GS Paper I of the 2025 Preliminary examination, held on 25 May 2025. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 21, History 16, General Science 15, Polity & Governance 14, Environment & Ecology 13, Geography 12, Current Events 8.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
UPSC's answer: (c) — 'Alternative powertrain' means any propulsion system other than the conventional petrol or diesel internal-combustion engine. Full battery electric vehicles run on an electric motor fed by a rechargeable battery — clearly alternative (I).
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements : I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — UAVs come in several classes: multirotor (quadcopters), fixed-wing, hybrid VTOL and single-rotor; the statements generalise features that belong to only some classes.
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements : I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A lithium-ion cell has a cathode (positive electrode), an anode (negative electrode), an electrolyte and a separator; lithium ions shuttle between the two electrodes.
Consider the following : I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Cigarette filters are made of cellulose acetate, a plastic fibre; discarded butts are the single most littered plastic item in the world and take years to degrade — I contains plastic.
Consider the following substances : I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Coal gasification reacts coal with steam and oxygen at high temperature to produce syngas — a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen — which is a feedstock for many chemicals.
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
UPSC's answer: (b) — CL-20 (hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (octogen) and LLM-105 are nitramine and nitro-heterocyclic compounds classed as high-energy explosives.
Consider the following statements : I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Majorana 1, unveiled in February 2025, is a quantum processor built on a 'topological core' using Majorana quasiparticles, intended to make qubits more stable and scalable — statement I is correct.
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements : I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced protein molecules, cloned from a single immune cell line so that every antibody is identical — statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements : I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement I is wrong: the oceans hold an estimated 10^30 viruses — mostly bacteriophages — making them the most abundant biological entities on Earth; a litre of seawater contains billions.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II : Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement I says activated carbon is an effective and attractive tool for treating industrial effluents; the question is whether statements II and III are true and whether they explain why.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II : Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III : Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Cement is responsible for roughly 7–8% of global CO2 emissions, so statement I's 'more than 5%' is correct; the question is which of II and III explains that.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II : The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III : If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — At COP28 in Dubai (December 2023) India did not sign the Declaration on Climate and Health, which over 120 countries endorsed — statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II : Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III : As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Studies using satellite and GRACE gravity data show the Earth's rotation axis (the 'pole') has drifted measurably in recent decades — statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Article 6 of the Paris Agreement governs how countries may cooperate to meet their Nationally Determined Contributions; its rulebook was finalised only at COP26 (Glasgow) and COP29 (Baku), which is why it is so often discussed — statement I is correct.
Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was launched by the Asian Development Bank in 2024 to mobilise finance for nature-based solutions such as mangrove restoration, watershed protection and sustainable agriculture.
With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Direct Air Capture (DAC) uses fans and chemical sorbents to pull carbon dioxide straight out of ambient air, unlike point-source capture at a chimney.
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements : I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), famed for its metallic blue colour, is a spider — an arachnid, not a crustacean — and, like all tarantulas, a carnivore that eats insects; statement I is wrong on both counts.
Consider the following statements : I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0·5 t CO₂/capita. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement I is wrong: India's per-capita CO2 emissions are about 1.9–2.0 tonnes a year — low by world standards (global average about 4.7 t) but well above 0.5 t.
Consider the following pairs : Plant Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Cassava (tapioca) is a woody perennial shrub grown for its starchy tuberous roots — pair I is correct. Ginger is a herbaceous perennial whose 'stem' above ground is a pseudostem formed by tightly rolled leaf sheaths, like banana and turmeric — pair II is correct.
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements : I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement II is correct: marine phytoplankton, algae and photosynthetic bacteria such as Prochlorococcus generate roughly half of the oxygen produced on Earth each year.
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy : I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1772–1833), founder of the Brahmo Sabha, is regarded as the father of the Indian renaissance because he combined reverence for India's heritage with modern reason.
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme : I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Non-Cooperation programme adopted at the Calcutta (September 1920) and Nagpur (December 1920) sessions had a negative side (withdrawal of cooperation) and a positive side (constructive work).
The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
UPSC's answer: (b) — The araghatta, later known as the Persian wheel (rahat), was the chief irrigation device of early medieval India, mentioned in texts from the Gupta period onward.
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630 CE), the Pallava king of Kanchi, was a poet, musician and patron who took the titles Mattavilasa ('drunken sport'), Vichitrachitta ('curious-minded') and Gunabhara ('bearer of virtues').
