GS Paper I of the 2019 Preliminary examination, held on 2 June 2019. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 29, Environment & Ecology 21, History 15, Polity & Governance 14, General Science 13, Geography 6, Current Events 2.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — In the Mughal system a jagir was a temporary, transferable assignment of land revenue given to a mansabdar in lieu of salary for military service, not for judicial or police duties; it was not hereditary and jagirs were rotated every few years.
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Land reforms after 1947 — abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reform, ceilings and consolidation — aimed to redistribute land so that the tiller owned it and surplus land went to the landless; the official key treats 'providing agricultural land to all the landless' as the major aim — option (b).
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Global Competitiveness Report, with its Global Competitiveness Index ranking economies on institutions, infrastructure, macro-stability, skills, markets and innovation, is published annually by the World Economic Forum (Geneva) since 1979 — option (c).
Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813' : 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's monopoly over Indian trade, retaining only its monopoly in tea and the China trade (statement 1).
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements : 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. 2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Swadeshi Movement (1905–08), sparked by the partition of Bengal, promoted Indian goods and boycott of British products. Statement 1 is correct: it revived handloom weaving, soap, match and tannery industries and spawned enterprises such as Bengal Chemicals and the Bengal National Bank.
Consider the following pairs : Movement/Organization : Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati 3. Self-Respect Movement : E. V. Ramaswami Naicker Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pair 1 is correct: Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932 after the Poona Pact; it was renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh. Pair 2 is correct: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the founding president of the All India Kisan Sabha (Lucknow, 1936). Pair 3 is correct: E.V.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Sohgaura (Gorakhpur, UP) is a Mauryan-period site famous for a copper-plate inscription in Brahmi about famine-relief granaries; it is not Harappan — option (c).
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
UPSC's answer: (a) — At Kanaganahalli (Sannati, Kalaburagi district, Karnataka), excavations of a Mauryan–Satavahana stupa revealed a relief panel showing a king with his queens, labelled in Brahmi 'Ranyo Ashoka' — the only known portrait of Ashoka with his name — option (a).
Consider the following : 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Mahayana ('Great Vehicle') emerged around the 1st century CE and was endorsed at Kanishka's Fourth Buddhist Council. It deified the Buddha as an eternal, transcendent being (1), held up the bodhisattva ideal of postponing one's own nirvana to help all beings (2), and adopted image worship, rituals…
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Vishti was forced or unpaid labour that the State could demand from its subjects; Gupta-period inscriptions and the Narada and Katyayana Smritis list it among the royal dues, treating it as a form of tax paid in labour rather than money — option (a).
Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
UPSC's answer: (d) — Kalyana mandapas — pillared halls for celebrating the ritual marriage of the deity and consort — are a hallmark of Vijayanagara temple architecture (15th–16th century), seen at the Vitthala and Virupaksha temples at Hampi and at Vellore — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: in the Sultanate's revenue administration the amil was the officer in charge of revenue collection in a pargana/iqta.
Consider the following statements : 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: Nimbarka, founder of the Dvaitadvaita school and the Nimbarka Sampradaya devoted to Radha-Krishna, lived around the 12th–13th century, long before Akbar (r. 1556–1605).
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'. 2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: Gandhi's campaign of 1916–17, threatening satyagraha, forced the Government to abolish the indentured labour system (announced 1917).
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs : Person : Position held 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation 2. K. C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly 3. P. C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pair 1 is correct: Tej Bahadur Sapru, the Liberal statesman, presided over the All India Liberal Federation (1923) and led the Sapru Committee. Pair 2 is correct: K.C. Neogy sat in the Constituent Assembly, was a Union minister and the first chairman of the Finance Commission (1951).
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The question asks for the statement that is NOT correct. Option (a) is not correct: the title 'Tansen' was conferred by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior, not by Akbar; Akbar gave him the title 'Mian'.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under Akbar the imperial atelier produced large illustrated manuscripts (Hamzanama, Akbarnama, Razmnama). Jahangir, a connoisseur, shifted patronage to albums (muraqqas) of individual paintings and to naturalistic portraits and studies of birds, animals and flowers by masters like Mansur, Bishandas…
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Valley of Flowers National Park (Chamoli, Uttarakhand) lies entirely between about 3,350 and 6,700 m in the western Himalaya — a temperate-alpine zone of alpine meadows and snow — option (d).
