Law 2024 Paper II 50 marks Justify

Paper II — Q2

(a) "Justification for introduction of 'plea-bargaining' in India was that it will reduce delay in case of undertrial prisoners…

(a)

"Justification for introduction of 'plea-bargaining' in India was that it will reduce delay in case of undertrial prisoners in a cheaper and quicker method." Do you appreciate its existence in the same form or not ? Justify your answer. 20 marks

(b)

'Intoxication impairs perception and judgement both so one fails to foresee the result of his conduct.' In this backdrop, examine the law relating to the defence of intoxication and refer to the leading cases. 15 marks

(c)

How far do you agree that prevention of corruption Act 1988 is an important legal instrument in curbing corruption in the society. Discuss. What are the types of offences recognised under this law and what are punishments ? 15 marks

हिंदी में प्रश्न पढ़ें
(a)

"भारत में 'सौदा-अभिवाक' को लागू किये जाने का औचित्य यह रहा है कि यह विचाराधीन कैदियों के मामलों में सस्ता एवं शीघ्र विधि (तरीके) से विलम्ब को कम करेगा।" क्या आप इसके प्रचलन (अस्तित्व) के वर्तमान स्वरूप की प्रशंसा करते हैं अथवा नहीं ? अपने उत्तर का औचित्य सिद्ध करें। 20

(b)

'मत्ता (नशा) धारणा (बोध) और निर्णय-क्षमता को क्षीण (कम) करती है, जिससे एक व्यक्ति अपने आचरण (कृत्य) के परिणाम का पूर्वानुमान करने में असफल होता है।' इस पृष्ठभूमि में मत्ता के बचाव संबंधी विधि की समीक्षा कीजिए और निर्देशक वादों को संदर्भित कीजिए। 15

(c)

आप कहाँ तक सहमत हैं कि भ्रष्टाचार निवारण अधिनियम 1988 समाज में भ्रष्टाचार दूर करने में एक महत्वपूर्ण विधिक साधन (अभिकरण) है। विवेचना कीजिए। इस विधि के अंतर्गत मान्य अपराधों के प्रकार क्या हैं और दण्ड क्या हैं ? 15 अंक

Q2 of the 2024 UPSC Mains Law Paper II, as printed
The question as printed in the 2024 Law paper

Model answer

Drafted with AI by UPSC Answer Check against this question's marking rubric, to the expected length. UPSC does not publish answers for Mains — this is one way to score well, not an official key. How we build rubrics and answers.

(a) Plea bargaining was introduced by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 as Chapter XXI-A of the CrPC (Sections 265A–265L). It is now Chapter XXIII of the BNSS (Sections 289–300). It followed the Law Commission's 142nd (1991), 154th (1996) and 177th Reports and the Malimath Committee (2003). The aim was to reduce pendency and the long pre-trial detention of undertrials, who form about three-fourths of India's prison population (NCRB, Prison Statistics). Earlier, courts had disapproved of informal bargains: Murlidhar Meghraj Loya v. State of Maharashtra (1976); Kasambhai Abdulrehmanbhai Sheikh v. State of Gujarat (1980); State of U.P. v. Chandrika (1999).

Present framework

Scope:

  • available for offences punishable with up to 7 years;
  • excluded for offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country and offences against a woman or a child below 14;
  • not available to a person previously convicted of the same offence.

Application and consent:

  • the accused applies voluntarily; under the BNSS, the application must be made within 30 days of the framing of charge;
  • the court examines the accused in camera to ensure voluntariness (Section 290 of the BNSS; Section 265B of the CrPC).
  • Disposition: a "mutually satisfactory disposition", including compensation to the victim, is worked out with the prosecutor and the victim or complainant (Section 291 of the BNSS; Section 265C of the CrPC).

Sentence concession:

  • the court may release the accused on probation or admonition;
  • otherwise it may award half the minimum sentence, or one-fourth of the maximum where no minimum is prescribed;
  • the BNSS adds further concessions for first offenders: one-fourth of the minimum, or one-sixth of the maximum (Section 293).

Finality and safeguards:

  • the judgment is final, with no appeal except by special leave petition under Article 136 or writ jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 227 (Section 294 of the BNSS; Section 265G of the CrPC);
  • statements made by the accused cannot be used for any other purpose (Section 298 of the BNSS; Section 265K of the CrPC).

Should it continue in the same form?

In its favour:

  • it is consensual and supervised by the court;
  • it compensates victims;
  • it reduces the trial burden;
  • it is useful for first offenders and petty crime.

