GS Paper I of the 2024 Preliminary examination, held on 16 June 2024. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Polity & Governance 21, Environment & Ecology 19, Geography 18, Economy 16, History 9, General Science 8, Current Events 5.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of live births a woman would have over her reproductive lifetime (usually ages 15–49) if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Portfolio/Institutional Investors may hold Government Securities within limits set by the RBI and SEBI, and since 2020 certain securities are 'fully accessible' to them without limit.
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Insurance companies are among the largest institutional holders of Government Securities and corporate bonds, since regulators require them to invest a large share of their funds in such instruments — item 1 qualifies.
Consider the following : 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A financial instrument is a contract that creates a financial asset for one party and a financial liability or equity for another — shares, bonds, derivatives, deposits.
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs : Economic activity | Sector 1. Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary 2. Dairy farm | Primary 3. Mineral exploration | Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth | Secondary How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The primary sector extracts natural resources (farming, dairying, mining, quarrying, fishing); the secondary sector manufactures goods; the tertiary sector provides services. Pair 2 is correct: a dairy farm produces milk directly from animals — a primary activity.
Consider the following materials : 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) is jet fuel made from non-petroleum feedstocks that cut life-cycle emissions by up to 80%, and can be blended with conventional fuel.
With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs : Items | Category 1. Farmer's plough | Working capital 2. Computer | Fixed capital 3. Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital 4. Petrol | Working capital How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Physical capital is of two kinds: fixed capital — tools, machines and buildings used over many years — and working capital — raw materials and money that are used up in a single production cycle. Pair 2 is correct: a computer is a durable tool used repeatedly, hence fixed capital.
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items" ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The description — interoperable 3D virtual worlds, accessed simultaneously by millions, with property rights over virtual items — is the standard definition of the 'metaverse', option (c).
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements : 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under the RBI's 2013 framework, foreign banks may operate in India either as branches or as wholly owned subsidiaries (WOS), with the WOS route encouraged for systemically important banks.
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements : 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the CSR Rules, 2014 govern corporate social responsibility in India. Statement 1 is correct: the Rules exclude from CSR any activity undertaken in the normal course of business, activities benefiting only the company's employees and their families, and…
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements : 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — An RTG converts the heat of natural radioactive decay directly into electricity using thermocouples (the Seebeck effect); there is no chain reaction, so statement 1 calling them 'miniature fission reactors' is wrong.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A star's lifetime depends on how fast it burns its fuel: massive giant stars have far higher core temperatures and pressures, so nuclear fusion proceeds at a much greater rate — Statement II is correct.
Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Nitric oxide (NO) is produced in the body from the amino acid arginine by nitric oxide synthase in the lining of blood vessels.
Consider the following activities : 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Radar detects objects by bouncing radio waves off them; its uses depend on what reflects the waves. Activity 2 qualifies: weather (Doppler) radars track precipitation, its intensity and movement — the IMD's network is built on them.
Consider the following aircraft : 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Fifth-generation fighters are defined by all-aspect stealth, internal weapons bays, sensor fusion and supercruise; the only ones in service are the American F-22 and F-35, China's J-20 and Russia's Su-57. The Rafale is a 4.5-generation multirole fighter — highly capable but not stealthy.
In which of the following are hydrogels used ? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Hydrogels are three-dimensional networks of hydrophilic polymers that hold large amounts of water while keeping their shape, and are soft and biocompatible.
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A hydrogen fuel-cell vehicle combines hydrogen from its tank with oxygen from the air in a proton-exchange-membrane fuel cell; the reaction produces electricity to drive the motor, with water as the only chemical product.
Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pumped-storage hydropower uses two reservoirs at different heights: when electricity is cheap or surplus (e.g. midday solar), water is pumped uphill; when demand peaks, it is released through turbines to generate power.
"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of :
UPSC's answer: (d) — A membrane bioreactor (MBR) combines biological treatment of sewage by microorganisms (activated sludge) with membrane filtration (micro- or ultrafiltration) that replaces the conventional settling tank.
With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) was a money-market instrument operated by the Clearing Corporation of India for borrowing and lending funds for one day to one year against government securities held as collateral.
Consider the following airports : 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A greenfield airport is built from scratch on a new site; a brownfield project expands or modernises an existing airport. Donyi Polo Airport at Hollongi near Itanagar, opened in November 2022, is Arunachal Pradesh's first greenfield airport — item 1 qualifies.
With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Water vapour is the gaseous form of water and the most variable constituent of the atmosphere, ranging from near zero to about 4% by volume.
Consider the following description : 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm. What is this type of climate ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Marine West Coast (British type) climate lies on the western margins of continents between 40° and 60° latitude, under the influence of onshore westerlies and warm ocean currents.
With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Coriolis force is an apparent force arising from the Earth's rotation; it deflects moving air and water to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern.
