 Preliminary examination on 28 May 2023 — GS Paper I from 9:30 to 11:30 am and CSAT from 2:30 to 4:30 pm. 175 questions from that day are below, each with the Commission's official answer and our explanation of why the other three options fail.

General Studies Paper I

98 questions

Economy 20 · Environment & Ecology 17 · Polity & Governance 14 · Geography 13 · History 13 · General Science 11 · Current Events 10

  1. Q1 Consider the following statements : 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How…
  2. Q2 Consider the following pairs : Port : Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India 3…
  3. Q3 Consider the following trees : 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?
  4. Q4 Consider the following statements : 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average…
  5. Q5 Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
  6. Q6 Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
  7. Q7 About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
  8. Q8 Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
  9. Q9 Consider the following statements : 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura…
  10. Q10 With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements : 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2…
  11. Q11 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II : Uranium, enriched…
  12. Q12 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators…
  13. Q13 Invasive Species Specialist 'Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
  14. Q15 Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
  15. Q16 Consider the following statements : 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties…
  16. Q17 Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels : 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in…
  17. Q18 Consider the following statements : 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in…
  18. Q19 Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
  19. Q20 Consider the following : 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
  20. Q21 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from…
  21. Q22 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II : Central Banks…
  22. Q23 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II : Carbon…
  23. Q24 Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
  24. Q25 Consider the following markets : 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?
  25. Q26 Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
  26. Q27 Consider the following statements : 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3…
  27. Q28 Consider the investments in the following assets : 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered…
  28. Q29 Consider the following : 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution…
  29. Q30 Consider the following infrastructure sectors : 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable…
  30. Q31 In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
  31. Q32 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of…
  32. Q33 Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
  33. Q35 Consider the following organizations/bodies in India : 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4…
  34. Q36 Consider the following statements : 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of…
  35. Q37 With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can…
  36. Q38 Consider the following statements : Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority…
  37. Q39 With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements : 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of…
  38. Q40 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution…
  39. Q41 In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
  40. Q42 With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a…
  41. Q43 With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
  42. Q44 Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
  43. Q45 Consider the following dynasties : 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
  44. Q46 With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs : Literary work Author 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 3…
  45. Q47 "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The…
  46. Q48 Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the…
  47. Q49 Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
  48. Q50 By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
  49. Q51 Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce…
  50. Q52 Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for…
  51. Q53 Consider the following statements : 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled…
  52. Q54 Consider the following actions : 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a…
  53. Q55 With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements : 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish…
  54. Q56 Consider the following pairs : Objects in space : Description 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars…
  55. Q57 Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
  56. Q58 Consider the following statements : 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the…
  57. Q59 Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution : 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause…
  58. Q60 With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used…
  59. Q61 Consider the following countries : 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with…
  60. Q62 With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
  61. Q63 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests…
  62. Q64 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II : The specific heat…
  63. Q65 Consider the following statements : 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of…
  64. Q66 With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed…
  65. Q67 ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
  66. Q68 Consider the following activities : 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon…
  67. Q69 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
  68. Q70 'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?
  69. Q71 Consider the following statements with reference to India : 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are…
  70. Q72 With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT…
  71. Q73 In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to
  72. Q74 Consider the following statements : 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially…
  73. Q75 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative…
  74. Q76 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's…
  75. Q77 Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution…
  76. Q78 Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
  77. Q79 Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity…
  78. Q80 Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India : 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of…
  79. Q81 With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
  80. Q82 Consider the following pairs : Site : Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine How many of the above…
  81. Q83 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the…
  82. Q84 Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 : Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag…
  83. Q85 Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional…
  84. Q86 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold…
  85. Q87 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'…
  86. Q88 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in…
  87. Q89 Consider the following statements : The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the…
  88. Q90 Consider the following statements : 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for…
  89. Q91 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home…
  90. Q92 With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Action : The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets…
  91. Q93 Consider the following pairs : Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh…
  92. Q94 Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II : The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi…
  93. Q95 Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over…
  94. Q96 Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 : 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named…
  95. Q97 Consider the following pairs : Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located 1. Donbas : Syria 2. Kachin : Ethiopia 3. Tigray : North Yemen How many of the…
  96. Q98 In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
  97. Q99 Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of…
  98. Q100 Consider the following statements about G-20 : 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the…

CSAT Paper II

77 questions

Comprehension 27 · Mental Ability 19 · Basic Numeracy 19 · Logical Reasoning 7 · Data Interpretation 5

