Paper II — Q3
(a) Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of Kala-azar. 20 marks (b) What are the types of vaccines currently…
Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of Kala-azar. 20 marks
What are the types of vaccines currently in use against Pneumococcus organisms ? State the National Immunization Schedule for administering Pneumococcal Vaccine in infants. Enumerate the diseases that the Pneumococcal Vaccine can safeguard against. 15 marks
A young female patient develops acute inflammatory papules and vesicles all over her scalp and tips of ears following repeated use of hair dye. What is the diagnosis ?
How can the diagnosis be confirmed ?
How will this condition be treated ? 5+5+5=15 marks
हिंदी में प्रश्न पढ़ें
कालाजार की रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताओं, निदान तथा उपचार का वर्णन कीजिए। 20 अंक
वर्तमान में न्यूमोकोकस जीवाणुओं के विरुद्ध प्रयोग में लाए जा रहे वैक्सीन कौन-कौन से प्रकार के हैं ? राष्ट्रीय प्रतिरक्षीकरण सूची के अनुसार शिशुओं को न्यूमोकोकल वैक्सीन कब दी जाती है, उल्लेख कीजिए। उन रोगों के नाम बताइए जिनके विरुद्ध न्यूमोकोकल वैक्सीन सुरक्षा प्रदान करती है। 15 अंक
बार-बार केश रंगने की डाई प्रयोग करने के पश्चात् एक युवा महिला रोगी के सम्पूर्ण शिरोवल्क और कानों के सिरों पर तीव्र शोथज पिटिकाएँ तथा जलस्फोट उत्पन्न हो गए हैं। निदान क्या है ?
इस निदान की पुष्टि कैसे की जा सकती है ?
इस रुग्णता का उपचार कैसे किया जाएगा ? 5+5+5=15 अंक
Model answer
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(a) Kala-azar. Kala-azar is a systemic protozoal infection caused by Leishmania donovani, transmitted by the sandfly Phlebotomus argentipes. It presents after a variable incubation period with prolonged undulant or quotidian fever, often with chills, progressive weakness, weight loss and anorexia. The spleen enlarges massively and is usually larger than the liver; the spleen is firm and non-tender, while hepatomegaly may also be present. Lymphadenopathy is uncommon, and the spleen is usually the dominant feature. Pancytopenia causes anaemia, easy bruising and recurrent infections; hypergammaglobulinemia and hyperpigmentation are common, giving the disease its name. In advanced cases, oedema, cachexia and secondary infections may occur. India achieved the kala-azar elimination target (<1 case per 10,000 population in every endemic block) in 2023, but surveillance and case detection remain important in endemic districts such as Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Diagnosis combines clinical suspicion with laboratory confirmation. Under the national programme, a positive rK39 rapid immunochromatographic test in a patient with fever for more than two weeks and splenomegaly, from an endemic area and without past kala-azar, is sufficient to start treatment. Because rK39 antibodies persist after cure, relapse and doubtful cases need parasitological confirmation. Parasitological demonstration of Leishman-Donovan bodies in splenic, bone-marrow or lymph-node aspirate is the standard. Culture and PCR can support the diagnosis. Treatment follows NVBDCP guidance: liposomal amphotericin B is preferred, commonly a single 10 mg/kg intravenous dose in the Indian subcontinent, with higher or repeated doses for relapse or severe disease. Miltefosine (oral, 28 days, with contraception) or combination therapy (such as miltefosine with paromomycin) may be used where indicated, and antimonials are avoided because of toxicity and resistance. Treatment is curative and reduces transmission; relapse is uncommon after L-AmB but follow-up is advised.
(b) Pneumococcal vaccines. The vaccines in use are pneumococcal conjugate vaccines (PCV) and pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine. PCV13 is a 13-valent conjugate vaccine with the CRM197 carrier; PCV10 is available as Synflorix (protein D, tetanus and diphtheria toxoid carriers) and as India's indigenous Pneumosil (CRM197 carrier, Serum Institute), which is used in the UIP. Newer PCV15 and PCV20 are licensed for older age groups abroad. PPSV23 is a 23-valent polysaccharide vaccine, mainly for older children, adults and high-risk groups. PCV induces T-cell dependent immunity and is effective in infants; PPSV23 induces T-cell independent antibody responses and is not preferred for young infants. In the National Immunization Schedule, PCV was introduced in a phased manner from 2017 and is given at 6 weeks and 14 weeks of age with a booster at 9 months (2 + 1 schedule). It safeguards against invasive pneumococcal disease (bacteraemia/sepsis and meningitis), pneumonia, otitis media and sinusitis, and reduces carriage, giving a herd effect.
(c)(i) Hair-dye dermatitis. The diagnosis is acute allergic contact dermatitis due to paraphenylenediamine (PPD), a primary aromatic amine and primary intermediate in oxidative hair dye, not a coupler. PPD is a potent sensitizer; sensitization may occur after initial exposure, and subsequent reactions appear within 24-48 hours. The history of repeated dye use, with acute inflammatory papules and vesicles on the scalp and ear tips, is characteristic of an acute eczematous reaction at the sites of dye contact (scalp, hairline, ears, forehead and neck).
