Law 2024 Paper I 50 marks 150 words Compulsory Critically examine

Paper I — Q1

(a) Examine the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters. (10…

Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a)

Examine the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters. 10 marks

(b)

The Parliament or any State Legislature should keep within the domain assigned to it and not encroach upon the other's subject. Critically examine. 10 marks

(c)

"Every person who is a member of civil service of the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President." Is there any exception to this rule? Describe. 10 marks

(d)

The Indian Constitution permits delegation but imposes specific restrictions to ensure alignment with the Parent Act and protect legislative intent. Examine with illustrations. 10 marks

(e)

"A law is void only to the extent of inconsistency or contravention with the relevant Fundamental Right." Explain with the help of decided cases. 10 marks

हिंदी में प्रश्न पढ़ें

निम्नलिखित प्रत्येक प्रश्न का उत्तर लगभग 150 शब्दों में दीजिए :

(a)

उच्च न्यायालयों से आपराधिक मामलों में आने वाली अपीलों के संबंध में उच्चतम न्यायालय की अपीलीय अधिकारिता का परीक्षण कीजिए। (10 अंक)

(b)

संसद अथवा किसी राज्य विधायिका को अपने निर्धारित कार्यक्षेत्र में ही रहना चाहिए तथा अन्यों के विषयक्षेत्र में अतिक्रमण नहीं करना चाहिए। आलोचनात्मक परीक्षण कीजिए। (10 अंक)

(c)

"प्रत्येक व्यक्ति, जो संघ की सिविल सेवा का सदस्य है, राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत पद धारित करता है।" क्या इस नियम का कोई अपवाद है? वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक)

(d)

भारतीय संविधान प्रत्यायोजन की अनुमति तो देता है, लेकिन साथ ही मूल विधि से सरेखन एवं विधायी आशय को सुरक्षित रखने हेतु विशेष प्रतिबंध भी आरोपित करता है। दृष्टांतों की सहायता से परीक्षण कीजिए। (10 अंक)

(e)

"सुसंगत मूलभूत अधिकार के उल्लंघन में अथवा असंगत होने की सीमा तक ही कोई विधि शून्य होगी।" निर्णीत वादों की सहायता से स्पष्ट कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Q1 of the 2024 UPSC Mains Law Paper I, as printed
The question as printed in the 2024 Law paper

Model answer

Drafted with AI by UPSC Answer Check against this question's marking rubric, to the 150-word length. UPSC does not publish answers for Mains — this is one way to score well, not an official key. How we build rubrics and answers.

(a) The Supreme Court's criminal appellate jurisdiction over the High Courts comes from four constitutional routes and one statutory route.

  • Article 134(1)(a) and (b), appeal as of right: where the High Court, on appeal, has reversed an order of acquittal and sentenced the accused to death; or has withdrawn a case from a subordinate court, tried it itself, convicted the accused and sentenced them to death.
  • Article 134(1)(c), appeal on certificate: where the High Court certifies that the case is fit for appeal. The certificate must rest on a substantial question of law or principle, not on mere appreciation of facts (Haripada Dey v. State of W.B. (1956)). Under Article 134A, the High Court may grant it on its own motion, or on an oral application made immediately after the judgment.
  • Article 134(2): Parliament may enlarge the jurisdiction. The Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act, 1970 gives an appeal as of right where the High Court reverses an acquittal and sentences the accused to imprisonment for life or for ten years or more. Section 420 of the BNSS (formerly Section 379 of the CrPC) mirrors this.
  • Article 132: an appeal lies in any criminal proceeding if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
  • Article 136, special leave: this is a residuary discretionary power. It is exercised sparingly in criminal cases, only where there is grave or substantial injustice, a disregard of legal procedure, or a perverse finding (Pritam Singh v. State (1950)).

Conclusion: the scheme is deliberately narrow. The Supreme Court is not a regular court of criminal appeal; Article 136 is its main gateway.

(b) Article 246, read with the Seventh Schedule, divides legislative power: the Union List for Parliament exclusively, the State List for the States, and the Concurrent List for both, with Union law prevailing under Article 254. Residuary power lies with Parliament (Article 248; Entry 97, List I). Each legislature must therefore stay within its field.

Doctrines that enforce the boundary

  • Colourable legislation: a legislature cannot do indirectly what it cannot do directly (K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa (1953)).
  • Repugnancy: under Article 254, a State law yields to a Union law on a Concurrent subject, unless it has Presidential assent under Article 254(2).

Why the rule is not absolute

  • Pith and substance: a law is judged by its true nature and character. Incidental trenching on another list does not invalidate it (Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee v. Bank of Commerce (1947, PC); State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara (1951), where prohibition was upheld as a State subject despite its effect on imports).
  • Parliament's power over State subjects: Parliament may legislate on the State List in the national interest on a Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 249), during an Emergency (Article 250), at the request of two or more States (Article 252), to implement treaties (Article 253), and under President's Rule (Article 357).

