Q1 50M Compulsory discuss Pulmonary tuberculosis, depression, malnutrition, scabies
(a) Discuss in short the role of a Chest X-ray in the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. (10 marks)
(b) Describe the clinical features for diagnosing a case of Depression. (10 marks)
(c) What are the key differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus ? Which is the easiest method which can help in the early detection of Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) in children ? (10 marks)
(d) During the initial phase of stabilization in a severe acute malnourished child, map out the dietary plan. State the type, amount and frequency of feed that the child requires and for how long that would be necessary. In this phase, what is the vitamin and mineral supplementation given ? (10 marks)
(e) In a confirmed case of scabies in an adult :
(i) What are the primary manifestations of the disease and what is the pattern of distribution of lesions on the body ?
(ii) What are the complications seen in scabies ? (5+5=10 marks)
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'discuss' in part (a) requires balanced coverage of indications, limitations, and evolving role of CXR in TB diagnosis under RNTCP/NTEP guidelines, while other parts demand 'describe,' 'what,' and mapping responses. Structure as: brief intro on diagnostic hierarchy → systematic 5-part body with equal time allocation (~8-10 minutes per 10-mark sub-part) → concluding integration on syndromic approaches in resource-limited settings. For (d), include a clear tabular or flowchart presentation of the stabilization phase dietary protocol.
- (a) CXR in TB: sensitivity/specificity in active vs. latent TB, WHO/RNTCP screening criteria (chest radiography as triage tool), limitations (immunocompromised, HIV co-infection with atypical patterns), CXR as adjunct to CBNAAT/Truenat, not standalone diagnostic
- (b) Depression: ICD-10/DSM-5 criteria (depressed mood, anhedonia, fatigue, sleep/appetite disturbance, guilt/suicidal ideation), minimum symptom duration (2 weeks), functional impairment, somatic presentations in Indian primary care settings
- (c) Kwashiorkor vs Marasmus: pathophysiology (protein deficiency vs energy-protein deficit), edema, skin/hair changes, serum albumin, mortality patterns; early PEM detection: weight-for-height Z-score or MUAC (mid-upper arm circumference) as simplest field tool
- (d) SAM stabilization phase: F-75 therapeutic milk (75 kcal/100ml, low protein/sodium), 130 ml/kg/day divided 2-3 hourly feeds, transition criteria to rehabilitation phase; micronutrients: vitamin A, folic acid, zinc, copper, multivitamin as per WHO/Indian Academy of Pediatrics protocol
- (e)(i) Scabies manifestations: burrows, papules, vesicles, intense nocturnal pruritus; distribution: finger webs, wrists, axillae, periumbilical, genitalia, buttocks (spares head/neck in adults)
- (e)(ii) Complications: secondary bacterial infection (Streptococcus/Staphylococcus), post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, crusted (Norwegian) scabies in immunocompromised, psychological impact
- Cross-cutting: Integration of national health program protocols (RNTCP, ICDS, NVBDCP) and community-based management approaches relevant to Indian public health context
Q2 50M describe Extra-pulmonary TB, malabsorption, breastfeeding, vitiligo
(a) (i) Discuss in short about the different modalities used in the diagnosis of Extra-Pulmonary Tuberculosis. (10 marks)
(ii) Describe the clinical features of malabsorption syndrome. (10 marks)
(b) (i) Write in brief the ten steps of Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (revised 2018). (10 marks)
(ii) Write the advantages of breast-feeding. (5 marks)
(c) A young adult female develops asymptomatic depigmented chalky white macules and patches with no sign of inflammation over face and around body orifices.
(i) What is the diagnosis ?
(ii) What are the associated findings seen in this disorder ?
(iii) How is this disorder classified ?
(iv) Describe the clinical course of the disease. (3+4+4+4=15 marks)
Answer approach & key points
This multi-part descriptive question requires systematic coverage of seven sub-parts with marks-weighted time allocation: spend ~20% on (a)(i) EPTB diagnosis, ~20% on (a)(ii) malabsorption features, ~20% on (b)(i) BFHI ten steps, ~10% on (b)(ii) breastfeeding advantages, and ~30% on (c) vitiligo's four components. Structure each part with clear headings, use bullet points for the ten steps, and include a labeled diagram for vitiligo distribution patterns.