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — On 21 June, the summer solstice, the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer and the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards it.
One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Cuvette Centrale peatlands of the Congo Basin, straddling the Republic of Congo and the DR Congo, were mapped in 2017 as the world's largest tropical peatland complex, covering about 145,000 sq km.
With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements : 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — PFAS are a family of thousands of synthetic chemicals used since the 1940s for their water-, grease- and stain-repellent properties — in non-stick cookware, waterproof fabrics, firefighting foam and food packaging.
Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — A parasitoid is an organism whose larva develops on or inside a single host and ultimately kills it — unlike a true parasite, which usually keeps its host alive.
Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The pea family, Fabaceae (Leguminosae), includes all plants that bear pods and typically fix nitrogen through root nodules. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) is a legume whose pods develop underground — it belongs to the pea family.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II : Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Incoming solar radiation is short-wave; the atmosphere is largely transparent to it and absorbs only about a fifth, so most of it reaches and heats the ground.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II : At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The troposphere is about 16–18 km thick at the equator but only about 8 km at the poles — Statement-I is correct. At the equator intense surface heating drives strong convectional currents that carry heat and moisture to great heights, pushing the tropopause upward; at the cold poles convection is…
Consider the following : 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A volcanic eruption ejects solid, liquid and gaseous products. Pyroclastic debris — fragments of rock, bombs, lapilli and pumice hurled from the vent — is a solid product (item 1). Ash and dust are the finest pyroclastic particles, which can travel thousands of kilometres and dim sunlight (item 2).
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January ? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — In January (Northern winter) the continents are colder than the oceans at the same latitude, so isotherms bend southward (equatorward) over the land and northward (poleward) over the warmer oceans — statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Cocoa is a crop of the humid tropics, grown mainly within 10° of the equator in West Africa, Latin America and South-east Asia.
With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Downstream of Prayagraj the Ganga receives its major Himalayan left-bank tributaries in the Uttar Pradesh–Bihar plain. The Gomati joins first, near Ghazipur (Kaithi) in eastern Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II : Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III : Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Rainfall causes chemical weathering because rainwater is not pure: it carries dissolved gases from the atmosphere. Statement-II is correct: rainwater absorbs carbon dioxide to form weak carbonic acid, which dissolves limestone and alters feldspars (carbonation and hydrolysis) — an explanation of…
Consider the following countries : 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The North Sea is the arm of the Atlantic between Great Britain and mainland Europe, bordered by the UK, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and France. Germany's North Sea coast lies around the Elbe and Weser estuaries and the Frisian islands — it qualifies.
Consider the following information : Waterfall | Region | River 1. Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada 2. Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Row 2 is correct: Hundru Falls, on the Subarnarekha river near Ranchi, lies on the Chota Nagpur plateau of Jharkhand. Row 1 is wrong on the region: Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, which is in the Mahakoshal region of Madhya Pradesh, not Malwa (the plateau around…
Consider the following information : Region | Name of the mountain range | Type of mountain 1. Central Asia | Vosges | Fold mountain 2. Europe | Alps | Block mountain 3. North America | Appalachians | Fold mountain 4. South America | Andes | Fold mountain In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Row 3 is correct: the Appalachians of eastern North America are ancient (Palaeozoic) fold mountains, now worn down. Row 4 is correct: the Andes of South America are young fold mountains formed by subduction of the Nazca plate under the South American plate.
The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Cicadas are large sap-sucking insects of the order Hemiptera, famous for their loud summer song and for species that emerge every 13 or 17 years. Froghoppers (spittlebugs) are small jumping hemipteran insects whose nymphs hide in frothy 'cuckoo spit' on plant stems.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Most commercial chewing gums use a synthetic 'gum base' made of polymers such as polyvinyl acetate and polyisobutylene — the same plastics found in glues and inner tubes — rather than natural chicle; Statement-II is correct.
Consider the following pairs : Country | Animal found in its natural habitat 1. Brazil | Indri 2. Indonesia | Elk 3. Madagascar | Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The indri is the largest living lemur and is found only in the rainforests of Madagascar — not Brazil, so pair 1 is wrong. The elk (wapiti) is a large deer of North America and north-east Asia's temperate forests; it does not occur in tropical Indonesia — pair 2 is wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization : 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The World Toilet Organization is a Singapore-based non-profit founded in 2001 by Jack Sim to break the taboo around sanitation; it is not a UN agency, so statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: lions breed throughout the year; lionesses in a pride often synchronise births but there is no fixed breeding season.
Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers" ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — '100 Million Farmers' is a flagship initiative of the World Economic Forum, launched in 2021, that brings together governments, businesses and farmers to speed up the shift to food and water systems that are net-zero in carbon and nature-positive by 2030.