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was set up in 2016 under NITI Aayog to foster innovation and entrepreneurship — option (c). Its programmes include Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, Atal Incubation Centres, Atal Community Innovation Centres and the Atal New India Challenges.
On 21st June, the Sun
UPSC's answer: (a) — On 21 June (summer solstice) the Sun is overhead at noon on the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N), and the northern hemisphere has its longest day. The Arctic Circle (66.5° N) experiences 24 hours of daylight — the Sun does not set — option (a).
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — After 1492 the 'Columbian Exchange' carried crops first domesticated in the Americas (the New World) to Europe, Asia and Africa (the Old World). Tobacco, cocoa and rubber were all domesticated in the Americas and introduced into the Old World, so option (a) fits fully.
Consider the following statements : 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: the Asiatic lion survives in the wild only in Gujarat's Gir landscape. Statement 2 is wrong: the wild double-humped (Bactrian) camel lives in Mongolia and China's Gobi; India's small population in Ladakh's Nubra Valley is domesticated, not the only natural range.
Consider the following pairs : Famous place : River 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery 3. Hampi : Malaprabha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pair 1 is correct: Pandharpur, the Vitthal pilgrimage town in Maharashtra, stands on the Bhima, locally called Chandrabhaga for its crescent bend. Pair 2 is correct: Tiruchirappalli lies on the Cauvery, with Srirangam on the island between the Cauvery and Kollidam.
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
UPSC's answer: (b) — India's poverty line is defined as the monthly expenditure needed to buy a fixed basket of goods; since prices differ across States, the same basket costs more in some States than others.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Both are proposed geoengineering techniques to counter global warming — option (d). Stratospheric aerosol injection would spray sulphate particles to reflect sunlight, mimicking the cooling after the 1991 Pinatubo eruption.
In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Pyrolysis heats waste in the absence of oxygen to yield syngas, bio-oil and char; plasma gasification uses a plasma torch at 3,000–7,000 °C to convert waste into syngas and inert slag. Both are thermal waste-to-energy technologies used for municipal solid waste and plastics — option (d).
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (2001; UNESCO MAB 2016) spans the southern Western Ghats across Kerala and Tamil Nadu around Agasthyakoodam peak. It includes Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala and the Kalakad–Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: green sea turtles are herbivores, grazing on seagrass and algae. Statement 2 is correct: many fish — parrotfish, surgeonfish, grass carp — feed on algae or plants.
Consider the following pairs : Wildlife : Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 1 is correct: the blue-finned mahseer (Tor khudree) is native to the Cauvery and other peninsular rivers. Pair 3 is correct: the rusty-spotted cat, the world's smallest wild cat, occurs in dry and moist forests of the Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats and central India.
Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Microbeads are tiny plastic particles (<1 mm) added to face scrubs, toothpaste and cosmetics as exfoliants. They pass through sewage treatment into rivers and seas, where they are eaten by plankton, fish and shellfish, absorb toxic pollutants and move up the food chain — hence the concern for…
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
UPSC's answer: (d) — Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia), called 'allo' in Nepal and Uttarakhand, is a tall wild perennial whose stem bark yields one of the longest and strongest natural bast fibres.
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Remote sensing measures reflected and emitted radiation from the surface and atmosphere. Chlorophyll content (1) is estimated from vegetation indices such as NDVI using red and near-infrared bands.
Consider the following States : 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
UPSC's answer: (c) — By the India State of Forest Report 2017, forest cover as a percentage of State area was: Maharashtra about 16.5%, Madhya Pradesh about 25.1%, Odisha about 33.0%, Chhattisgarh about 41.1%. Ascending order is therefore Maharashtra (3) – Madhya Pradesh (2) – Odisha (4) – Chhattisgarh (1).
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Methane hydrate (clathrate) is methane locked in an ice lattice under high pressure and low temperature, found beneath permafrost in the Arctic tundra and in seafloor sediments on continental margins (statement 2); India has deposits in the Krishna–Godavari basin.
Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Burning crop residue is incomplete combustion of biomass and releases a cocktail of pollutants. It emits carbon monoxide (1) and methane (2) directly, along with CO2, particulate matter and volatile organic compounds.
Consider the following pairs : Sea : Bordering country 1. Adriatic Sea : Albania 2. Black Sea : Croatia 3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan 4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco 5. Red Sea : Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Albania lies on the Adriatic (and Ionian) coast. Pair 3 is correct: Kazakhstan has the longest Caspian Sea coastline. Pair 4 is correct: Morocco borders both the Mediterranean and the Atlantic.
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
UPSC's answer: (b) — India has been the world's largest rice exporter since 2012, shipping around 10–22 million tonnes a year (basmati and non-basmati), ahead of Thailand and Vietnam — option (b).
Consider the following pairs : Glacier : River 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab 3. Milam : Mandakini 4. Siachen : Nubra 5. Zemu : Manas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pair 1 is correct: the Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri glacier on the Bandarpunch massif. Pair 2 is correct: Bara Shigri in Lahaul (Himachal) feeds the Chandra river, a headstream of the Chenab. Pair 4 is correct: the Nubra river rises from the Siachen glacier.
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
UPSC's answer: (a) — Carbofuran (carbamate), methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos (organophosphates) are highly toxic insecticides used on rice, cotton, sugarcane and vegetables — option (a). They are classified as Class I (extremely/highly hazardous) by WHO, cause farmer poisonings (e.g.
Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Ramsar Convention obliges parties to conserve designated Wetlands of International Importance and to promote the 'wise use' of wetlands; it does not make protection of all wetlands in a country mandatory.
Consider the following statements : 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Reactive nitrogen escapes from agriculture in several forms. Fertilised soils release nitrous oxide and nitric oxide through microbial nitrification and denitrification (statement 1); N2O is a potent greenhouse gas.
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Aliyar (Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu), Isapur (Yavatmal, Maharashtra, on the Penganga) and Kangsabati (Bankura/Purulia, West Bengal) are all dams with reservoirs — option (d).
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements : 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — H-CNG blends about 18% hydrogen by volume with CNG — roughly one-fifth (statement 3); in 2019 the Supreme Court allowed a 50-bus H-CNG pilot in Delhi. Statement 2 is correct: IOC trials showed H-CNG cuts hydrocarbon emissions and improves fuel efficiency, lowering CO2 per km.
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Dew forms when the ground cools by radiating heat to space on a clear night until surface air reaches its dew point. Clouds act as a blanket: they absorb the Earth's outgoing long-wave radiation and re-radiate it back downward, so the surface stays warm and does not cool to the dew point — the…
Consider the following statements : 1. The 44ᵗʰ Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99ᵗʰ Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: it was the 39th Amendment (1975), during the Emergency, that inserted Article 329A placing the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker beyond judicial review; the Supreme Court struck this down in Indira Gandhi v.
Consider the following statements : 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 3 is correct: Article 124(4) provides for removal but the procedure — motion by 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members, a three-member inquiry committee, and the report — is laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, along with Article 31B — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: coking coal mines were nationalised in 1971–72 and non-coking mines in 1973 under Indira Gandhi's government, leading to Coal India Ltd (1975).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Article 102(1)(a) disqualifies MPs holding an 'office of profit' under the Government unless Parliament exempts the office by law.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in States other than the north-east; under Paragraph 5 the Governor may regulate or prohibit transfer of land by or among tribals. In Samatha v.
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India : 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — PVTGs are the most vulnerable among Scheduled Tribes, identified by the Dhebar Commission criteria: pre-agricultural technology, low literacy, economic backwardness and a stagnant or declining population (statement 2).
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any matter before it.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: under Article 176 the Governor addresses the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses) at the commencement of the first session after each general election and of the first session of each year.
Consider the following statements : 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'. 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 2 is correct: UNCAC (2003, in force 2005) is the first legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument; India ratified it in 2011. Statement 4 is correct: UNODC is the guardian of both UNCAC and UNTOC and assists States in implementing them.
