Civil Engineering

UPSC Civil Engineering 2026 — Paper II

All 8 questions from UPSC Civil Services Mains Civil Engineering 2026 Paper II (400 marks total). Every stem reproduced in full, with directive-word analysis, marks, word limits, and answer-approach pointers.

8Questions
400Total marks
2026Year
Paper IIPaper

A

Q1
50M Compulsory explain

(a) Explain with a neat sketch the essential features of English bond in brick masonry construction. (10 marks) (b) State the conditions under which one would best recommend the following types of cements. Also, state the reasons behind them. (i) Portland Pozzolana Cement (ii) Rapid Hardening Cement (iii) Quick Setting Cement (iv) Low Heat Portland Cement (v) Air-entraining Cement (10 marks) (c) A concrete vibrating equipment is purchased for ₹ 80,000 and the assumed life is 10 years with a scrap value of ₹ 20,000. If the depreciation is charged by the 'Diminishing Balance Method', then calculate the percentage by which the value of the equipment is reduced every year and also calculate the depreciation fund after 2 years. (10 marks) (d) What is the purpose of providing a Marshalling Yard ? Discuss various types of Marshalling Yards. (10 marks) (e) Discuss the key steps involved in flexible overlay design over flexible pavement using the Benkelman Beam Deflection method. Explain why, when and how, various corrections are applied in the process of overlay design. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) ईंट चिनाई निर्माण में अंग्रेजी चाल (इंग्लिश बॉण्ड) की प्रमुख विशेषताओं को एक स्वच्छ रेखाचित्र की सहायता से समझाइए। (10 अंक) (b) उन परिस्थितियों का उल्लेख कीजिए, जिनके अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित प्रकार के सीमेंट की अनुशंसा करना सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त होगा। साथ ही इनके पीछे के कारणों का भी उल्लेख कीजिए। (i) पोर्टलैण्ड पोज़ोलाना सीमेंट (ii) शीघ्र कठोर होने वाला सीमेंट (iii) शीघ्र जमने वाला सीमेंट (iv) अल्प ऊष्मा वाला पोर्टलैण्ड सीमेंट (v) वायु-अंतर्विष्ट सीमेंट (10 अंक) (c) एक कंक्रीट कम्पित्र उपकरण ₹ 80,000 में खरीदा गया है, जिसकी अनुमानित जीवन अवधि 10 वर्ष एवं रद्दी (स्क्रैप) मूल्य ₹ 20,000 है। यदि मूल्यह्रास की गणना 'ह्रासमान शेष विधि' (डिमिनिशिंग बैलेंस मैथड) द्वारा की जाती है, तब उस प्रतिशत की गणना कीजिए जिससे प्रत्येक वर्ष उपकरण का मूल्य कम होता है और 2 वर्षों के बाद मूल्यह्रास निधि की भी गणना कीजिए। (10 अंक) (d) मार्शलिंग यार्ड बनाने का उद्देश्य क्या है ? मार्शलिंग यार्ड के विभिन्न प्रकारों की चर्चा कीजिए। (10 अंक) (e) बेंकलमैन बीम विश्लेषण विधि का उपयोग करके नम्य कुट्टिम पर नम्य उपरिशायी (ओवरले) के अभिकल्पन में शामिल मुख्य चरणों की चर्चा कीजिए। उपरिशायी अभिकल्पन की प्रक्रिया में विभिन्न संशोधनों को क्यों, कब और कैसे लगाया जाता है, इसकी व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) 'Explain with a neat sketch the essential features' — the answer must both draw a labelled sketch (plan of two successive courses plus an elevation of a one-brick wall) and list the defining rules of English bond: alternate header and stretcher courses, the queen closer next to the quoin header, the quarter-brick lap and the avoidance of continuous vertical joints. (b) For each of the five named cements the answer must state the site conditions/works for which it is the best choice AND the reason (the compositional or physical property that makes it suitable). All five sub-parts (i)–(v) must be attempted; 2 marks each. (c) Using the declining/diminishing balance (constant percentage) method of depreciation with P = Rs 80,000, scrap value S = Rs 20,000 and life n = 10 years, calculate (i) the annual percentage rate of depreciation and (ii) the depreciation fund accumulated after 2 years. (d) Two parts: (a) state the purpose/functions of a marshalling yard in railway operation, and (b) discuss the various types — flat (level) yard, gravity yard and hump yard — with how each works and where each is suitable. (e) Two linked demands: (a) set out the key steps of flexible-overlay design over an existing flexible pavement by the Benkelman Beam Deflection method (IRC:81), and (b) explain why, when and how the corrections — leg/beam movement, pavement temperature and seasonal (subgrade moisture) variation — are applied, ending in the characteristic deflection and overlay thickness.

