Medical Science

UPSC Medical Science 2023 — Paper II

All 8 questions from UPSC Civil Services Mains Medical Science 2023 Paper II (400 marks total). Every stem reproduced in full, with directive-word analysis, marks, word limits, and answer-approach pointers.

8Questions
400Total marks
2023Year
Paper IIPaper

Topics covered

Dengue, schizophrenia, IMNCI, immunization, lichen planus (1)Meningitis, congenital cyanotic heart disease, seborrheic dermatitis (1)Chronic renal failure, neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, psoriasis (1)Asthma case study, severe acute malnutrition, acute abdomen imaging (1)Clinical medicine and public health (1)Obstetrics, vascular surgery and public health (1)Radiology, biochemistry and gynecology (1)Malaria elimination, obstetrics and surgery (1)

A

Q1
50M Compulsory outline Dengue, schizophrenia, IMNCI, immunization, lichen planus

(a) (i) Enlist the clinical features of dengue fever. (ii) Outline the management of a patient with dengue haemorrhagic fever. (5+5=10 marks) (b) Write the symptoms of schizophrenia. (10 marks) (c) (i) What is the full form of IMNCI and what are its objectives? (ii) What are the components of integrated care provided under IMNCI? (4+6=10 marks) (d) State the immunization schedule under the National Immunization Programme for infants and children. (10 marks) (e) A 40-year-old male presented with multiple itchy, violaceous, flat-topped papules over skin for last one year. He also complained of burning sensation in mouth. (i) Diagnose this condition. (ii) What are the oral findings which can be associated with this condition? (iii) Outline its management. (2+3+5=10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(क) (i) डेंगू ज्वर की रोगलाक्षणिक विशेषताओं की सूची प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (ii) डेंगू रक्तस्रावी ज्वर के रोगी के प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (5+5=10) (ख) विखण्डित मनस्कता (सिज़ोफ्रेनिया) के लक्षण लिखिए। (10) (ग) (i) आई० एम० एन० सी० आई० का पूर्ण रूप क्या है तथा उसके क्या-क्या उद्देश्य हैं? (ii) आई० एम० एन० सी० आई० के अंतर्गत दी जाने वाली समाकलित देखभाल के क्या-क्या घटक हैं? (4+6=10) (घ) राष्ट्रीय प्रतिरक्षीकरण (टीकाकरण) कार्यक्रम के अंतर्गत शिशुओं और बच्चों के लिए निर्धारित प्रतिरक्षीकरण समय-सारणी का विवरण दीजिए। (10) (ङ) एक 40-वर्षीय पुरुष को विगत एक वर्ष से त्वचा पर बहुत कण्ठकारी, बैंगनी, चपटे पट वाली पिटिकाएँ हैं। साथ ही, उसे मुँह में जलन की संवेदना है। (i) इस रूपता में निदान (डायमोसिस) बताइए। (ii) इस रूपता में मुँह में क्या-क्या लक्षण हो सकते हैं? (iii) इस रोग के प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (2+3+5=10)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'outline' demands a structured, systematic presentation of facts across five distinct clinical topics without elaborate discussion. Begin with a brief introduction acknowledging the breadth of topics (infectious disease, psychiatry, child health, immunization, dermatology), then address each sub-question in sequence with clear headings, bullet points for clinical features and management steps, and a concise conclusion emphasizing integrated healthcare delivery in the Indian context.

  • Dengue: Distinguish DF (fever, myalgia, rash) from DHF (hemorrhagic manifestations, plasma leakage, shock) with WHO 2009 classification criteria
  • Schizophrenia: Cover positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behavior) and negative symptoms (alogia, avolition, affective flattening) per DSM-5/ICD-10
  • IMNCI: Full form (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses), objectives (reduce mortality, improve care quality), and 4 components (assess, classify, treat, counsel)
  • Immunization: Complete UIP schedule including BCG, OPV, Hep-B at birth; Pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, IPV, PCV at 6/10/14 weeks; MR/MMR, DPT booster doses; special focus on Mission Indradhanush
  • Lichen planus: Diagnosis from classic PPL (pruritic, polygonal, purple, planar papules), oral findings (Wickham striae, erosive lesions), and stepwise management (topical steroids, systemic agents for refractory cases)
Q2
50M outline Meningitis, congenital cyanotic heart disease, seborrheic dermatitis