- EPTB diagnosis: mention GeneXpert MTB/RIF, CBNAAT, Line Probe Assay, histopathology with caseating granulomas, ADA levels in pleural/CSF fluid, and imaging (MRI for Pott's spine, CT for abdominal TB)
- Malabsorption syndrome: steatorrhea, weight loss, anemia (iron/B12/folate deficiency), edema from hypoproteinemia, specific features of celiac vs tropical sprue vs Whipple's disease
- BFHI 2018 ten steps: skin-to-skin contact, early initiation, exclusive breastfeeding, rooming-in, feeding on demand, no pacifiers, no formula/foods, support groups, informed discharge, and compliance with International Code
- Breastfeeding advantages: optimal nutrition, immunoglobulins and lactoferrin, reduced NEC in preterms, bonding, maternal cancer protection, and LAM as contraception
- Vitiligo diagnosis: segmental vs non-segmental, Koebner phenomenon, leukotrichia, ocular/auditory associations, and Wood's lamp examination
- Vitiligo classification: focal, segmental, mucosal, acrofacial, vulgaris, universal; plus disease activity scoring (VASI, VETF)
- Vitiligo clinical course: progressive, stable, or spontaneous repigmentation; psychological impact; and prognostic factors (early age, facial lesions, recent onset)
Q3 50M describe Kala-azar, Pneumococcal vaccines, and contact dermatitis
(a) Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of Kala-azar. 20 marks
(b) What are the types of vaccines currently in use against Pneumococcus organisms ? State the National Immunization Schedule for administering Pneumococcal Vaccine in infants. Enumerate the diseases that the Pneumococcal Vaccine can safeguard against. 15 marks
(c) A young female patient develops acute inflammatory papules and vesicles all over her scalp and tips of ears following repeated use of hair dye.
(i) What is the diagnosis ?
(ii) How can the diagnosis be confirmed ?
(iii) How will this condition be treated ? 5+5+5=15 marks
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'describe' demands comprehensive, structured coverage of clinical features, diagnostic methods, and treatment protocols. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) Kala-azar (20 marks), 30% to part (b) Pneumococcal vaccines (15 marks), and 30% to part (c) contact dermatitis with its three sub-parts (15 marks). Structure as: brief introduction on tropical/immunization dermatology relevance; systematic body addressing each sub-part with headings; conclusion emphasizing public health integration in India's disease control programs.
- Part (a): Kala-azar — fever pattern (undulant/quotidian), hepatosplenomegaly (massive spleen > liver), pancytopenia, hyperpigmentation; diagnosis by rK39 rapid test, splenic/bone marrow aspiration showing LD bodies; treatment with liposomal amphotericin B (single dose regimen), miltefosine, or combination therapy per NVBDCP guidelines
- Part (b): Pneumococcal vaccines — PCV13 (conjugate), PPSV23 (polysaccharide); National Immunization Schedule: PCV13 at 6, 10, 14 weeks with booster at 9 months (UIP 2020 expansion); protection against invasive pneumococcal disease, pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media
- Part (c)(i): Diagnosis — Allergic contact dermatitis to paraphenylenediamine (PPD) in hair dye, acute eczematous reaction with papulovesicular morphology, scalp and ear tip distribution (photo-exposed/seborrheic areas)
- Part (c)(ii): Confirmation — Patch testing with Indian Standard Series (PPD 1%), histopathology showing spongiosis with lymphocytic infiltrate, relevance of repeated exposure history
- Part (c)(iii): Treatment — Immediate cessation of dye, topical corticosteroids (clobetasone/betamethasone), systemic antihistamines, short course oral steroids if severe; patient education on avoidance, use of hypoallergenic alternatives
- Integration: Mention India's Kala-azar elimination status (2020), PCV UIP rollout states, and occupational dermatitis burden in beauticians
Q4 50M discuss Angina pectoris, neonatal respiratory distress, and lichenoid dermatoses
(a) A sixty-year-old male develops central chest pain while walking uphill. The pain is squeezing in character, radiating to left arm, that relieves on taking rest.
Discuss in short about the evaluation and treatment of this case. 20 marks
(b) (i) Enumerate the causes of respiratory distress in a newborn. How would you differentiate between respiratory distress of respiratory origin and that of cardiac origin ? 8 marks
(ii) Write the complications of cyanotic congenital heart diseases. 4 marks
(iii) How will you manage a one-year five-month old child presenting with severe respiratory distress with a history of cough and fever for 5 days ? 8 marks
(c) (i) What is the meaning of the term 'lichenoid' ?
(ii) Name the disease that is a prototype of lichenoid reaction.
(iii) Describe the clinical features of the disease. 3+3+4=10 marks
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'discuss' demands a comprehensive, analytical treatment with balanced coverage across all sub-parts. Allocate approximately 40% of effort to part (a) given its 20 marks, 30% to part (b) distributed as 8+4+8 marks across its three sub-parts, and 20% to part (c). Structure with brief introductions for each part, systematic body covering evaluation/differentiation/management as asked, and concise conclusions emphasizing clinical relevance.