(c)(ii) Confirmation. Confirmation is by patch testing with PPD 1% pet, preferably as part of the Indian Standard Series, applied on the upper back and read at 48 and 72–96 hours, once the acute eruption has settled and systemic steroids are stopped. Histopathology (spongiosis with lymphocytic infiltrate) is only supportive; the temporal relation to repeated exposure supports the diagnosis.
(c)(iii) Treatment. Treatment begins with immediate cessation of the dye and avoidance of further contact. Oozing vesicular areas are treated with cool wet compresses (saline or potassium permanganate), and potent topical corticosteroids (such as betamethasone valerate lotion on the scalp) are applied, with systemic antihistamines for itching. In severe or widespread cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be given. The patient should be educated to avoid PPD-containing products and to use hypoallergenic alternatives, while beauticians should use gloves and patch-test clients, reducing occupational dermatitis burden.
How this answer will be evaluated
Framework: Clinical Sequence (Definition > Aetiology > Features > Investigation > Management)
What earns full marks: Accurate clinical reasoning, correct NKEP/UIP data, and precise management protocols.
Evaluation rubric
Each sub-part is marked on its own, against the marks and word limit printed on the paper.
- (a) (a) Kala-azar: clinical features, diagnosis and treatment. 20 marks
describe— define → structure or process in order → labelled diagram → significance
Must cover
- Agent (L. donovani), vector (Phlebotomus argentipes), endemic states; India's 2023 elimination milestone
- Features: prolonged fever (double quotidian), massive splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, pancytopenia, hyperpigmentation, weight loss; PKDL
- Diagnosis: rK39 RDT with clinical features (programme), LD bodies in splenic/marrow aspirate, culture, PCR
- Treatment: single-dose L-AmB 10 mg/kg (NVBDCP), alternatives (miltefosine + paromomycin), avoid antimonials; vector control
Loses marks
- Antimonials as first line in India
Earns more
- Relapse and HIV co-infection
Extra mark
- PKDL treatment
- (b) (b) Pneumococcal vaccine types; UIP schedule; diseases prevented. 15 marks
enumerate— list the items in order → one line each → no commentary
Must cover
- Conjugate (PCV10, PCV13, newer PCV15/20) vs polysaccharide (PPSV23) with immunological basis
- UIP: 6 weeks, 14 weeks, booster at 9 months (2+1), since 2017 phased rollout
- Indigenous PCV10 (Pneumosil) and PCV13 in use
- Diseases: pneumonia, meningitis, bacteraemia/sepsis, otitis media, sinusitis
Loses marks
- Wrong schedule
Earns more
- Herd effect
Extra mark
- Serotype replacement
- (c)(i) (c)(i) Diagnosis in hair-dye reaction. 5 marks
define— precise definition → the distinguishing feature → one example
Must cover
- Acute allergic contact dermatitis
- Allergen: para-phenylenediamine (PPD)
- Type IV delayed hypersensitivity; sensitisation then elicitation
- Typical distribution: scalp margin, ears, forehead, neck
Loses marks
- Diagnosing seborrhoeic dermatitis
Earns more
- Differential: irritant dermatitis
Extra mark
- Cross-reactivity (benzocaine, sulphonamides)
- (c)(ii) (c)(ii) How to confirm the diagnosis. 5 marks
explain— definition/context → points in order → small example → short close
Must cover
- Patch test (Indian Standard Series; PPD 1% pet)
- Applied on back; read at 48 and 72/96 hours
- Grading of reactions; relevance to exposure
- Avoid testing during acute flare/steroids
Loses marks
- Prick test as confirmation
Earns more
- Open/repeated application test
Extra mark
- Histology if doubtful
- (c)(iii) (c)(iii) Treatment. 5 marks
suggest— the problem in one line → implementable measures → who acts → conclusion
Must cover
- Stop dye; avoid PPD and cross-reactors
- Wet compresses for vesicles; potent topical steroids
- Oral antihistamines; short oral steroid course if severe/widespread
- Education: PPD-free alternatives, labelling, protection for hairdressers
Loses marks
- No allergen avoidance
Earns more
- Treat secondary infection
Extra mark
- Henna (black henna) warning
What "Describe" is asking you to do
Give a full, ordered account of the thing named — its parts, stages or mechanism — in the sequence in which it actually exists or occurs. Most describe questions come from the science optionals, where the marks sit in correct technical detail and, where the stem says so, a labelled diagram.
Structure that answers it
One-line identification of the subject → the parts or stages in their real order, each with its defining detail → labelled diagram where the subject is structural → closing line on function or significance
Where marks are lost
Loose general prose where the examiner is ticking named parts, correct terminology and their sequence; and in the General Studies papers, turning to evaluation before the description is finished.
Practice this exact question
Write your answer and it is marked point by point against the model answer above — what you covered, what you missed, what you got wrong.
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