(a) A 30-year-old female has been brought to medical emergency with a history of low-grade fever, headache, anorexia and weight loss for the last one month. She has also developed diplopia and altered sensorium for the last two days. (i) What is the most likely diagnosis? (ii) Enumerate the investigations required to confirm the diagnosis. (iii) Differentiate between the CSF findings in pyogenic, tubercular and viral meningitis. (iv) Outline the treatment plan in this patient. (2+6+6+6=20 marks) (b) A 2-year-old boy was brought to the emergency with the complaints of sudden onset of respiratory distress with irritability. On examination, the child is disoriented and he has both peripheral and central cyanosis. He has deep sighing respiration with SpO₂ < 65% at room air. On oxygen therapy, his SpO₂ is increased to 80%. He has no organomegaly or neurological deficit. (i) Write the complete diagnosis of this boy. (ii) How will you manage this case in emergency? (iii) Classify the congenital cyanotic heart diseases. (2+8+5=15 marks) (c) A 48-year-old male presented with yellowish, greasy scales and redness over the scalp. (i) What is the most likely diagnosis? (ii) Mention the sites of involvement in this disease. (iii) Name the organism responsible for the pathogenesis of this disease. (iv) Outline its treatment. (2+4+2+7=15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(क) एक 30-वर्षीय महिला मेडिकल इमरजेंसी में लाई गई है। उसे विगत एक माह से निम्न श्रेणी का ज्वर है, सरदर्द है, भूख नहीं लग रही (एनोरेक्सिया) है और उसके वजन में गिरावट आई है। इधर दो दिनों से उसमें द्विदृष्टिता तथा संवेदनतंत्र परिवर्तन के लक्षण भी प्रकट हुए हैं। (i) सर्वाधिक संभावित निदान क्या है? (ii) निदान की पुष्टि के लिए कौन-कौन सी जाँच करनी होंगी, उन्हें गिनाइए। (iii) सी० एस० एफ० विशेषताओं के आधार पर पूयजन्य मस्तिष्कावरणशोथ, यक्ष्मज मस्तिष्कावरणशोथ तथा विषाणु मस्तिष्कावरणशोथ के बीच भेद बताइए। (iv) इस रोगी की उपचार योजना की रूपरेखा लिखिए। (2+6+6+6=20) (ख) एक 2-वर्षीय बालक इमरजेंसी में लाया गया है। उसे एकाएक श्वसन में कष्ट हुआ है और चिड़चिड़ापन जागृत हुआ है। जाँच करने पर उसकी स्थिति भ्रांति की है तथा उसे परिसरिय व केन्द्रीय श्यावता है। यह बालक गहरी साँसें भर रहा है और कमरे की हवा में उसका SpO₂, 65% से कम है। ऑक्सीजन चिकित्सा देने पर उसका SpO₂ बढ़कर 80% हो गया है। उसके शरीर में कोई अंगवृद्धि नहीं है और न ही उसे कोई तंत्रिकातंत्रहीनता है। (i) इस बालक का पूर्ण निदान लिखिए। (ii) इमरजेंसी में इस बालक का प्रबंधन आप कैसे करेंगे? (iii) जन्मजात श्याव हृदय रोगों को वर्गीकृत कीजिए। (2+8+5=15) (ग) एक 48-वर्षीय पुरुष शिरोवल्क पर पीली-सी स्नेहिकायुक्त शल्क और लाली लेकर आता है। (i) सर्वाधिक संभावित निदान क्या है? (ii) इस रोग में शरीर के कौन-कौन से भाग प्रभावित होते हैं? (iii) इस रोग की रोगसंग्रामि के लिए कौन-सा जीव दोषी होता है, नाम बताइए। (iv) इस रोग के उपचार की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (2+4+2+7=15)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'outline' demands a structured, systematic presentation of diagnostic reasoning, investigations, and management plans. Allocate approximately 40% of effort to part (a) given its 20 marks weightage, with 30% each to parts (b) and (c). Structure each case as: clinical presentation → diagnosis → investigations → management, ensuring crisp bullet points for investigations and tabular formats for CSF differentiation in (a)(iii).