- Part (a): Pathophysiology of stable angina (demand-supply mismatch), Canadian Cardiovascular Society grading, diagnostic workup (ECG stress test, troponins, coronary angiography), and stepwise management (GTN, beta-blockers, statins, revascularization criteria)
- Part (b)(i): Neonatal respiratory distress causes (RDS, TTN, pneumonia, congenital heart disease, diaphragmatic hernia, metabolic); differentiation using hyperoxia test, CXR findings, echocardiography, and pre-ductal/post-ductal SpO2
- Part (b)(ii): Cyanotic CHD complications—polycythemia, hyperviscosity, brain abscess, infective endocarditis, thromboembolism, heart failure, and Eisenmenger syndrome progression
- Part (b)(iii): Management of severe respiratory distress in 17-month-old with pneumonia—ABCDE approach, oxygen therapy (target SpO2 >92%), IV antibiotics (per IAP guidelines), fluid management, and criteria for ICU referral
- Part (c): Lichenoid tissue reaction definition (interface dermatitis with sawtooth rete ridges, band-like lymphocytic infiltrate); lichen planus as prototype; 6 Ps of clinical features (pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar, papules, plaques) with Wickham striae and Koebner phenomenon
Q5 50M Compulsory describe Orthopaedics, Surgery, Obstetrics, Gynaecology, Biomedical Waste
(a) (i) Enlist conditions having an increased risk of malignant disease in bone and cartilage.
(ii) Briefly mention classification of bone tumours. 5+5=10
(b) A 55-year-old male patient underwent subtotal gastrectomy for carcinoma stomach. Briefly describe early and late complications of this procedure. 10
(c) (i) A 25-year-old infertile woman presents with menorrhagia. USG (Ultrasound) pelvis revealed multi-fibroid uterus, largest measuring 3 × 3 cm. Describe the evaluation and management of Fibroid Uterus in the above patient.
(ii) Describe recent classification of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB). Briefly discuss the endometrial pattern in various types of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding. 5+5=10
(d) (i) A young newly married couple wants advice on contraception. Describe the various methods of contraception which are suitable for them.
(ii) Enlist the various methods of female sterilization and complications of tubectomy. 5+5=10
(e) (i) Describe the 'yellow' category of biomedical waste in terms of — types of waste, types of bags or containers to be used, and treatment and disposal options.
(ii) Comment upon 'incineration' as a method of biomedical waste management. 5+5=10
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'describe' demands systematic, structured exposition across all six sub-parts. Allocate approximately 10 marks worth of content to each sub-part: (a)(i)-(ii) bone tumour risk factors and WHO classification; (b) gastrectomy complications with timeline-based structure; (c)(i)-(ii) fibroid evaluation/management and FIGO PALM-COEIN classification; (d)(i)-(ii) contraceptive counselling and sterilization methods; (e)(i)-(ii) BMW yellow category and incineration critique. Open with brief clinical context where applicable, present core content in organized headings, and conclude with practical takeaways for each part.
- (a)(i) Pre-malignant bone conditions: Paget's disease, osteochondroma (multiple hereditary), enchondroma (Ollier's disease, Maffucci syndrome), fibrous dysplasia, radiation exposure, chronic osteomyelitis
- (a)(ii) WHO 2020 classification of bone tumours: cartilage-forming, osteogenic, fibrogenic, fibrohistiocytic, Ewing/haematopoietic, giant cell, notochordal, vascular, myogenic, lipogenic, epithelial, uncertain differentiation
- (b) Early complications (≤30 days): duodenal stump leak, gastric atony, dumping syndrome, afferent/efferent loop obstruction, nutritional deficiencies; Late complications: gastric remnant carcinoma, bile reflux gastritis, iron/B12/folate deficiency, osteoporosis, malabsorption
- (c)(i) Fibroid evaluation: hysteroscopy, MRI for mapping, endometrial biopsy; Management: myomectomy (fertility-preserving), GnRH agonists, uterine artery embolization, hysteroscopic resection for submucous lesions
- (c)(ii) FIGO PALM-COEIN classification (2011): Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy/Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified; Endometrial patterns: proliferative, secretory, hyperplastic, atrophic
- (d)(i) Newly married contraception: Combined oral contraceptives, barrier methods, LNG-IUD, natural family planning; Counselling on efficacy, STI protection, reversibility
- (d)(ii) Female sterilization: laparoscopic tubal ligation (Pomeroy, Filshie clip), hysteroscopic Essure (now withdrawn), postpartum mini-lap; Complications: bleeding, infection, bowel/urinary tract injury, failed sterilization, ectopic pregnancy, post-tubal ligation syndrome
- (e)(i) Yellow category: human anatomical waste, animal waste, soiled waste, expired/discarded medicines, chemical waste; Yellow non-chlorinated bags; Treatment: autoclaving/microwaving then shredding, deep burial, or incineration
- (e)(ii) Incineration: advantages (pathogen destruction, volume reduction, waste-to-energy); disadvantages (dioxin/furan emission, mercury release, high capital/operational cost, ash disposal); WHO/EPA emission standards relevance
Q6 50M discuss Obstetrics, Surgery, HIV/AIDS Public Health
(a) (i) A 22-year-old Unbooked Primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation presents to Emergency with labour pains. How would you evaluate the patient for obstetric triaging and further management of labour ?