Consider the following : 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources" ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale generation or storage units located at or near the point of consumption and connected to the distribution grid, as opposed to large centralised power stations.
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Fig trees (Ficus) and fig wasps (family Agaonidae) have coevolved for about 80 million years in an obligate mutualism: each fig species is pollinated by its own specific wasp species.
Consider the following : 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Poisonous species — those harmful when touched or eaten — occur in all three groups. Butterflies such as the monarch and India's common crow and plain tiger sequester toxic alkaloids or cardiac glycosides from their larval food plants, making them unpalatable and poisonous to predators (item 1).
Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is endemic to the Seshachalam and neighbouring hills of southern Andhra Pradesh; it is native to India and heavily smuggled for its red heartwood — item 3 qualifies.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II : There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Sahel — the semi-arid belt south of the Sahara from Mauritania to Sudan — has become one of the world's most unstable regions, with jihadist insurgencies (JNIM, Islamic State Sahel), communal violence and millions displaced; Statement-I is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-I is incorrect: India does import apples from the United States — Washington apples are a major import, and in 2023 India removed the retaliatory tariffs it had imposed on US apples in 2019, boosting the trade.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Article 96 governs the Speaker's position when a resolution for his or her removal is under consideration. Statement 1 is correct: the Speaker shall not preside at the sitting, even if present; the Deputy Speaker or another member presides.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 107(5) and parliamentary practice lay down which bills lapse when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. Statement 1 is correct: a bill pending in the Lok Sabha, whether originating there or transmitted by the Rajya Sabha, lapses.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Prorogation ends a session of a House and is done by the President under Article 85; like all executive acts it is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in April 2024; it aims for the EU to manufacture at least 40% of its annual deployment needs in strategic clean technologies (solar, wind, batteries, heat pumps, electrolysers) by 2030 — Statement-I is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II : Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement-II is correct: Venezuela holds the world's largest proven oil reserves — about 300 billion barrels, mostly heavy crude in the Orinoco belt — ahead of Saudi Arabia.
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP), run by the Department of Land Resources since 2016 as a Central Sector scheme, aims at a transparent, integrated land-records system. Statement 1 is correct: as a Central Sector scheme it is funded 100% by the Central Government.
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements : 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — PMSMA (2016) provides free, assured antenatal care to pregnant women on the 9th of every month at government health facilities, focused on the second and third trimesters, to detect high-risk pregnancies.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — PM-SYM (2019) is a voluntary, contributory pension scheme for unorganised workers earning up to ₹15,000 a month, run by the Ministry of Labour and Employment with LIC as fund manager. Statement 1 is wrong: the entry age is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' : 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam — the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 — reserves one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and the Delhi Assembly for women.
Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct ? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Exercise Mitra Shakti is the annual bilateral military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, begun in 2012; statement 1, which names Bangladesh, is wrong (India–Bangladesh exercise is 'Sampriti').
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Prohibition literally means 'to forbid'; the writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction it does not have — option (c).
Consider the following statements : 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under Article 342 it is the President who, by public notification after consulting the Governor, specifies the tribes or tribal communities to be deemed Scheduled Tribes in a State; later changes can be made only by Parliament — so statement 1, which credits the Governor, is wrong.
Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters" ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024) were written by Dr S. Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister and former Foreign Secretary.
Consider the following pairs : Country | Reason for being in the news 1. Argentina | Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan | War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey | Rescinded its membership of NATO How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Argentina has been in the news for one of its worst economic crises — inflation above 200%, a collapsing peso and repeated IMF bailouts — leading to President Milei's 'shock therapy' from December 2023.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The SUMED (Suez–Mediterranean) pipeline runs 320 km across Egypt from Ain Sukhna on the Gulf of Suez (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir near Alexandria on the Mediterranean — Statement-II is correct.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Red Sea lies between the Sahara and Arabian deserts in one of the driest regions on Earth; rainfall is under 10 cm a year and mostly negligible — statement 1 is correct. No permanent river drains into the Red Sea; only occasional wadis flow briefly after rare storms — statement 2 is correct.
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities, since coal and oil contain sulphur that is oxidised on combustion — option (d).
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — When the Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946, Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, its oldest member, was elected temporary (provisional) President, following the French practice. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President two days later, on 11 December 1946, and H.C.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements : 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: the Act provided for an All-India Federation of the British Indian provinces and the princely states, though it never came into being because the states did not accede.
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Bhasa, one of the earliest Sanskrit dramatists (c. 2nd–4th century CE), was rediscovered in 1912 when thirteen 'Trivandrum plays' were found in Kerala. Madhyama-vyayoga ('The Middle One') is a one-act play from this group, based on an episode involving Bhima and his son Ghatotkacha — option (c).