  • Part (a): Diagnosis of tubercular meningitis with cranial nerve involvement (CN VI palsy causing diplopia); CSF analysis showing lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein, and ADA levels; differentiation table of pyogenic (neutrophilic, low glucose), tubercular (lymphocytic, low glucose, high protein), and viral (lymphocytic, normal glucose) meningitis
  • Part (a): ATT regimen (HRZE for 2 months, HR for 7-10 months) with corticosteroids for cerebral edema and raised ICT management; mention of DOTS strategy relevance in Indian context
  • Part (b): Diagnosis of cyanotic spell/hypercyanotic spell in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) with differential of other cyanotic CHD; emergency management in knee-chest position, oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, sodium bicarbonate if acidotic, and beta-blockers
  • Part (b): Classification of cyanotic CHD into: (1) increased pulmonary blood flow (TAPVC, TGA), (2) decreased pulmonary blood flow (TOF, tricuspid atresia), and (3) parallel circulation (single ventricle, truncus arteriosus)
  • Part (c): Diagnosis of seborrheic dermatitis; sites including scalp, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, glabella, presternal area, interscapular region, and flexural areas
  • Part (c): Role of Malassezia furfur (Pityrosporum ovale) in pathogenesis; treatment with ketoconazole shampoo, topical antifungals, mild topical corticosteroids, and calcineurin inhibitors for maintenance
Q3
50M discuss Chronic renal failure, neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, psoriasis

(a) Discuss in short the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of chronic renal failure. (5+5+5+5=20 marks) (b) (i) Write the causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn. (9 marks) (ii) What is the mechanism of action of phototherapy in the treatment of hyperbilirubinemia? (3 marks) (iii) What are the potential complications of the phototherapy? (3 marks) (9+3+3=15 marks) (c) (i) Mention the nail findings in psoriasis. (5 marks) (ii) Discuss the topical and systemic therapies in psoriasis. (10 marks) (5+10=15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) चिरकारी वृक्क पात की हेतुकी, रोगलाक्षणिक विशेषताओं, जाँचों तथा प्रबंधन के बारे में संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (5+5+5+5=20) (b) (i) नवजात में अयुग्मित अतिबिलिरुबिनरक्तता के कारण लिखिए। (9) (ii) अतिबिलिरुबिनरक्तता के उपचार में प्रकाश-चिकित्सा (फोटोथेरेपी) के कार्य करने की क्या विधि होती है? (3) (iii) फोटोथेरेपी की संभावित जटिलताएँ क्या-क्या हैं? (3) (9+3+3=15) (c) (i) सोरायसिस में नखों में होने वाले परिवर्तनों का उल्लेख कीजिए। (5) (ii) सोरायसिस में दी जाने वाली स्थलीय (टॉपिकल) एवं दैहिक चिकित्सा की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10) (5+10=15)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'discuss' demands a comprehensive, analytical treatment across all five sub-parts. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) given its 20 marks, 30% to part (c) for its integrated therapeutic discussion, and 30% to part (b) with its mechanistic focus. Structure as: brief introduction → systematic coverage of (a) CRF with Indian CKD burden context → (b) neonatal jaundice with NICE/Indian Academy of Pediatrics alignment → (c) psoriasis with nail-specific details → concluding synthesis on chronic disease management.

  • Part (a): CRF aetiology—diabetic nephropathy, HTN, CGN, obstructive uropathy, CIN; CKD staging (GFR-based); uremic manifestations; dialysis modalities and transplant criteria
  • Part (b)(i): Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia causes—physiological, breast milk jaundice, G6PD deficiency (common in India), ABO/Rh incompatibility, spherocytosis, hypothyroidism, Crigler-Najjar
  • Part (b)(ii-iii): Phototherapy mechanism—photoisomerization of unconjugated bilirubin to lumirubin and configurational isomers; complications—bronze baby syndrome, dehydration, retinal damage, skin rash, temperature instability
  • Part (c)(i): Nail findings in psoriasis—oil drop sign, pitting, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis, splinter hemorrhages, nail bed salmon patch
  • Part (c)(ii): Topical therapy—corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues (calcipotriol), dithranol, coal tar; Systemic—methotrexate, cyclosporine, acitretin, biologics (anti-TNF, IL-17/23 inhibitors); PASI scoring relevance
Q4
50M outline Asthma case study, severe acute malnutrition, acute abdomen imaging