(ii) Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of Rupture Uterus following obstructed labour. 10+10=20
(b) (i) Write the clinical features and diagnostic work-up in a case of carcinoma rectum.
(ii) Briefly mention Dukes' staging for this condition.
(iii) Enumerate surgical options for this disease. 5+5+5=15
(c) In the context of HIV/AIDS control and the National AIDS Control Programme in India, comment upon the following :
(i) 95-95-95 targets
(ii) Categorization of districts
(iii) TB-HIV coordination to reduce mortality 3+4+8=15
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'discuss' demands comprehensive, analytical coverage with critical evaluation. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) [20 marks], 30% to part (b) [15 marks], and 30% to part (c) [15 marks]. Structure: brief introduction acknowledging the unbooked primigravida as high-risk; systematic body addressing each sub-part with clinical reasoning; conclusion emphasizing integrated care and NACP achievements.
- For (a)(i): Obstetric triage of unbooked primigravida—rapid history (LMP, previous records), general examination (pallor, edema, BP), obstetric examination (fundal height, presentation, engagement, pelvimetry), investigations (Hb, blood group, HIV/HBsAg, urine albumin, NST), and partograph initiation with risk stratification
- For (a)(ii): Rupture uterus pathophysiology—prolonged obstructed labour causing retraction ring/Bandl's ring, clinical features (pathognomonic retraction ring, sudden pain cessation, fetal distress, maternal shock, hematuria), diagnosis (USG, clinical), and emergency management (resuscitation, laparotomy with repair/hysterectomy based on extent)
- For (b)(i)-(iii): Carcinoma rectum—clinical features (altered bowel habits, tenesmus, bleeding, mucus discharge, 'pencil stool'), diagnostic work-up (DRE, proctoscopy, colonoscopy with biopsy, CEA, CECT/MRI pelvis, PET-CT), Dukes' staging (A-D with 5-year survival correlation), and surgical options (APR, LAR, sphincter-saving procedures, TME)
- For (c)(i): 95-95-95 targets—95% PLHIV knowing status, 95% diagnosed on ART, 95% on ART with viral suppression; India's progress under NACP-V and alignment with UNAIDS 2030 goals
- For (c)(ii): District categorization—A (high prevalence >1%), B (moderate 0.5-1%), C (low <0.5%), D (targeted interventions) with differential resource allocation and strategy under NACP
- For (c)(iii): TB-HIV coordination—'Three I's' (Intensified case finding, Isoniazid preventive therapy, Infection control), ART initiation regardless of CD4, CPT, 'Test and Treat' policy, and NTEP-NACP convergence to reduce mortality
Q7 50M enumerate Thyroid malignancy, health information, pelvic inflammatory disease
(a) A 50-year-old male presented with a 3 cm nodule in the left lobe of thyroid gland with a hard left cervical lymph node. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) from the thyroid nodule revealed orphan Annie-eyed nuclei.
(i) What is the diagnosis in this case? How can this condition be managed surgically?
(ii) Enumerate different prognostic scoring systems for this condition.
(iii) What are the post-operative complications of total thyroidectomy?
8+5+7=20
(b) (i) List the various sources of health information.
(ii) Describe the limitations of hospital records as a source of health information.
(iii) Write in brief the use of pictograms for presenting health information data.
5+5+5=15
(c) (i) What are the signs and symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
(ii) What are the complications of PID?
(iii) How do you manage a 28-year-old woman, P1L1 with unilateral Tubo-ovarian abscess?
5+5+5=15
Answer approach & key points
Begin with the directive 'enumerate' for the highest-mark sub-part (a)(ii), while addressing 'what/how' for (a)(i) and (iii), 'list/describe/write' for (b), and 'what/how' for (c). Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) given its 20 marks, 30% each to parts (b) and (c) with 15 marks each. Structure as: (a) diagnosis → surgical management → prognostic scoring → complications; (b) sources → limitations → pictograms; (c) signs/symptoms → complications → specific TOA management. Use diagrams for thyroid anatomy, lymphatic drainage, and pictogram examples.
