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UPSC Prelims 2025 question paper

UPSC held the 2025 Preliminary examination on 25 May 2025 — GS Paper I from 9:30 to 11:30 am and CSAT from 2:30 to 4:30 pm. 177 questions from that day are below, each with the Commission's official answer and our explanation of why the other three options fail.

General Studies Paper I

99 questions

Economy 21 · History 16 · General Science 15 · Polity & Governance 14 · Environment & Ecology 13 · Geography 12 · Current Events 8

  1. Q1 Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are…
  2. Q2 With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements : I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated…
  3. Q3 In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements : I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery…
  4. Q4 Consider the following : I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
  5. Q5 Consider the following substances : I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
  6. Q6 What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
  7. Q7 Consider the following statements : I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS)…
  8. Q8 With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements : I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due…
  9. Q9 Consider the following statements : I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in…
  10. Q10 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from…
  11. Q11 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions…
  12. Q12 Consider the following statements : Statement I : At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and…
  13. Q13 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II : Solar flares and…
  14. Q14 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and…
  15. Q15 Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
  16. Q16 With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be…
  17. Q17 Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements : I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some…
  18. Q18 Consider the following statements : I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0·5 t CO₂/capita. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks…
  19. Q19 Consider the following pairs : Plant Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V…
  20. Q20 With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements : I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and…
  21. Q21 Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy : I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his…
  22. Q22 Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme : I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of…
  23. Q23 The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
  24. Q24 Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
  25. Q25 Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
  26. Q26 Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the…
  27. Q27 With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs : Territorial region : River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti…
  28. Q28 The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
  29. Q29 Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the
  30. Q30 Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement : I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its…
  31. Q31 With reference to investments, consider the following : I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
  32. Q32 Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund…
  33. Q33 With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information : Organization | Some of its functions | It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement…
  34. Q34 Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR)…
  35. Q35 Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any…
  36. Q36 Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it…
  37. Q37 Consider the following statements : Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than…
  38. Q38 Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock…
  39. Q39 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II : Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as…
  40. Q40 Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital…
  41. Q41 Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty…
  42. Q42 Consider the following countries : I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
  43. Q43 Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
  44. Q44 Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23 : I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of…
  45. Q45 Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The…
  46. Q46 Consider the following statements : Statement I : The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions…
  47. Q47 Consider the following statements : Statement I : In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing…
  48. Q48 Consider the following statements : Statement I : In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable…
  49. Q49 Consider the following statements : I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by…
  50. Q50 Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with…
  51. Q51 Consider the following statements : I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a…
  52. Q52 Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC : I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the…
  53. Q53 Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice…
  54. Q54 GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of…
  55. Q55 Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 : I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the…
  56. Q56 Consider the following pairs : I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace…
  57. Q57 Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS : I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS…
  58. Q58 Consider the following statements about Lokpal : I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The…
  59. Q59 Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup : I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final…
  60. Q60 Consider the following statements : I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian…
  61. Q61 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II : Some rare…
  62. Q62 Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic…
  63. Q63 Consider the following space missions : I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
  64. Q64 With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs : Aircraft type : Description I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III…
  65. Q65 Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
  66. Q66 Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial…
  67. Q67 Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the…
  68. Q68 Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the…
  69. Q69 Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals…
  70. Q70 Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
  71. Q71 Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores…
  72. Q72 India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
  73. Q73 Consider the following statements : Statement I : Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol…
  74. Q75 A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500…
  75. Q76 Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year…
  76. Q77 Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) : I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries…
  77. Q78 Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT : I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II…
  78. Q79 Consider the following countries : I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India…
  79. Q80 Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' : I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The…
  80. Q81 With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An…
  81. Q82 Consider the following pairs : State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into…
  82. Q83 With reference to India, consider the following : I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per…
  83. Q84 Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The…
  84. Q85 Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The…
  85. Q86 Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State…
  86. Q87 With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization : Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board…
  87. Q88 Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India : I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the…
  88. Q89 With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers…
  89. Q90 Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of…
  90. Q91 “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
  91. Q92 The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
  92. Q93 Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
  93. Q94 Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the…
  94. Q95 Consider the following fruits : I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
  95. Q96 Consider the following countries : I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
  96. Q97 Consider the following statements : I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in…
  97. Q98 Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
  98. Q99 Consider the following pairs : Country Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information…
  99. Q100 Consider the following pairs : Region Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly…

CSAT Paper II

78 questions

Comprehension 29 · Basic Numeracy 26 · Logical Reasoning 10 · Mental Ability 8 · Data Interpretation 5