(a) A 20-year-old male has presented to the medicine OPD. He has complaints of episodes of breathlessness associated with tightness of chest and wheezing since the childhood. These episodes occurred commonly during the change of season. (i) What is the most probable diagnosis? (2 marks) (ii) How will you confirm the diagnosis? (3 marks) (iii) Discuss in short the clinical features of the disease. (5 marks) (iv) Outline the stepwise approach to the management of the disease. (10 marks) (2+3+5+10=20 marks) (b) (i) What are the criteria for the identification of severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children 6 months to 59 months of age? (5 marks) (ii) Enumerate the criteria for admission in the facility-based care for severe acute malnutrition. (5 marks) (iii) Write ten steps in the management of SAM. (10 marks) (5+5+10=20 marks) (c) Discuss in short the role of X-ray imaging in diagnosing a case of acute abdomen. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक 20-वर्षीय पुरुष कायचिकित्सा ओ० पी० डी० में आया है। उसका कहना है कि बचपन से ही कभी-कभी उसका दम फूलने लगता है, उस समय उसे छाती कसी हुई मालूम होती है और उसकी साँस में घरघराहट होने लगती है। ऐसी घटनाएँ प्रायः ऋतु परिवर्तन काल में घटित हुई हैं। (i) सर्वाधिक संभावित निदान क्या है? (2) (ii) इस निदान की पुष्टि आप कैसे करेंगे? (3) (iii) इस रोग की रोगलाक्षणिक विशेषताओं की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (5) (iv) इस रोग के प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा चरणबद्ध पद्धति से प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (10) (2+3+5+10=20) (b) (i) उन मानकों के विषय में बताइए, जिनके माध्यम से 6 माह से 59 माह की उम्र के बच्चों में प्रचंड तीव्र कुपोषण [सिवियर एक्यूट मैलन्यूट्रिशन (एस० ए० एम०)] की पहचान की जा सकती है। (5) (ii) उन मानकों को गिनाइए, जिनके आधार पर प्रचंड तीव्र कुपोषण पीड़ित बच्चों को सुविधा-आधारित देखभाल (फैसिलिटी-बेस्ड केयर) में भर्ती करने की आवश्यकता पड़ती है। (5) (iii) प्रचंड तीव्र कुपोषण के प्रबंधन के दस चरण कौन-कौन से हैं, लिखिए। (10) (5+5+10=20) (c) तीव्र उदर के रोगी के निदान में एक्स-रे प्रतिबिंबन (इमेजिंग) की भूमिका पर संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (10)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'outline' for part (a)(iv) and the enumeration demands in parts (b) and (c) require structured, hierarchical presentation. Allocate approximately 40% of time/space to part (a) given its 20 marks with clinical reasoning depth, 40% to part (b) for precise WHO criteria and ten-step protocol, and 20% to part (c) for concise radiological differentials. Begin each sub-part with clear headings, use bullet points for criteria and steps, and conclude with brief clinical relevance statements.

  • Part (a): Diagnosis of bronchial asthma with seasonal pattern; confirmation via spirometry with reversibility (FEV1 improvement ≥12% and ≥200ml post-bronchodilator), peak expiratory flow variability; clinical features including episodic dyspnea, wheeze, chest tightness, nocturnal symptoms, triggers; stepwise GINA management from Step 1 (SABA PRN) to Step 5 (high-dose ICS-LABA + add-ons)
  • Part (b)(i): WHO criteria for SAM—weight-for-height/length Z-score <-3 SD OR mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) <11.5 cm OR bilateral pitting edema (nutritional edema); age 6-59 months
  • Part (b)(ii): Facility-based admission criteria—complicated SAM (edema++, severe illness, anorexia, failed outpatient care, HIV/infant <6 months/other danger signs) per WHO/Indian Academy of Pediatrics guidelines
  • Part (b)(iii): Ten steps—treat/prevent hypoglycemia, hypothermia, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, infection, micronutrient deficiencies; initiate cautious feeding, achieve catch-up growth, provide sensory stimulation, prepare for follow-up (WHO protocol)
  • Part (c): X-ray in acute abdomen—erect chest for free air under diaphragm (perforation), supine abdomen for dilated bowel loops/valvulae conniventes/coffee bean sign (volvulus), air-fluid levels on erect abdomen (obstruction), sentinel loop (pancreatitis), psoas shadow obliteration (retroperitoneal pathology), calcifications (renal/ureteric stones, chronic pancreatitis), loss of flank stripe (ascites)