Against its present form:

  • uptake is negligible because of its narrow scope, the absence of incentives for prosecutors, poor awareness, and the stigma of conviction;
  • only sentence bargaining is allowed, with no charge bargaining, so the incentive is limited;
  • the chapter is largely irrelevant to undertrials charged with serious offences, who form the bulk of the prison population;
  • poor accused held in custody risk being pressured into pleading guilty, and the victim's role may delay settlement.

Conclusion: the institution deserves to continue, but not in the same form. Reform should include:

  • structured charge bargaining under judicial control, with guidelines to safeguard voluntariness;
  • mandatory legal aid (Article 39A) and prosecutorial guidelines;
  • time-bound disposal;
  • pairing with the undertrial release provision (Section 479 of the BNSS) and with diversion.

These measures would make plea bargaining an effective tool against delay.

(b) Intoxication can prevent a person from knowing the nature of the act or forming the intention required for an offence. The law distinguishes between involuntary and voluntary intoxication, for reasons of public policy.

  • Involuntary intoxication: IPC Section 85, now Section 23 of the BNS.
  • Nothing is an offence if it is done by a person who, at the time, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that it is wrong or contrary to law, because of intoxication.
  • The intoxication must have been administered without the person's knowledge or against their will.
  • This is a complete defence, similar to insanity.
  • Voluntary intoxication: IPC Section 86, now Section 24 of the BNS.
  • Where an offence requires a particular intention or knowledge, a person voluntarily intoxicated is treated as having the same knowledge as if not intoxicated.
  • There is no presumption of intention, which must be proved from the circumstances.

Leading cases

  • ***Director of Public Prosecutions v. Beard* (1920):** intoxication is a defence only if it rendered the accused incapable of forming the specific intent. Mere proof that the mind was affected, so that the accused more readily gave way to passion, is not enough.
  • ***Basdev v. State of PEPSU* (1956):** a retired jamadar, though drunk, shot a boy at a wedding. The Court applied Section 86 and Beard: he was attributed knowledge that the act was likely to cause death, and he was not so intoxicated as to be incapable of forming the intention (he could move about and talk coherently). His conviction under Section 302 was altered to Section 304 Part II, and the Court held that intention was not presumed and had to be judged on the facts.
  • ***Bablu alias Mubarik Hussain v. State of Rajasthan* (2006):** the Court reiterated that Section 86 creates a presumption of knowledge, not of intention.
  • ***DPP v. Majewski* (1977):** in English law, voluntary intoxication is no defence to crimes of "basic intent"; it may negate "specific intent".
  • ***R v. Kingston* (1994):** involuntary intoxication does not excuse an intent actually formed; the defence works only where intent could not be formed.

Assessment: the statement explains why intoxication can negate the capacity to foresee consequences. The law nevertheless refuses to let voluntary intoxication excuse knowledge-based liability, because a person who chooses to drink bears the risk. Only intoxication so extreme that the specific intent could not be formed, or involuntary intoxication, reduces or removes liability.

(c) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (PCA) consolidated the anti-corruption provisions previously found in the IPC (Sections 161–165A) and the 1947 Act. It widened the definition of "public servant" (Section 2(c)), which covers MPs and MLAs (P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998)).

The 2018 Amendment:

  • recast the offences around the concept of "undue advantage";
  • criminalised bribe-giving and commercial organisations;
  • added attachment and forfeiture of property (Section 18A);
  • introduced the requirement of prior approval before any inquiry or investigation (Section 17A).

Offences and punishments (after 2018)

  • Section 7: a public servant obtaining, accepting or attempting to obtain an undue advantage in order to perform a public duty improperly: 3 to 7 years and fine.
  • Section 7A: using personal influence over a public servant for an undue advantage: 3 to 7 years.
  • Section 8: giving or promising an undue advantage (bribe-giving): up to 7 years, or fine, or both. A person compelled to give a bribe is protected if they report it to the police or an investigating agency within 7 days.
  • Section 9: a commercial organisation whose associated person bribes: fine. The organisation has a defence if it had "adequate procedures" in place.
  • Section 10: persons in charge of a commercial organisation who consent or connive: 3 to 7 years and fine.
  • Section 11: a public servant obtaining an undue advantage without consideration from a person concerned in business with them: 6 months to 5 years.
  • Section 12: abetment: 3 to 7 years.
  • Section 13(1)(a) and (b): criminal misconduct by dishonest or fraudulent misappropriation, or by intentional illicit enrichment (disproportionate assets). Under Section 13(2): 4 to 10 years and fine.
  • Section 14: habitual offenders: 5 to 10 years.
  • Section 15: attempt to commit misconduct: 2 to 5 years.