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
UPSC's answer: (b) — Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India between about 399 and 412 CE to collect Buddhist texts, travelling through Gandhara, Mathura, Pataliputra and Tamralipti before sailing home via Sri Lanka. These years fall within the reign of Chandragupta II 'Vikramaditya' (c. 375–415 CE), so option (b) is correct.
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Rajendra I Chola (1014–1044), son of Rajaraja I, sent a naval expedition across the Bay of Bengal in about 1025 against the Srivijaya empire, which controlled the Malacca and Sunda straits from Sumatra and the Malay peninsula.
With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs : Territorial region : River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti : Mahanadi IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The sixteen mahajanapadas of the sixth century BCE can be located by their rivers. Pair I is correct: Asmaka (Assaka), the only southern mahajanapada, lay on the Godavari with its capital at Potana/Paithan.
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar, a Gwalior-gharana vocalist, founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore on 5 May 1901 to take classical music out of the courts and into public education.
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the
UPSC's answer: (b) — Ashoka's edicts (notably Rock Edict III and Pillar Edict IV) name the Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta as officials sent on tours every five years to proclaim dhamma and check administration.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement : I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — At the Nagpur session of December 1920 the Congress changed its creed to the attainment of Swaraj 'by all legitimate and peaceful means', replacing the earlier goal of self-government within the Empire by constitutional means — statement I is correct.
With reference to investments, consider the following : I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under SEBI's Alternative Investment Funds Regulations, 2012, an AIF is a privately pooled vehicle investing outside the conventional routes of listed stocks, bonds and mutual funds.
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The RBI's income comes chiefly from interest on the government securities it holds (bought and sold through open market operations) and from returns and revaluation gains on its foreign-currency assets, which it buys and sells to manage the rupee — items I and II are sources of income.
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information : Organization | Some of its functions | It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Row I is wrong: the Directorate of Enforcement does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance — not the Internal Security Division of the Home Ministry.
Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report is mandated by SEBI, the securities regulator, not the RBI: since FY 2022–23 the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation must file it with their annual report — statement I is wrong.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II : In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement I is not correct: only 'agricultural income' as defined in Section 2(1A) of the Income-tax Act — income from land used for cultivation — is exempt under Section 10(1); income from poultry farming, dairying, wool rearing and similar allied activities does not involve cultivating land and…
Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement I is correct: India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership in June 2023, a grouping of 14 countries and the EU that seeks to secure supply chains for critical minerals.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II : Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement I is correct: bondholders receive fixed interest and repayment of principal, so their returns are more predictable than those of stockholders, who bear the residual risk of the business.
Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement I is correct: India accounts for the bulk of equity option contracts traded worldwide — NSE alone handles most global index-option volume — reflecting a retail derivatives boom.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II : Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III : Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair, remanufacturing and recycling, in contrast to the linear 'take-make-dispose' model. Statement II is correct: by recovering materials from used products it cuts the extraction of virgin raw materials.
Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — In the Union Budget, receipts are classified as revenue or capital by their effect on the government's balance sheet. Statement I is correct: capital receipts either create a liability (borrowings) or reduce an asset (sale of shares in PSUs, recovery of loans).
Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
UPSC's answer: (b) — NATO has 32 members after Finland (2023) and Sweden (March 2024) joined in response to Russia's invasion of Ukraine. Bulgaria joined in 2004, Croatia in 2009, North Macedonia in 2020 and Sweden in 2024 — four of the listed countries are members.
Consider the following countries : I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Andes run about 7,000 km along the western edge of South America through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. Of the listed countries, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the range — four.
Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The equator (0° latitude) crosses Africa through Gabon, Congo, DR Congo, Uganda, Kenya and Somalia, and South America through Ecuador, Colombia and Brazil. Lake Tanganyika lies between about 3° S and 9° S in the African Rift; the equator passes north of it, through Lake Victoria instead.
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23 : I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — India produces over 70% of the world's turmeric (about 11–12 lakh tonnes a year) and is also the largest exporter, shipping to over 150 countries — statement I is correct.
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Alfred Wegener's continental drift theory (1912) was supported by geological, palaeontological and climatic evidence showing that now-separated continents were once joined.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II : Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement I is correct: atmospheric dust is concentrated in the subtropical and temperate belts, which contain the world's great deserts and dry, bare soils, whereas the humid equatorial belt washes dust out with heavy rain and the polar regions are ice-covered.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II : In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Isotherms join places of equal temperature; where they bend towards the equator it is colder than the latitude average, and where they bend poleward it is warmer. Statement I is correct: on the January (Northern-winter) map, isotherms swing equatorward over the continents (e.g.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II : Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III : Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Porosity is the share of a rock's volume that is pore space; permeability is the ease with which water can flow through connected pores. The two are related but not the same.