B

Q5
50M Compulsory describe Clinical medicine and public health

(a) A 65-year-old lady has progressively increasing dysphagia for last 6 months. She also has significant weight loss. How will you investigate her? (10 marks) (b) A 42-year-old male, known case of alcoholic liver disease with portal hypertension, is brought to casualty with severe haematemesis. Describe the management of this case. (10 marks) (c) (i) Name any five risk factors associated with pelvic organ prolapse. (ii) Enlist the management options for a 60-year-old postmenopausal lady with procidentia with cystocoele with enterocoele with rectocoele. (5+5=10 marks) (d) Define chronic pelvic pain. What are the various causes of chronic pelvic pain in women? (10 marks) (e) The Janani-Shishu Suraksha Karyakram is a unique national initiative of the Government of India. State in brief the entitlements to pregnant women and neonates under this scheme. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक 65-वर्षीय महिला को विगत 6 माह से निगरण-कष्ट है, जो उत्तरोत्तर बढ़ता जा रहा है। उसके वजन में भी गिरावट हुई है, जो दिखाई देती है। इस महिला की जाँच कैसे की जानी चाहिए? (10 अंक) (b) मद्य युक्त रोग के साथ-साथ प्रतिहारी अतिरक्तदाब से पीड़ित एक 42-वर्षीय पुरुष को प्रचंड रक्तवमन होने पर कैजुअल्टी में लाया गया है। इस रोगी का प्रबंधन कैसे करना होगा, वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (c) (i) श्रोणि अंग भ्रंश (पेल्विक ऑर्गन प्रोलैप्स) से संबंध किन्हीं पांच जोखिमकारी तत्वों के नाम गिनाइए। (ii) एक 60-वर्षीय रजोनिवृत्तुतर महिला, जिसे गर्भाशयपूर्णभ्रंश है, मूत्राशय हर्निया है, आत्र हर्निया है तथा साथ ही मलाशय हर्निया है, उसके प्रबंधन विकल्पों की सूची प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (5+5=10 अंक) (d) चिरकारी श्रोणि वेदना (क्रोनिक पेल्विक पेन) को परिभाषित कीजिए। महिलाओं में चिरकारी श्रोणि वेदना के विभिन्न कारण क्या-क्या हैं? (10 अंक) (e) जननी-शिशु सुरक्षा कार्यक्रम भारत सरकार की राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर चलाई जा रही एक अद्वितीय पहल है। इस योजना के अंतर्गत गर्भवती महिलाओं एवं नवजात शिशुओं की पात्रताओं को संक्षेप में उल्लिखित कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'describe' demands systematic, detailed exposition of clinical features, investigations, and management across all sub-parts. Allocate approximately 20% (10 marks) to each sub-part equally. Structure: begin with (a) dysphagia workup emphasizing malignancy exclusion; (b) emergency variceal bleed protocol with pharmacological and endoscopic steps; (c) prolapse risk factors then comprehensive surgical management for complex procidentia; (d) definition followed by anatomically-organized causes of chronic pelvic pain; (e) JSSK entitlements with specific free services and transport provisions. Use standard headings, prioritize recent Indian guidelines (MOHFW, ICMR), and conclude each part with patient-centered outcomes.