Procedure

  • Special Judges: cases are tried by Special Judges (Sections 3–4), with trials to be completed within two years as far as possible.
  • Presumption: once acceptance of an undue advantage is proved, a presumption arises against the accused under Section 20.
  • Sanction: prosecution requires sanction under Section 19. Requests for sanction must be decided within time limits (Subramanian Swamy v. Manmohan Singh (2012)).

Why it is an important instrument

  • Its definitions are broad, and it now covers the supply side and corporate liability, in line with the UN Convention against Corruption.
  • The presumption and the power of forfeiture add teeth.
  • Neeraj Dutta v. State (GNCTD) (2022, Constitution Bench) held that demand and acceptance can be proved by circumstantial evidence even if the complainant turns hostile.
  • Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024) held that legislators have no immunity for bribery.

Limitations

  • Section 17A prior approval and Section 19 sanction delay investigations and are seen as shields for the corrupt.
  • Conviction rates are low and trials long.
  • Investigating agencies depend on the executive (Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998)).
  • "Obtaining a pecuniary advantage without public interest" (the old Section 13(1)(d)) was deleted in 2018, which weakens action against collusive decisions.
  • Protection for whistle-blowers is weak.

Conclusion: I agree, with reservations. The PCA is the backbone of India's anti-corruption law, strengthened by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 and by the CVC. Its effectiveness depends on independent investigation, time-bound sanction and speedy trials.

How this answer will be evaluated

Framework: Issue > Rule > Authority > Application

What earns full marks: Precise legal citations, clear distinction of concepts, and strong application of law to the specific context.

Evaluation rubric

Each sub-part is marked on its own, against the marks and word limit printed on the paper.

  1. (a) Evaluate plea bargaining and whether it should continue in its present form. 20 marks

    justify— claim → 3-4 reasons → evidence → conclusion

    Must cover

    • Origin: Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2005, CrPC Ch. XXIA (ss. 265A–265L), now BNSS Ch. XXIII (ss. 289–300); Law Commission and Malimath
    • Scheme: eligibility (≤7 years; exclusions), voluntariness, mutually satisfactory disposition, sentence concessions (incl. BNSS s.293 first offenders), finality, confidentiality
    • Assessment: benefits vs low uptake, no charge bargaining, coercion risk, undertrial problem (s.479 BNSS)
    • Reasoned position with reform proposals

    Loses marks

    • No BNSS reference
    • One-sided answer

    Earns more

    • Earlier judicial disapproval (Murlidhar Meghraj Loya, Kasambhai)
    • Comparative practice (US)

    Extra mark

    • Flow chart of procedure
  2. (b) Examine the law on the defence of intoxication with leading cases. 15 marks

    examine— intro → how/why with reasoning → evidence → conclusion

    Must cover

    • Involuntary intoxication: IPC 85 / BNS 23 — complete defence conditions
    • Voluntary intoxication: IPC 86 / BNS 24 — presumed knowledge, not intention
    • Cases: DPP v. Beard, Basdev v. PEPSU, Bablu v. Rajasthan; English: Majewski, Kingston
    • Assessment of policy rationale and specific vs basic intent

    Loses marks

    • Treating voluntary intoxication as a full defence
    • No cases

    Earns more

    • Relationship with insanity
    • Drunken driving cases

    Extra mark

    • Chart of rules
  3. (c) Discuss the PCA 1988 as an instrument against corruption, its offences and punishments. 15 marks

    discuss— intro → 3-4 dimensions → example → balanced close

    Must cover

    • Background and definition of public servant (s.2(c)); P.V. Narasimha Rao
    • 2018 Amendment: undue advantage, bribe-giving, commercial organisations, s.17A, s.18A
    • Offences and punishments: ss. 7, 7A, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15
    • Procedure and evaluation: Special Judges, presumption (s.20), sanction (s.19); Neeraj Dutta (2022), Sita Soren (2024); limitations and Lokpal/CVC

    Loses marks

    • Citing pre-2018 offences as current
    • No punishments stated

    Earns more

    • UNCAC alignment
    • Data on conviction rates

    Extra mark

    • Chart of offences
What "Justify" is asking you to do

Defend a position with reasons that carry evidence, and show why the contrary view does not hold. Where the stem runs as a question and asks you to justify your answer, the position is yours to choose and the marks lie wholly in the defence.

Structure that answers it

Position stated plainly → reason 1 with evidence → reason 2 with evidence → strongest objection, met → position restated as qualified

Where marks are lost

Reasons stated and none of them evidenced. The other standard loss is fence-sitting — an answer that finds merit on both sides and commits to neither has justified nothing.

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