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Sanghabhuti was a Kashmiri Buddhist monk who reached China around 381 CE and worked at Chang'an translating texts of the Sarvastivada school. His known work is a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya — the monastic code of that school — which he translated and expounded in Chinese — option (c).
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO : 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023 ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — At the 45th session of the World Heritage Committee (Riyadh, September 2023) India gained two new inscriptions: Santiniketan, Tagore's university town in West Bengal, and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas — the temples at Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura in Karnataka.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of : 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Article 368(1), inserted by the 24th Amendment (1971), declares that Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' any provision of the Constitution. Addition means inserting new provisions (e.g.
Consider the following countries : 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Italy, Japan and South Korea are regularly in the news for demographic decline: Japan's population has fallen every year since 2008; South Korea has the world's lowest fertility rate (about 0.7); Italy's fertility is around 1.2 and its population is shrinking and ageing.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills; Article 110 defines them. Statement 2 is correct: a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and only on the President's recommendation.
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ? Army | Airforce | Navy 1. Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander 2. Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral 3. Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The three services have parallel rank structures; the correct equivalents are: Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commodore; Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral; Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander; Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The North Eastern Council, set up under the NEC Act, 1971, is the regional planning body for the eight North-eastern States, headquartered at Shillong.
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — US Treasury securities are unsecured obligations: they are backed by the 'full faith and credit' of the US Government — its taxing power and promise to pay — not by gold or any other hard asset; Statement-II is correct.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The digital rupee (e₹), piloted by the RBI from late 2022, is India's central bank digital currency. Statement 1 is correct: it is legal tender issued by the RBI as sovereign currency, consistent with its monetary policy, in the same denominations as notes and coins.
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Shakyamuni, 'sage of the Shakya clan', is one of the Buddha's commonest epithets, referring to his birth in the Shakya republic at Lumbini — item 2 is correct. Tathagata, 'thus-gone' or 'thus-come', is the title the Buddha most often used for himself in the Pali suttas — item 3 is correct.
Consider the following information : Archaeological Site | State | Description 1. Chandraketugarh | Odisha | Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon | Maharashtra | Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu | Kerala | Megalithic site 4. Salihundam | Andhra Pradesh | Rock-cut cave shrines In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Row 2 is correct: Inamgaon on the Ghod river in Pune district, Maharashtra, is a major Chalcolithic (Jorwe culture) site with evidence of houses, granaries and burials. Row 3 is correct: Mangadu in Kollam district, Kerala, is a Megalithic site with urn and cist burials.
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Bhatkal, on the Karnataka coast, was a key port of the Vijayanagara empire for importing Arabian horses, which the Portuguese controlled after taking Goa in 1510.
Consider the following statements : 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Upanishads teach through parables and dialogues — Satyakama Jabala, Nachiketa and Yama in the Katha Upanishad, Uddalaka's lesson to Shvetaketu with the banyan seed and salt in water in the Chhandogya Upanishad.
Consider the following statements : 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The International Grains Council is an intergovernmental body headquartered in London that administers the Grains Trade Convention (1995), promotes cooperation in grain trade and publishes market information. Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the Council.
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — India's entries on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity are dated: Chhau dance was inscribed in 2010, Kumbh Mela in 2017 and Durga Puja in Kolkata in 2021.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023 ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under Article 82, Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after each census and a Delimitation Commission then redraws constituency boundaries. Commissions have been constituted four times: under the Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — option (d).
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Eighth Schedule originally listed 14 languages; Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967). The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 added three languages — Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali — raising the total to 18 (items 1, 2 and 3).
Consider the following pairs : Party | Its Leader 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951 after leaving Nehru's cabinet. Pair 3 is correct: Jagjivan Ram left the Congress in February 1977 to form the Congress for Democracy, which allied with the Janata Party.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Constitution is organised into 25 Parts; knowing the subject of each is a standard polity test. Statement 1 is correct: Part IXA (Articles 243P–243ZG), inserted by the 74th Amendment, deals with Municipalities and their powers.
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Seventh Schedule allocates subjects among the Union, State and Concurrent Lists; inter-State matters are generally placed with the Union. Inter-State quarantine is Entry 81 of the Union List, so option (c) is correct.
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right.
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs ? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The post of Chief of Defence Staff was created in December 2019 on the Kargil Review Committee's recommendation; General Bipin Rawat was the first CDS. Statement 1 is correct: the CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's long-running civic-action programme in Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh and the North-east, building schools, health camps, vocational centres and infrastructure to win hearts and minds in remote and insurgency-affected areas — option (c).
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Canada–United States border is the longest international boundary in the world at about 8,890 km, including the 2,475-km Alaska–Yukon/British Columbia section. Kazakhstan–Russia is the longest continuous land border (about 7,600 km) but is shorter overall than the Canada–US frontier.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct ? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was first constituted as an ad-hoc committee in 2000 and made a permanent Standing Committee in 2015 — statement 1 is correct.
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