  • (a) Progressive dysphagia with weight loss: prioritize esophageal malignancy; outline stepwise investigation—barium swallow, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, CT chest-abdomen for staging, PET-CT if available; mention differential (achalasia, peptic stricture, external compression)
  • (b) Severe hematemesis in portal hypertension: immediate resuscitation (IV access, fluids, blood products), pharmacotherapy (terlipressin/octreotide, antibiotics), endoscopic band ligation/sclerotherapy as definitive, balloon tamponade as bridge, TIPS for refractory cases; mention Child-Pugh stratification
  • (c)(i) Pelvic organ prolapse risk factors: parity/vaginal delivery, advancing age, menopause/estrogen deficiency, chronic raised intra-abdominal pressure (cough, constipation, heavy lifting), connective tissue disorders
  • (c)(ii) Complex procidentia management: conservative (pessary, pelvic floor exercises) vs surgical—vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair (anterior/posterior colporrhaphy), McCall culdoplasty, sacrospinous fixation, or abdominal/laparoscopic sacrocolpopexy based on fitness
  • (d) Chronic pelvic pain: define as non-cyclic pain ≥6 months; causes—gynecological (endometriosis, adenomyosis, chronic PID, ovarian remnant), urological (interstitial cystitis), gastrointestinal (IBS, IBD), musculoskeletal (pelvic floor tension myalgia), psychological
  • (e) JSSK entitlements: free ANC, delivery (including C-section), postnatal care; free diagnostics, drugs, consumables; free transport from home to facility and back; free treatment of sick neonates up to 30 days including transport between facilities
Q6
50M discuss Obstetrics, vascular surgery and public health

(a) (i) Enumerate the causes for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). (ii) Discuss the management of PPH. (10+10=20 marks) (b) (i) Enumerate the signs of lower limb arterial ischaemia. (ii) Briefly outline the diagnostic workup in a 62-year-old male with atherosclerotic lower limb peripheral arterial disease. (iii) State the management of this case. (5+5+5=15 marks) (c) The National Rural Health Mission is committed towards improving rural healthcare delivery system in the country. State the major initiatives that have been undertaken under this Mission to strengthen the healthcare infrastructure in rural areas. (15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) प्रसवोत्तर रक्तस्राव (पी. पी. एच.) के कारणों को गिनाइए। (ii) प्रसवोत्तर रक्तस्राव के प्रबंधन की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10+10=20 अंक) (b) (i) अधःशाखा धमनी अरक्तता के लक्षण गिनाइए। (ii) एक 62-वर्षीय पुरुष, जिसकी अधःशाखा में एथेरोस्क्लेरोटिक परिसरिय धमनी रोग है, के नैदानिक (डायग्नोस्टिक) वर्क-अप की संक्षिप्त रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (iii) इस रोगी का प्रबंधन कैसे होगा, वर्णन कीजिए। (5+5+5=15 अंक) (c) राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण स्वास्थ्य मिशन देश में ग्रामीण स्वास्थ्य देखभाल वितरण प्रणाली में सुधार के लिए प्रतिबद्ध है। ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में स्वास्थ्य सेवा के बुनियादी ढांचे को मजबूत करने के लिए इस मिशन के अंतर्गत कौन-कौन सी प्रमुख पहल की गई हैं? (15 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

The primary directive is 'discuss' for PPH management (10 marks), with secondary directives 'enumerate' for causes and signs, 'outline' for diagnostic workup, and 'state' for management and NRHM initiatives. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) PPH (20 marks), 30% to part (b) peripheral arterial disease (15 marks), and 30% to part (c) NRHM (15 marks). Structure with brief introductions for each part, systematic enumeration followed by explanatory discussion where demanded, and conclude with integrated takeaways on emergency preparedness and rural healthcare strengthening.

  • Part (a)(i): Enumerate 4Ts of PPH causes (Tone-uterine atony, Trauma, Tissue-retained placenta, Thrombin-coagulopathy) plus additional causes like uterine inversion, lacerations
  • Part (a)(ii): Discuss medical management (uterotonics: oxytocin, misoprostol, ergometrine, carboprost), mechanical methods (uterine massage, bimanual compression), surgical interventions (B-Lynch suture, uterine artery ligation, hysterectomy), and WHO/FIGO guidelines
  • Part (b)(i): Enumerate 6Ps of acute ischaemia (Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paralysis, Paraesthesia, Poikilothermia) plus Rutherford classification stages, chronic limb threatening ischaemia signs
  • Part (b)(ii-iii): Outline ABI measurement, duplex ultrasound, CTA/MRA angiography; state management including risk factor modification, antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel), statins, cilostazol, endovascular interventions (angioplasty, stenting), and bypass surgery
  • Part (c): State ASHA workers, Janani Suraksha Yojana, Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, Mobile Medical Units, Rogi Kalyan Samitis, Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), and Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) roles in rural healthcare infrastructure
Q7
50M enumerate Radiology, biochemistry and gynecology