- Papillary thyroid carcinoma diagnosis based on orphan Annie-eyed nuclei (empty, ground-glass nuclei with nuclear grooves and pseudoinclusions) with hard cervical lymph node indicating metastasis
- Surgical management: hemithyroidectomy/lobectomy vs total thyroidectomy based on tumor size, extrathyroidal extension, and nodal status; central compartment neck dissection; indications for radioactive iodine ablation
- Prognostic scoring systems: MACIS (Metastasis, Age, Completeness of resection, Invasion, Size), AGES (Age, Grade, Extent, Size), AMES (Age, Metastasis, Extent, Size), TNM staging (AJCC 8th edition), EORTC, and DeGroot classification
- Post-operative complications of total thyroidectomy: recurrent laryngeal nerve injury (unilateral/bilateral), superior laryngeal nerve injury, hypoparathyroidism/hypocalcemia, thyroid storm, hemorrhage/hematoma, wound infection, tracheal injury
- Sources of health information: census, vital registration, hospital records, disease registries, notification systems, sample registration system, NSSO surveys, NFHS, DLHS, ICMR surveys, verbal autopsy, health management information system (HMIS)
- Limitations of hospital records: incomplete coverage (excludes domiciliary and rural cases), selection bias, variable quality of recording, lack of standardization, underreporting, no denominator population, changing diagnostic criteria
- Pictograms: visual representation using symbols/icons for illiterate populations; advantages in mass communication; examples from IEC campaigns in India (family planning, immunization, COVID-19); construction principles and interpretation
- PID signs/symptoms: lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, dyspareunia, menstrual irregularities, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness; Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
- PID complications: infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, tubo-ovarian abscess, perihepatitis, increased risk of HIV transmission, psychological sequelae
- Unilateral TOA management in P1L1: conservative with broad-spectrum antibiotics (cefoxitin + doxycycline or clindamycin + gentamicin) + drainage (image-guided percutaneous or surgical if >8cm/rupture risk); fertility preservation; indications for surgery; follow-up with hysterosalpingography
Q8 50M describe Epidemiological studies, antenatal care, prostate carcinoma
(a) (i) What are the different types of epidemiological studies?
(ii) What are the possible sources of control in case-control studies?
(iii) List the advantages of case-control studies as compared to cohort studies.
6+6+8=20
(b) Define Antenatal Care. What are its objectives? What is the schedule of antenatal clinic visits that a mother is expected to follow during the course of her pregnancy? What are the advantages and disadvantages of 'domiciliary midwifery service'?
15
(c) (i) Enumerate the causes of hematuria in a 60-year-old male.
(ii) Briefly describe the management of carcinoma prostate in a 60-year-old male.
5+10=15
Answer approach & key points
The directive 'describe' demands comprehensive, structured exposition across all five sub-parts. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) [20 marks], 30% to part (b) [15 marks], and 30% to part (c) [15 marks]. Structure as: (a) classification with examples, control sources, and comparative advantages; (b) definition, objectives, visit schedule (WHO/ICMR pattern), and balanced analysis of domiciliary services; (c) systematic differential for hematuria and evidence-based prostate cancer management. Use tabular formats for comparisons and flowcharts where applicable.
- (a)(i) Classification of epidemiological studies: observational (descriptive: case reports, cross-sectional; analytical: case-control, cohort, ecological) vs. experimental (RCT, field trials, community trials) with examples
- (a)(ii) Sources of controls in case-control studies: hospital/non-diseased patients, general population, relatives/friends, neighborhood controls, multiple control groups
- (a)(iii) Advantages of case-control over cohort: suitable for rare diseases, shorter duration, less expensive, smaller sample size, no attrition bias, multiple risk factors studied simultaneously
- (b) Antenatal care definition (WHO), objectives (screening high-risk, preventing complications, health education), schedule (minimum 4 visits: 12, 26, 32, 36 weeks or more frequent), domiciliary midwifery pros/cons (accessibility/cost vs. emergency backup limitations)
- (c)(i) Causes of hematuria in 60-year-old male: BPH, prostate carcinoma, urothelial malignancy, renal cell carcinoma, calculi, infection, glomerular disease, trauma, anticoagulation
- (c)(ii) Prostate carcinoma management: staging (TNM), active surveillance for low-risk, radical prostatectomy, radiotherapy (EBRT/ brachytherapy), androgen deprivation therapy, chemotherapy (docetaxel) for metastatic, follow-up with PSA