  • Labelled sketch: elevation and plans of two successive courses of a one-brick wall
  • Alternate courses of headers and stretchers
  • Queen closer next to the quoin header of the header course
  • Quarter-brick lap between courses, with no continuous vertical joints
  • PPC: hydraulic, marine and mass works or aggressive exposure; the pozzolana takes up free lime, giving lower heat, permeability and better sulphate resistance
  • Rapid hardening: early strength (precast, early formwork removal, repair, cold weather); more C₃S and finer grinding
  • Quick setting: underwater or running water, grouting; less gypsum and added aluminate, with set in about 5 and 30 minutes
  • Low heat: mass concrete such as dams; less C₃S and C₃A, more C₂S, so slow heat release
  • Air-entraining: freeze-thaw and de-icing exposure; tiny bubbles relieve freezing pressure
  • S = P(1 − r)ⁿ, so (1 − r)¹⁰ = 0.25
  • r = 12.94% per year
  • Book value after 2 years = 80,000 × 0.8706² ≈ ₹60,629
  • Depreciation fund = ₹19,371
  • Purpose: receive, sort and make up wagons into new trains by destination; other functions such as storage and inspection
  • Flat yard: level tracks, shunting locomotive pushes wagons; simple, slow, suits small traffic
  • Gravity yard: falling gradient, wagons roll by gravity under brake control; moderate traffic
  • Hump yard: locomotive pushes rake to an artificial hump, wagons roll down to sorting sidings with retarders; fastest, for heavy traffic
  • Steps: design traffic (msa), condition survey and section division, deflection test (8170 kg, 5.6 kg/cm², at most 50 m apart)
  • Leg correction: X_a = 2(d₀ − d_f), X_t = X_a + 2.91Y, and the rebound deflection is twice X_t
  • Temperature: 0.01 mm per °C about 35 °C for bituminous layers of 40 mm or more; seasonal: chart factor by soil, rainfall and moisture
  • Characteristic deflection mean + 2σ (NH and SH) or mean + σ, and the overlay thickness from the chart against traffic
Q2
50M design

(a) A vertical curve is formed when a descending gradient of 0·5% meets another descending gradient of 3·0%. Find the length of the vertical curve to provide the required (i) stopping sight distance, and (ii) overtaking sight distance, for a design speed of 65 km/hr. Assume the coefficient of longitudinal friction as 0·35 and the acceleration as 3·6 km/hr/sec. Assume other necessary data suitably. (15 marks) (b) In running fly levels from a benchmark of RL 381·605, the following readings were obtained : Backsight 2·215, 1·030, 1·595, 1·655 Foresight 1·025, 3·290, 2·385 From the last position of the instrument, four pegs at 50-metre intervals are to be set out on a uniformly falling gradient of 1 in 100; the first peg is to have an RL of 380·500. Work out the staff readings required for setting the tops of the pegs on the given gradient. (15 marks) (c) A project plan consisting of the following activities, their interconnectivity and their durations are listed in the following table : | Activity (i – j) | Duration (t) (Days) | |---|---| | 1 – 2 | 10 | | 1 – 3 | 12 | | 2 – 5 | 8 | | 2 – 7 | 12 | | 3 – 4 | 6 | | 3 – 6 | 5 | | 4 – 5 | 8 | | 5 – 6 | 8 | | 5 – 7 | 10 | | 6 – 7 | 6 | | 7 – 8 | 12 | Draw the network diagram and determine the critical path for the above project. Also, determine the activity times and the total float for each activity. (20 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) जब 0·5% का एक अवरोही ढाल 3·0% के दूसरे अवरोही ढाल से मिलता है, तब एक ऊर्ध्वाधर वक्र बनता है। 65 किमी प्रति घंटे की अभिकल्पन चाल के लिए आवश्यक (i) विराम दृष्टि दूरी, और (ii) अभिलंघन दृष्टि दूरी, प्रदान करने के लिए ऊर्ध्वाधर वक्र की लंबाई ज्ञात कीजिए। अनुदैर्घ्य घर्षण गुणांक को 0·35 एवं त्वरण को 3·6 किमी प्रति घंटा प्रति सेकंड मान लीजिए। अन्य आवश्यक आँकड़ों को भी उचित रूप से मान लीजिए। (15 अंक) (b) समानीत तल (आर.एल.) 381·605 के तल चिह्न (बेंचमार्क) से आशुतलन (फ्लाई लेवल) करते समय निम्नलिखित पाठ्यांक प्राप्त हुए : पश्चावलोकन (बैकसाइट) 2·215, 1·030, 1·595, 1·655 अग्रावलोकन (फोरसाइट) 1·025, 3·290, 2·385 उपकरण की अंतिम स्थिति से, 50 मीटर के अंतराल पर चार खूँटियाँ (पेग्स) लगानी हैं, जो 1 : 100 की एकसमान रूप से गिरती हुई ढाल पर स्थित हैं; पहली खूँटी का समानीत तल 380·500 होना चाहिए। दी गई ढाल पर खूँटियों के ऊपरी सिरों को सेट करने के लिए आवश्यक स्टाफ पाठ्यांकों की गणना कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) एक परियोजना आयोजना की निम्नलिखित गतिविधियाँ, उनका अंतर्योजन और उनकी अवधि निम्नलिखित सारणी में सूचीबद्ध हैं : | गतिविधि (i – j) | अवधि (t) (दिन) | |---|---| | 1 – 2 | 10 | | 1 – 3 | 12 | | 2 – 5 | 8 | | 2 – 7 | 12 | | 3 – 4 | 6 | | 3 – 6 | 5 | | 4 – 5 | 8 | | 5 – 6 | 8 | | 5 – 7 | 10 | | 6 – 7 | 6 | | 7 – 8 | 12 | उपर्युक्त परियोजना के लिए जाल आरेख बनाइए और क्रांतिक पथ निर्धारित कीजिए । प्रत्येक गतिविधि का समय एवं कुल प्लव (फ्लोट) भी निर्धारित कीजिए । (20 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) A descending 0.5% gradient meets a descending 3.0% gradient, so the deviation angle N = 0.005 - 0.03 in magnitude 0.025 and the curve is a SUMMIT curve. Compute the curve length required for (i) stopping sight distance and (ii) overtaking sight distance at a design speed of 65 km/h, with f = 0.35 and acceleration 3.6 km/h/s, stating all assumed data. (b) Reduce the fly-levelling readings (4 backsights, 3 foresights) from a benchmark of RL 381.605 to get the height of instrument at the last setup, then compute the staff readings needed to set the tops of four pegs at 50 m intervals on a 1 in 100 falling gradient starting from a first-peg RL of 380.500. (c) Four deliverables from the 11-activity table: (1) draw the activity-on-arrow network for events 1 to 8, (2) do the forward and backward passes, (3) identify the critical path and project duration, and (4) tabulate the activity times (EST, EFT, LST, LFT) and total float of every activity.