(a) (i) Enumerate the causes of radio-opacities on a plain abdominal radiograph. (ii) Enlist the causes of hydronephrosis in adults. (iii) How would you investigate an adult patient with unilateral right-sided hydronephrosis? (iv) State in brief the management of PUJ obstruction. (5+5+5+5=20 marks) (b) (i) What are essential amino acids? List any six. (ii) When is a protein said to be 'biologically complete'? What does the term 'supplementary action of proteins' mean? Explain this concept by citing an example from daily life. (5+10=15 marks) (c) (i) What are the methods for screening of cancer cervix? (ii) What are the risk factors for cervical cancer? (iii) Enlist the preventive strategies for cancer cervix. (5+5+5=15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) उदर के साधारण एक्स-रे बिंब (रेडियोग्राफ) पर दृश्यगत एक्स-रे अपारदर्शिताओं (रेडियो-ओपेसिटीज) के कारण गिनाइए। (ii) वयस्कों में जलवृक्कता (हाइड्रोनेफ्रोसिस) के कारण गिनाइए। (iii) एक वयस्क रोगी, जिसे एक-तरफा दाहिनी ओर जलवृक्कता है, की जाँच कैसे करनी होगी? (iv) पी० यू० जे० अवरोध के प्रबंधन का संक्षेप में उल्लेख कीजिए। (5+5+5+5=20) (b) (i) आवश्यक ऐमिनो ऐसिड क्या हैं? किन्हीं छः के नाम बताइए। (ii) किसी प्रोटीन को 'जैविक रूप से पूर्ण' कब कहा जाता है? 'प्रोटीनों की पूरक क्रिया' का क्या अर्थ है? दैनिक जीवन से एक उदाहरण देते हुए इस सिद्धांत को समझाइए। (5+10=15) (c) (i) गर्भाशयग्रीवा कैंसर के लिए स्क्रीनिंग करने की क्या-क्या विधियाँ हैं? (ii) ऐसे कौन-कौन से जोखिमकारी तत्त्व हैं, जो गर्भाशयग्रीवा कैंसर से संबंधित हैं? (iii) गर्भाशयग्रीवा कैंसर निरोधक रणनीतियों की सूची प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (5+5+5=15)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'enumerate' demands systematic listing with brief elaboration. Allocate approximately 40% effort to part (a) radiology (20 marks), 30% to part (b) biochemistry (15 marks), and 30% to part (c) gynecology (15 marks). Structure as: brief introduction → systematic enumeration for each sub-part with 1-2 lines per point → concluding summary emphasizing clinical integration across radiology, biochemistry, and public health.

  • Part (a)(i): Causes of radio-opacities on plain AXR—renal/ureteric calculi, calcified lymph nodes, vascular calcifications, gallstones (if calcified), foreign bodies, calcified masses
  • Part (a)(ii)-(iv): Causes of adult hydronephrosis (obstructive vs non-obstructive), stepwise investigation protocol (USG → CT-IVU → nuclear renogram), and PUJ obstruction management (endopyelotomy vs laparoscopic pyeloplasty vs open Anderson-Hynes)
  • Part (b)(i)-(ii): Essential amino acids definition and six examples (PVT TIM HALL mnemonic), biological completeness criteria (all essential amino acids in adequate proportion), supplementary action with Indian dietary example (cereal-pulse combination like rice-dal)
  • Part (c)(i)-(iii): Cervical cancer screening methods (Pap smear, VIA, HPV DNA testing), risk factors (HPV 16/18, early marriage, multiparity, smoking, HIV), preventive strategies (HPV vaccination, screening, safe sex practices, WHO 90-70-90 targets)
  • Integration point: Link PUJ obstruction management to renal preservation principles; connect protein supplementation to Indian public health programs (ICDS, midday meal); tie cervical cancer prevention to National Cancer Control Programme
Q8
50M state Malaria elimination, obstetrics and surgery