Consider the following statements : I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The natural greenhouse effect keeps the Earth's mean surface temperature at about 15 °C; without an atmosphere it would be roughly −18 °C, well below freezing — statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched in December 2014 under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development, and continues under the Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana.
Consider the following statements : I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The question asks which statements are NOT correct; all three are inaccurate. Statement I is wrong: Article 243B provides that Panchayats at the intermediate level need not be constituted in a State with a population not exceeding twenty lakh (e.g. Goa, Sikkim).
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC : I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) has seven members — Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand — so statement I is correct.
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Gandhi Peace Prize, instituted by the Government of India in 1995 on Gandhi's 125th birth anniversary, honours contributions to social, economic and political transformation through non-violence.
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — GAGAN, developed jointly by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India, is a satellite-based augmentation system that corrects GPS signals using Indian reference stations and geostationary satellites (GSAT-8, -10, -15).
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 : I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The AI Action Summit at the Grand Palais, Paris (10–11 February 2025) was co-chaired by France and India, and followed the UK's Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit (November 2023) and the AI Seoul Summit (May 2024) — statement I is correct.
Consider the following pairs : I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The UN General Assembly designates International Years to focus attention on particular themes; all four pairs here follow its resolutions. 2025 was proclaimed the International Year of Peace and Trust (proposed by Turkmenistan) — pair III is correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS : I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The 16th BRICS Summit was held at Kazan, Russia, on 22–24 October 2024 under Russia's chairship — statement I is correct. Indonesia was admitted as a full member in January 2025 under Brazil's chairship, becoming the first South-east Asian member — statement II is correct.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal : I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal's jurisdiction covers public servants in India and also those serving outside India — statement I is wrong.
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup : I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The first Kho Kho World Cup was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, from 13 to 19 January 2025, with 23 countries taking part — statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements : I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement I confuses two events: Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion in December 2024 by defeating China's Ding Liren in Singapore — not a Russian, and not in the Olympiad, which is a team event (India won gold at the 45th Olympiad in Budapest, 2024).
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II : Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement I is correct: rare earth elements such as europium, terbium and yttrium are used in the phosphor coatings of flat-panel television screens, computer monitors and LED backlights, giving the red, green and blue colours.
Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The question asks which statements are NOT correct. Statement I is not correct: the National Rail Plan (2020) aims to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2030, not 2028, with a target of raising rail's freight share to 45%.
Consider the following space missions : I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Axiom-4 (June–July 2025) carried Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla to the International Space Station, where he performed ISRO-sponsored microgravity experiments on seeds, microalgae, muscle loss and tardigrades — it supports microgravity research.
With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs : Aircraft type : Description I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair I is correct: the HAL-built Dornier-228 is a light twin-turboprop used by the Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol and surveillance. Pair III is correct: the Boeing C-17 Globemaster III is the IAF's heavy strategic transport aircraft, used for airlifting troops, tanks and relief supplies.
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
UPSC's answer: (a) — Cloud seeding induces rain by dispersing particles into clouds that act as nuclei on which water droplets or ice crystals form and grow until they fall.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, suspensions and commutations of sentences, including in death-sentence and court-martial cases.
Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement I is correct: under Article 94, when the Lok Sabha is dissolved the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House, ensuring continuity.
Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement I is wrong: under paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, a question of disqualification on the ground of defection is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha), not by the President; the President's role under Article 103 concerns other disqualifications under…
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II : In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, Section 3(e) empowers the Central Government to declare, by notification, which minerals are 'minor minerals' (e.g. building stone, gravel, ordinary clay and sand) — Statement II is correct.
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Nature Restoration Law was adopted by the European Union in 2024 as the first continent-wide law of its kind and a key part of the European Green Deal and EU Biodiversity Strategy for 2030.
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts = 80,000 − 60,000 = ₹20,000 crore, so statement I is correct. Fiscal deficit equals total borrowings (the gap between total expenditure and total non-borrowed receipts); the budget shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crore, so the fiscal deficit is…
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
UPSC's answer: (a) — The INSTC was founded in 2000 by India, Iran and Russia (agreement in force 2002) and now has 13 members; it is a 7,200-km ship-rail-road corridor.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II : Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The United States is the world's largest ethanol producer (over 15 billion gallons a year, more than half the global total); Brazil is second with roughly 30% — so Statement I, which says Brazil produces more, is not correct.
A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Gross primary deficit = gross fiscal deficit − interest payments; it shows how much of the borrowing is for current needs rather than for servicing past debt. Here: 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore, option (a).