  1. Q1 Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage ?
  2. Q2 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments…
  3. Q3 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
  4. Q4 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. The food manufacturing and processing industries in every country should align their objectives…
  5. Q5 What is the maximum value of n such that 7 × 343 × 385 × 1000 × 2401 × 77777 is divisible by 35ⁿ ?
  6. Q6 What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90 ?
  7. Q7 P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 rounds per hour and Q walks at an average…
  8. Q8 If P = +, Q = –, R = ×, S = ÷, then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation 60_15_3_20_4 = 20 :
  9. Q9 A tram overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 seconds and 9 seconds respectively…
  10. Q10 If N² = 12345678987654321, then how many digits does the number N have ?
  11. Q11 Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage ?
  12. Q12 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India…
  13. Q13 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  14. Q14 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. There is no need for the State to be involved in any manner in the handloom sector. II. Handloom…
  15. Q15 Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are not divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9 ?
  16. Q16 If 4 ≤ x ≤ 8 and 2 ≤ y ≤ 7, then what is the ratio of maximum value of (x + y) to minimum value of (x - y) ?
  17. Q17 Let both p and k be prime numbers such that (p² + k) is also a prime number less than 30. What is the number of possible values of k ?
  18. Q18 There are n sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of n ?
  19. Q19 Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, PQR - PS = PPT . If Q = 3 and T < 6…
  20. Q20 Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence ?
  21. Q21 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  22. Q22 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation…
  23. Q23 Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage ?
  24. Q24 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity…
  25. Q25 A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements…
  26. Q26 If 7 * 24 = 25 and 12 * 16 = 20, then what is 16 * 63 equal to ?
  27. Q27 The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was ₹ 90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his…
  28. Q28 A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N ?
  29. Q29 Consider the following statements : I. If A ≤ B > C < D > E > F ≥ G = H; then B is always greater than E. II. If P > Q = R ≥ S = T ≤ U = V > W; then S is always less than V. Which…
  30. Q30 What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 9 × ... × 999 ?
  31. Q31 Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  32. Q32 With reference to above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. No country needs to depend on ecosystems to boost national income. II. Resource-rich countries need…
  33. Q33 Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage ?
  34. Q34 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Path-dependent green investments will eventually most likely benefit growth as well as public…
  35. Q37 How many possible values of (p + q + r) are there satisfying 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1, where p, q and r are natural numbers (not necessarily distinct) ?
  36. Q38 What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence ? January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September
  37. Q39 Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50% higher, the scores would have been…
  38. Q40 The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k%; then decreased by k%; again increased by k%; and again decreased by k%. If the new price is q, then what is the relation…
  39. Q41 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage ?
  40. Q42 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
  41. Q43 A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question : In a football match, team P playing…
  42. Q44 A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question : Is (p + q)² - 4 pq, where p, q are…
  43. Q45 In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number…
  44. Q46 Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers. Value-II = Maximum value of p × q when p ≥ -6, q ≥ -4. Which one of the…
  45. Q47 Consider a set of 11 numbers : Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5. Value-II = Minimum value of the product of…
  46. Q48 The average of three numbers p, q and r is k. p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r ?
  47. Q49 Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? I. x² > x³. II. x > √x. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
  48. Q50 The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between these two numbers ?
  49. Q51 Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  50. Q52 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment…
  51. Q53 Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage ?
  52. Q54 Consider the following statements : I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. II. There exists a natural number which…
  53. Q55 There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is…
  54. Q56 In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code ?
  55. Q57 What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + ... + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6 ?
  56. Q58 A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question : What is the smallest 1-digit number…
  57. Q59 A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question : Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero…
  58. Q60 A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question : How is Q related to P ? Statement I : P…
  59. Q61 Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage ?
  60. Q62 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas. II…
  61. Q63 Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
  62. Q64 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent…
  63. Q65 P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true ? I. S and T are a couple. II. Q is T's son. III. T is Q's…
  64. Q66 If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded ?
  65. Q67 If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded ?
  66. Q68 The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that T ≠ 0. P is thrice T. S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. How many such 5-digit numbers are…
  67. Q69 X can complete one-third of a certain work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of the same work in 12 days. All of them…
  68. Q70 What is X in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42 ?
  69. Q71 Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage ?
  70. Q72 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people. II. People…
  71. Q73 Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage ?
  72. Q74 With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy. II. Economic growth is compatible…
  73. Q75 A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills 3/8th of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z) of 16 pipes can empty half of the…
  74. Q76 If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of (1ⁿ + 2ⁿ) when divided by 4 ?
  75. Q77 Let P = QQQ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481 ?
  76. Q78 What is the 489ᵗʰ digit in the number 123456789101112 . . . ?
  77. Q79 A mobile phone has been stolen. There are 3 suspects P, Q and R. They were questioned knowing that only one of them is guilty. Their responses are as follows : P : I did not…
  78. Q80 Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament in which the teams play with one another exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a draw 1 point. A team gets no point for…

Question papers and answer keys: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check.

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