Consider the following statements : 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Section 2(i) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines minor forest produce to include bamboo, brushwood, stumps, cane, tussar, cocoons, honey, wax, lac, tendu leaves, medicinal plants and roots.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Supreme Court has held that the right to choose one's life partner is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 — in Shafin Jahan v. Asokan (Hadiya case, 2018) and Shakti Vahini v. Union of India (2018, on khap panchayats and honour killings) — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 3 is correct: Section 3(j) of the Patents Act, 1970 excludes plants, animals, seeds and varieties from patentability; plant varieties are protected instead under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001.
Consider the following statements : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 (Schedule I) lay down detailed criteria for siting sanitary landfills and processing facilities — distances from habitation, rivers, airports, water bodies, and technical specifications — option (c).
Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 2018 amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules extended 'fixed-term employment' to all sectors: workers hired for a fixed period get the same wages and benefits as permanent workers, but their employment ends automatically on expiry without notice or retrenchment…
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Service Area Approach (1989) was introduced under the Lead Bank Scheme (1969): each rural and semi-urban bank branch was allotted a cluster of 15–25 villages for which it prepared credit plans and met credit needs — option (b).
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements : 1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: sand is a minor mineral under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 (along with building stone, gravel, ordinary clay).
Consider the following statements : 1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: most of India's external debt is owed by the private sector — commercial borrowings, NRI deposits and trade credit account for the bulk; government (sovereign) debt is only about a fifth.
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
UPSC's answer: (b) — A bank's balance sheet lists what it owns (assets) and what it owes (liabilities). Deposits are money the bank owes to customers, so they are liabilities — option (b) is the one not included in assets.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — A currency crisis arises when foreign-exchange inflows dry up and the rupee faces a run; steady, non-debt inflows are the best protection.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State relations (1983–88) recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure without intense political links, who has not taken part in politics in the recent past, and that the State's Chief Minister be consulted — option…
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are offshore derivative instruments issued by SEBI-registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas clients who want exposure to Indian securities without registering with SEBI — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 created a National Fund and State Funds and established the National CAMPA and State CAMPAs to manage money paid by user agencies diverting forest land (statement 1).
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Independent regulators (TRAI, IRDAI, CERC) are statutory bodies accountable to Parliament, which reviews them through its committees.
With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries. 2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power. 3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: the Second Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model, pushed import substitution in basic and capital-goods industries — steel, machinery, heavy engineering.
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements : 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The AIIB, headquartered in Beijing, began operations in 2016 and had over 90 approved members by 2019 (over 100 today) — statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: China is the largest shareholder (about 26% voting power); India is the second-largest (about 7.6%) and the biggest borrower.
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Inter-Creditor Agreement (July 2018), framed under the Sunil Mehta committee's 'Project Sashakt', binds lenders in a consortium to a common resolution plan for stressed accounts of ₹50 crore and above: a plan approved by 66% of lenders by value binds the rest — option (d).
The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Banks Board Bureau (2016), set up on the P.J. Nayak committee's recommendation, selected and recommended candidates for Managing Directors, CEOs and whole-time directors of public sector banks and also advised on governance — option (a) per the official key.
Consider the following statements : 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — PNGRB was set up under the PNGRB Act, 2006 to regulate refining, processing, storage, transport, distribution and marketing of petroleum products and natural gas. Statement 2 is correct: its mandate includes protecting consumer interests and promoting competitive markets, including for gas.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — LTE is the 4G wireless standard, marketed as 4G/4G LTE, not 3G — so statement 1 is wrong. LTE was designed as an all-IP packet network primarily for data; VoLTE is a technology that carries voice calls as data packets over the same LTE network with better quality and simultaneous data use.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 raised paid maternity leave from 12 to 26 weeks, of which up to 8 weeks may be taken before delivery — so statement 1 (three months before and after) is wrong.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business index (discontinued in 2021) scored economies on ten regulatory indicators: starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders…
In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) makes producers responsible for collecting and safely disposing of their products at end-of-life.
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
UPSC's answer: (c) — FCI's 'economic cost' of grain = MSP (plus any State bonus) + procurement incidentals + distribution cost — option (c). Procurement incidentals include mandi charges, commission to arhtiyas, gunny bags, labour and State taxes; distribution cost covers freight, handling, storage, interest and…
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Social capital refers to the networks, norms, trust and cooperation that enable people in a society to act together effectively (Putnam, Coleman) — option (d).