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 15th Finance Commission (chair N.K. Singh) reported for 2021–26; its award shapes Centre–State fiscal relations for that period. Statement I is correct: it recommended ₹4,800 crore over 2022–23 to 2025–26 as performance grants to incentivise States to improve educational outcomes.
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) : I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The IBRD, founded at Bretton Woods in 1944, was created to finance the reconstruction of war-torn Europe after the Second World War; its first loan went to France in 1947 — statement III is correct.
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT : I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) settles each transaction individually and instantly, and is meant for high-value transfers (minimum ₹2 lakh); NEFT settles in half-hourly batches, so there is a short delay — statement I is correct.
Consider the following countries : I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
UPSC's answer: (b) — NPCI International has enabled UPI merchant payments abroad through partnerships: in the UAE (with Mashreq's NeoPay and others), in France (with Lyra, starting at the Eiffel Tower) and in Singapore (with Nets and via the UPI–PayNow link) — three of the listed countries.
Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' : I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (February 2024, outlay ₹75,021 crore) subsidises rooftop solar for households and provides up to 300 units of free electricity a month. Statement I is correct: the scheme targets one crore households with rooftop solar installations by 2026–27.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend or repeal any Central Act — statement I is correct. Like an Act, an Ordinance can be given retrospective effect and come into force from a back date — statement III is correct.
Consider the following pairs : State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair I is correct: Itanagar takes its name from the 14th–15th-century Ita Fort, and Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks — Namdapha and Mouling.
With reference to India, consider the following : I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body: Article 263 empowers the President to establish it, which was done in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation — so it counts.
Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement I is correct: Article 163(1) expressly refers to functions the Governor is 'required to exercise in his discretion', and Article 163(2) makes the Governor's decision on whether a matter is discretionary final; specific instances appear in Articles 371A, 371F and the Sixth Schedule.
Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair I is correct: Article 50, in Part IV (Directive Principles), directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Fifth Schedule (Article 244) governs Scheduled Areas in States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram; the President declares such areas.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization : Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pair I is wrong: the National Automotive Board, which oversees the NATRiP testing centres, functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India : I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The proviso to Article 368(2) lists the federal provisions whose amendment needs ratification by at least half the State legislatures: Articles 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, Chapter I of Part XI, any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, representation of States…
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Article 361(1) provides that the President and the Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office — statement I is correct.
Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 gives the PNGRB jurisdiction over the downstream and midstream sector: refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas.
“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
UPSC's answer: (b) — On 6 April 1930, after the Dandi March, Gandhi picked up salt on the seashore and openly broke the Salt Law, launching the Civil Disobedience Movement.
The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 'Dancing Girl', about 10.5 cm tall, was found at Mohenjo-daro in 1926 and is now in the National Museum, New Delhi. It is made of bronze by the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique, showing that Harappan craftsmen had mastered metallurgy around 2500 BCE.
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
UPSC's answer: (b) — After the Chauri Chaura incident of 4 February 1922, in which a police station was burnt and 22 policemen killed, 225 people were tried and the sessions court sentenced 172 to death.
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Communal Award of August 1932 gave separate electorates to the Depressed Classes; Gandhi, in Yerwada jail, began a fast unto death against it. The Poona Pact of 24 September 1932 between Gandhi and Ambedkar replaced separate electorates with reserved seats in a joint electorate.
Consider the following fruits : I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Papaya, pineapple and guava are all native to tropical America and reached India through the Portuguese, who carried New World plants across their maritime empire in the 16th–17th centuries.
Consider the following countries : I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Counting overseas territories and dependencies, several countries span many time zones. The United Kingdom, with territories from the Pitcairn Islands to the British Indian Ocean Territory, uses about nine zones; Denmark, through Greenland and the Faroe Islands, uses five; New Zealand, with the…
Consider the following statements : I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Anadyr (Chukotka, Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) lie on opposite sides of the Bering Strait and of the International Date Line, which runs between them.
Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Self-Respect Movement (Suyamariyathai Iyakkam) was founded in 1925 in the Tamil country by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, 'Periyar', after he left the Congress.
Consider the following pairs : Country Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Botswana is among the world's largest producers of diamonds by value, from mines such as Jwaneng and Orapa run by Debswana; diamonds dominate its exports — row I is correct.
Consider the following pairs : Region Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Mallorca is the largest of Spain's Balearic Islands in the Mediterranean, so pairing it with Italy is wrong. Normandy is a region of northern France on the English Channel, famous for the 1944 D-Day landings; pairing it with Spain is wrong.
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