  1. Q1 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different…
  2. Q2 Which one of the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage ?
  3. Q3 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  4. Q4 Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair…
  5. Q5 In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots ?
  6. Q6 There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the…
  7. Q7 What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100 ?
  8. Q8 What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)9×7×5×3×1 ?
  9. Q9 If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111, then what is the value of A + B + C + D + E + F ?
  10. Q10 D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the…
  11. Q11 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  12. Q12 Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage ?
  13. Q13 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
  14. Q14 Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following : 1. p + q + r - s - t is definitely even. 2…
  15. Q15 Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c. 1. (p + c)/(p - c) can be even. 2. 2p + c can be odd. 3. pc can be odd. Which of the statements given…
  16. Q16 A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A + B + C ?
  17. Q17 For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by :
  18. Q18 125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of a cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side ?
  19. Q19 How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions ?
  20. Q20 A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone works on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C alone works on Wednesday; A alone…
  21. Q21 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage ?
  22. Q22 Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above ?
  23. Q23 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage ?
  24. Q24 If 7 ⊕ 9 ⊕ 10 = 8, 9 ⊕ 11 ⊕ 30 = 5, 11 ⊕ 17 ⊕ 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 ⊕ 4 ⊕ 15 ?
  25. Q25 Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible ?
  26. Q26 If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + s) ?
  27. Q27 A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13 ?
  28. Q28 Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number ?
  29. Q29 What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100 ?
  30. Q30 ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as…
  31. Q31 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. 2. Resource…
  32. Q32 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
  33. Q33 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers. 2. Farmers and consumers need to be…
  34. Q34 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  35. Q35 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture…
  36. Q36 A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements : 1. The smallest number n such…
  37. Q37 If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written ?
  38. Q38 Consider the following statements : 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. How many statements…
  39. Q39 Consider the following including the Question and the Statements : There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question : What is the relation of E to B ? Statement-1 : A and B…
  40. Q40 Choose the group which is different from the others :
  41. Q41 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. 2. Early spring and…
  42. Q42 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage ?
  43. Q43 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage ?
  44. Q44 A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual…
  45. Q45 How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers ?
  46. Q46 Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr = tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the following statements : 1. The number of…
  47. Q47 What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated ?
  48. Q48 What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction ?
  49. Q49 If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 10¹⁰ th day ?
  50. Q50 There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and…
  51. Q51 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  52. Q52 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message conveyed by the passage ?
  53. Q53 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
  54. Q54 40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4…
  55. Q55 What is the middle term of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W, ..., A ?
  56. Q56 Question : Is p greater than q ? Statement-1 : p × q is greater than zero. Statement-2 : p² is greater than q². Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above…
  57. Q57 Question : Is (p + q - r) greater than (p - q + r), where p, q and r are integers ? Statement-1 : (p - q) is positive. Statement-2 : (p - r) is negative. Which one of the…
  58. Q59 Consider a 3-digit number. Question : What is the number ? Statement-1 : The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. Statement-2 : The number is…
  59. Q60 For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e; any two successive ages differ by 2 years. Question : What is the age of the youngest child ? Statement-1 : The age of the eldest is…
  60. Q61 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the above passage ?
  61. Q62 Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best reflect the solutions that are implied by the passage ? 1. A flexible environment is…
  62. Q63 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public's purchasing power in accessing…
  63. Q64 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy. 2. There is a fundamental…
  64. Q65 In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different…
  65. Q66 A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal stripes using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done so that…
  66. Q67 A rectangular floor measures 4 m in length and 2·2 m in breadth. Tiles of size 140 cm by 60 cm have to be laid such that the tiles do not overlap. A tile can be placed in any…
  67. Q68 There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how many…
  68. Q70 Consider the following : I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. II. A - B means A is not greater than B. III. A × B means A is not smaller than B. IV. A ÷ B means A…
  69. Q71 Which one of the following statements most likely reflects as to what the author of the passage intends to say ?
  70. Q72 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, logical and practical message conveyed by the passage ?
  71. Q73 Based on the above passage, which one of the following terms best expresses the ultimate goal of the state ?
  72. Q74 What is the remainder if 2^192 is divided by 6 ?
  73. Q75 Consider the sequence ABC_ _ ABC_ DABBCD_ ABCD that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence ?
  74. Q76 AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I…
  75. Q77 Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false. True Statement : One of P and Q was selected…
  76. Q78 Let P, Q, R, S and T be five statements such that : I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Which of the following can be concluded…
  77. Q79 A cuboid of dimensions 7 cm × 5 cm × 3 cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7 cm × 5 cm, 5 cm × 3 cm, 7 cm × 3 cm respectively…

Question papers and answer keys: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check.