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: High Courts under Article 226 can strike down central as well as State laws as unconstitutional; the 42nd Amendment had tried to bar this (Article 226A) but the 43rd Amendment (1977) repealed it.
Consider the following statements : 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: PPP exchange rates equalise the price of an identical basket of goods and services across countries, as compiled by the World Bank's International Comparison Program.
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements : 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: rice occupies about 39–40 million hectares in kharif, the largest of any crop. Statement 3 is correct: cotton covers about 12 million hectares against sugarcane's roughly 5 million.
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Vegetable oils (palm, soybean, sunflower) are India's largest agricultural import, costing about USD 10–20 billion a year, since domestic output meets barely 40% of demand — option (d). Pulses (c) are the second-largest, at USD 1–4 billion; fresh fruits (b) and spices (a) are much smaller.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In political theory liberty has two aspects: the absence of external constraints (negative liberty) and the expansion of opportunities for people to develop their capacities (positive liberty).
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
UPSC's answer: (d) — When the rupee slides, the Government/RBI try to increase dollar supply or reduce dollar demand. Curbing non-essential imports and pushing exports (a), encouraging Masala Bonds that bring in foreign money without currency risk (b), and easing external commercial borrowing norms (c) were all steps…
Consider the following statements : The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that 1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India 2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises 3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The RBI's April 2018 directive on Storage of Payment System Data required all system providers (Visa, Mastercard, PayPal, etc.) to store the entire data of payments they process in systems located only in India, within six months (statement 1).
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25ᵗʰ May, 2018?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016 and became enforceable across the EU on 25 May 2018 — option (c).
Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' was signed between India and Russia in October 2018 during President Putin's visit, alongside the S-400 deal — option (b).
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The money multiplier (broad money ÷ reserve money) rises when a larger share of money circulates through banks as deposits that can be re-lent. A stronger banking habit means people hold less currency and more deposits, lowering the currency-deposit ratio and raising the multiplier — option (b).
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements : 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Augmented Reality overlays computer-generated images on the real world seen through a phone or PC camera, so the user stays present in their surroundings (statement 3, e.g. Pokémon Go).
The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
UPSC's answer: (b) — Denisovans are an extinct group of archaic humans identified in 2010 from DNA in a finger bone found in Denisova Cave, Siberia — option (b).
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The question asks for the statement that is NOT correct. Option (a) is the odd one out per the official key: functional chromosomes have been built from chemically synthesised, designed DNA (synthetic yeast chromosomes, Sc2.0), not by stitching together DNA segments taken from different species'…
Consider the following statements : A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A digital signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic record: it is created with the signer's private key and verified with the public key, which confirms who signed and that the content has not been altered (statement 3).
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a person 2. Sleep monitoring of a person 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Wearables are body-worn electronic devices with sensors and connectivity. GPS-enabled smartwatches and trackers identify a person's location (1); fitness bands and rings monitor sleep stages via movement and heart rate (2); hearing aids, cochlear implants and smart glasses with live captions assist…
'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — RNA interference uses small RNAs (siRNA/miRNA) to bind messenger RNA and block translation, silencing a specific gene (item 1).
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
UPSC's answer: (b) — On 14 September 2015 the LIGO detectors recorded ripples in spacetime from two black holes (29 and 36 solar masses) merging 1.3 billion light-years away — the first direct detection of gravitational waves, predicted by Einstein in 1916 — option (b).
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Antimicrobial resistance arises in microbes that are exposed to antibiotics under conditions that let resistant strains survive and spread.
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Cas9 (CRISPR-associated protein 9) is an enzyme that, guided by a short RNA, cuts DNA at a precise target sequence — the 'molecular scissors' of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing — option (a).
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The question asks for the statement that is NOT correct. Option (b) is wrong: a safe, effective Hepatitis B vaccine has existed since 1982 and is in India's Universal Immunisation Programme; it is Hepatitis C that has no vaccine (though it is now curable with antivirals).
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