(a) State the vision, goals and objectives of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India, 2016-2030. What are the milestones and targets to be met under this framework by the years 2024, 2027 and 2030? Outline the broad strategies of this national framework. (20 marks) (b) (i) How do you grade anaemia in pregnancy based on the haemoglobin levels as per the World Health Organization? (ii) List the complications of anaemia in pregnancy. (iii) Briefly outline the management of a pregnant woman with severe anaemia in labour. (5+5+5=15 marks) (c) (i) Enumerate the therapeutic indications of splenectomy. (ii) Briefly mention the aetiopathogenesis and prophylaxis of 'overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI)' syndrome. (5+10=15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) मलेरिया उन्मूलन की भारतीय राष्ट्रीय रूपरेखा, 2016-2030 का दृष्टिकोण, लक्ष्य और उद्देश्य बताइए। इस रूपरेखा के क्या-क्या मील के पत्थर हैं और क्या-क्या लक्ष्य हैं जिन्हें 2024, 2027 और 2030 तक पूरा किया जाना है? इस राष्ट्रीय रूपरेखा की व्यापक रणनीतियाँ क्या हैं? (20) (b) (i) विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन के अनुसार हीमोग्लोबिन के स्तर के आधार पर गर्भावस्था में अरक्तता को किस प्रकार वर्गीकृत किया जाता है? (ii) गर्भावस्था में अरक्तता से उत्पन्न होने वाली जटिलताओं की सूची प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (iii) प्रचंड अरक्तता से पीड़ित गर्भवती महिला, जो प्रसव के चरण में है, के प्रबंधन की संक्षिप्त रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (5+5+5=15) (c) (i) प्लीहा-उच्छेदन के चिकित्सार्थ संकेत गिनाइए। (ii) 'प्लीहा-उच्छेदन पश्चात् दुर्दमनीय संक्रमण [ओवरवेल्मिंग पोस्ट-स्प्लीनिक्टोमी इन्फेक्शन (ओ. पी. एस. आई.)]' संलक्षण के हेतुकी-विकृतिजनन तथा रोगनिरोध पर संक्षेप में लिखिए। (5+10=15)

Answer approach & key points

Begin with the directive 'state' for part (a), which demands precise factual recall of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination. Allocate approximately 40% of time/words to part (a) given its 20 marks, covering vision, goals, objectives, milestones (2024, 2027, 2030) and broad strategies. For part (b) (30% allocation), apply 'how' for grading anaemia, 'list' for complications, and 'outline' for labour management. For part (c) (30% allocation), use 'enumerate' for splenectomy indications and 'mention' for OPSI pathogenesis and prophylaxis. Structure as: (a) comprehensive framework details → (b) obstetric anaemia progression from diagnosis to emergency management → (c) surgical indications leading to immunological consequences.

  • Part (a): Vision of malaria-free India; goals of elimination in low-burden states by 2024, all states by 2027, maintenance by 2030; objectives of reducing API, mortality, indigenous cases; milestones (2024: zero indigenous in category 1 states, 2027: zero indigenous nationwide, 2030: prevention of re-establishment); strategies including case-based surveillance, vector control, cross-border coordination
  • Part (b)(i): WHO haemoglobin grading in pregnancy—mild (10.0-10.9 g/dL), moderate (7.0-9.9 g/dL), severe (<7.0 g/dL); physiological dilution consideration
  • Part (b)(ii): Maternal complications (heart failure, infection, PPH, eclampsia, maternal death); fetal complications (IUGR, preterm labour, low birth weight, perinatal mortality)
  • Part (b)(iii): Labour management of severe anaemia—oxygen, IV access, blood transfusion criteria (Hb <5 g/dL or 5-7 g/dL with complications), active management of third stage, ergometrine avoidance, iron/folate supplementation, cardiorespiratory monitoring
  • Part (c)(i): Therapeutic splenectomy indications—hereditary spherocytosis, ITP refractory, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, thalassaemia major, hypersplenism, trauma, lymphoproliferative disorders, staging laparotomy for Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Part (c)(ii): OPSI aetiopathogenesis—impaired opsonization, decreased IgM/IgG production, defective clearance of encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis); fulminant sepsis within 2 years post-splenectomy; prophylaxis—pneumococcal, meningococcal, Hib vaccines, daily penicillin prophylaxis, patient education, emergency standby antibiotics

Practice Medical Science 2023 Paper II answer writing

Pick any question above, write your answer, and get a detailed AI evaluation against UPSC's standard rubric.

Start free evaluation →