Assessment: the principle is sound because it protects federalism. However, the Constitution's strong centralising tilt, and the flexible pith-and-substance test, mean the boundary is policed on substance rather than form. Courts read entries widely and harmoniously to avoid conflict.

(c) Article 310(1) embodies the "pleasure doctrine": members of the defence services and the civil services of the Union hold office during the pleasure of the President. The rule applies "except as expressly provided by this Constitution", so it has important exceptions.

  • Constitutional functionaries with protected tenure are removable only in the manner the Constitution prescribes, not at pleasure:
  • Supreme Court and High Court judges (Articles 124(4) and 217–218);
  • the Comptroller and Auditor General (Article 148);
  • the Chief Election Commissioner (Article 324(5));
  • members of the UPSC and State PSCs (Article 317).
  • Contractual compensation (Article 310(2)): a person with special qualifications appointed under a contract may be compensated if the post is abolished, or if they are required to vacate it, before the contract period ends.

Article 311 safeguards:

  • no dismissal or removal by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority (Article 311(1));
  • no dismissal, removal or reduction in rank without an inquiry giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard (Article 311(2)). These protections apply only to penal action (Parshotam Lal Dhingra v. Union of India (1958)).
  • Exceptions to the exceptions (second proviso to Article 311(2)): the inquiry may be dispensed with:
  • on conviction on a criminal charge;
  • where it is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry, for reasons recorded in writing;
  • in the interest of the security of the State.

Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985) upheld these, subject to judicial review for mala fides or irrelevant grounds.

Conclusion: the pleasure is not absolute. It is subject to Article 311, fundamental rights and tenure protections.

(d) Delegated legislation is permitted because modern legislatures cannot provide for every detail. The Constitution does not expressly forbid delegation. The courts, however, impose limits drawn from the separation of powers and from Articles 245–246.

Limits on delegation

  • Essential legislative functions cannot be delegated. The legislature must lay down the policy and standards (In re Delhi Laws Act (1951); Harishankar Bagla v. State of M.P. (1954)).
  • Excessive delegation is void. Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) struck down a provision that let the executive add diseases without any guiding policy. By contrast, Gwalior Rayon v. Assistant Commissioner (1974) upheld the fixing of the rate of tax because the policy was discernible.
  • Removal-of-difficulty ("Henry VIII") clauses cannot authorise the executive to amend the parent Act (Jalan Trading Co. v. Mill Mazdoor Sabha (1967)).
  • Substantive ultra vires: rules must stay within the parent Act and cannot override it or other statutes (Kerala Samsthana Chethu Thozhilali Union v. State of Kerala (2006)). The grounds of challenge are summarised in State of T.N. v. P. Krishnamurthy (2006): lack of power, violation of fundamental rights, conflict with the parent Act or other statutes, and manifest arbitrariness (Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985)).
  • Procedural ultra vires: mandatory consultation or publication must be followed.

Parliamentary control Rules are laid before the Houses, and the Committees on Subordinate Legislation scrutinise them.

Conclusion: delegation is a necessity, but it is controlled by the parent Act and by judicial review, so that the executive fills in details and does not make policy.

(e) Article 13(1) makes pre-Constitution laws void "to the extent of" inconsistency with Part III. Article 13(2) bars the State from making laws that take away or abridge fundamental rights, and makes any such law void "to the extent of the contravention". Three judicial doctrines explain this phrase.

Severability:

  • Only the offending part is struck down if it is separable and the remainder can stand on its own as the legislature would have intended (A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950), where only Section 14 of the Preventive Detention Act was invalidated; R.M.D.C. v. Union of India (1957)).
  • If the valid and invalid parts are inextricably mixed, the whole law falls.
  • A provision that could apply in both valid and invalid ways may be read down.
  • Eclipse: a pre-Constitution law inconsistent with a fundamental right is not dead but eclipsed. It remains valid for past transactions and revives if the right is amended (Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P. (1955)). Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay (1951) held that proceedings for offences committed before 26 January 1950 continue.

Post-Constitution laws:

  • Such a law is void from inception, and eclipse does not apply (Deep Chand v. State of U.P. (1959)).
  • However, a law that violates only rights available to citizens, such as Article 19, is void only as against citizens and remains operative against non-citizens (State of Gujarat v. Ambica Mills (1974)).
  • Mahendra Lal Jaini v. State of U.P. (1963) confirmed that such laws are "still-born" and cannot be revived by a later constitutional amendment.

Conclusion: invalidity is measured by the extent of the conflict, so constitutional supremacy is preserved while the legislature's intent is disturbed no more than necessary.

How this answer will be evaluated

Framework: Issue > Rule: statute or Article > Authority > Application and conclusion

What earns full marks: Precise citation of Articles and cases; clear application of doctrine; balanced analysis.

Evaluation rubric

Each sub-part is marked on its own, against the marks and word limit printed on the paper.

  1. (a) Examine the Supreme Court's appellate jurisdiction over High Courts in criminal matters. 10 marks · 150 words

    examine— intro → how/why with reasoning → evidence → conclusion

    Must cover

    • Article 134(1)(a)–(b) appeals as of right (reversal of acquittal to death; withdrawn case with death sentence)
    • Article 134(1)(c) certificate and Article 134A; substantial question of law
    • Article 134(2) and the 1970 Enlargement Act (life/10 years); BNSS equivalent of CrPC s.379
    • Article 132 constitutional question and Article 136 special leave, exercised sparingly (Pritam Singh)

    Loses marks

    • Treating Article 136 as a right of appeal
    • Missing Article 134

    Earns more

    • Haripada Dey on certificate
    • Recent practice on SLPs in criminal cases

    Extra mark

    • Flow chart of routes
  2. (b) Critically examine the principle that Parliament and State Legislatures must stay within their assigned fields. 10 marks · 150 words

    critically evaluate— positives → negatives/limits → conditions/safeguards → conclusion

    Must cover

    • Article 246 and Seventh Schedule; residuary power (Article 248, Entry 97)
    • Doctrines: pith and substance (Prafulla Kumar, Balsara), colourable legislation (Gajapati Narayan Deo), repugnancy (Article 254)
    • Parliament's power over State List: Articles 249, 250, 252, 253, 356/357
    • Critical assessment: centralising tilt, flexible judicial interpretation, cooperative federalism

    Loses marks

    • Only listing entries
    • No doctrine cited

    Earns more

    • Incidental encroachment and harmonious construction
    • Recent cases (e.g., GST Council decision in Mohit Minerals, 2022)

    Extra mark

    • Chart of lists
  3. (c) Describe exceptions to the pleasure doctrine for Union civil servants. 10 marks · 150 words

    describe— define → structure or process in order → labelled diagram → significance

    Must cover

    • Article 310(1) and its qualification 'except as expressly provided'
    • Constitutional functionaries with protected tenure (judges, CAG, CEC, PSC members)
    • Article 310(2) compensation; Article 311(1) and (2) safeguards (Parshotam Lal Dhingra)
    • Second proviso to Article 311(2) and Tulsiram Patel; judicial review

    Loses marks

    • Claiming pleasure is absolute
    • Missing Article 311

    Earns more

    • Link to Articles 14, 16 and 21
    • Service tribunals

    Extra mark

    • Chart of protections
  4. (d) Examine constitutional limits on delegated legislation with illustrations. 10 marks · 150 words

    examine— intro → how/why with reasoning → evidence → conclusion

    Must cover

    • Permissibility and necessity; no express bar
    • Essential legislative function doctrine (Delhi Laws Act, Harishankar Bagla); excessive delegation (Hamdard Dawakhana) vs guided delegation (Gwalior Rayon)
    • Ultra vires grounds: substantive and procedural; Henry VIII clauses (Jalan Trading)
    • Controls: judicial review (P. Krishnamurthy), laying, committees

    Loses marks

    • No cases
    • Confusing delegation with abdication

    Earns more

    • Conditional legislation
    • Recent cases on subordinate legislation

    Extra mark

    • Chart of controls
  5. (e) Explain, with cases, that a law is void only to the extent of inconsistency with fundamental rights. 10 marks · 150 words

    explain— definition/context → points in order → small example → short close

    Must cover

    • Article 13(1) and (2) text
    • Severability (A.K. Gopalan, R.M.D.C.)
    • Doctrine of eclipse (Bhikaji Narain; Keshavan Madhava Menon)
    • Post-Constitution laws: Deep Chand, Mahendra Lal Jaini; Ambica Mills (citizens vs non-citizens); reading down

    Loses marks

    • No cases
    • Confusing pre- and post-Constitution laws

    Earns more

    • Doctrine of waiver
    • Recent use of severability

    Extra mark

    • Diagram of doctrines
What "Critically examine" is asking you to do

Test the proposition the question puts to you and return a finding on how far it holds. Examine stems carry a claim, or ask whether something has happened, and expect evidence weighed both ways before the extent is stated — often with remedial measures attached. “Critically” is not a section added at the end: name the yardstick you are judging by — the evidence, the stated objective, a constitutional principle, a rival explanation — and let a verdict close each part of the body. Where the question quotes a claim, that verdict must land on the claim itself, accepted, qualified or rejected, and not on the theme in general.

Structure that answers it

Restate the claim as the question frames it → evidence that supports it → evidence that undercuts it → the conditions under which it holds → verdict on how far it stands

Where marks are lost

Merits in one paragraph, demerits in the next, and a conclusion calling for a balanced and holistic approach. That is a survey with the judgement left out and it holds the answer in the middle band. The opposite error is reading “critically” as permission to attack — and with the odd pairings, critically describe or critically explain, the exposition still carries most of the marks, the judgement being a layer on it rather than a substitute for it.

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