  • N = 0.025 and a summit curve; assumed t = 2.5 s (SSD), 2.0 s (OSD), H = 1.2 m, h = 0.15 m (SSD) and 1.2 m (OSD)
  • SSD = 0.278Vt + V²/254f = 92.7 m
  • OSD = d₁ + d₂ + d₃ ≈ 308 m, with v_b = V − 16, s = 0.7v_b + 6 and T = √(4s/a)
  • Curve lengths by testing L > S then L < S: about 9.5 m for SSD (minimum practical length used) and 232 m for OSD
  • HI by set-up: 383.820, 383.825, 382.130 and 381.400; change-point RLs 382.795, 380.535 and 379.745
  • Arithmetic check ΣBS − ΣFS = −1.860 matching the RL difference
  • Peg RLs 380.500, 380.000, 379.500 and 379.000
  • Staff readings 0.900, 1.400, 1.900 and 2.400 m from HI 381.400
  • Correct network with the 11 activities and their durations
  • Forward pass E: 0, 10, 12, 18, 26, 34, 40, 52 and backward pass L: 0, 18, 12, 18, 26, 34, 40, 52
  • Critical path 1-3-4-5-6-7-8, project duration 52 days
  • Activity table with total floats: 1-2: 8, 2-5: 8, 2-7: 18, 3-6: 17, 5-7: 4, and zero on the critical activities
Q3
50M discuss

(a) What do you understand by a Gantt or Bar chart with respect to construction project management ? Explain it with a neat sketch and discuss the limitations of Bar chart with suitable examples. (20 marks) (b) Explain with a neat sketch how vibration during the placement of concrete affects the compressive strength development of concrete, which is inversely dependent on the water-cement ratio. Also, state the advantages of inducing vibration to fresh concrete. (10 marks) (c) (i) A BG track comes across a curve of radius 1000 m. The equilibrium cant is provided considering a speed of 90 km/hr. Calculate the maximum and minimum permissible speeds on the track if the limiting values of cant deficiency and cant excess are 75 mm each. (15 marks) (ii) Define remote sensing. State how it differs from photogrammetry. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) निर्माण परियोजना प्रबंधन के संदर्भ में आप गैंट या बार चार्ट से क्या समझते हैं ? इसे एक स्वच्छ रेखाचित्र की सहायता से समझाइए और बार चार्ट की परिसीमाओं की चर्चा उपयुक्त उदाहरणों के साथ कीजिए। (20 अंक) (b) एक स्वच्छ चित्र की सहायता से समझाइए कि कंक्रीट डालते समय होने वाला कंपन, कंक्रीट की संपीडन सामर्थ्य के विकास को किस प्रकार प्रभावित करता है, जो कि विपरीत (व्युत्क्रमानुपाती) तौर पर जल-सीमेंट अनुपात पर निर्भर करती है। साथ ही, ताजे कंक्रीट में कंपन उत्पन्न करने के लाभ भी बताइए। (10 अंक) (c) (i) एक बड़ी रेल लाइन (बी.जी. ट्रैक), 1000 मीटर त्रिज्या वाले एक वक्र से होकर गुज़रती है। 90 किमी प्रति घंटे की चाल को ध्यान में रखते हुए संतुलन आनति (इक्विलिब्रियम कैंट) प्रदान की गई है। रेल पथ पर अधिकतम एवं न्यूनतम अनुज्ञेय चालों की गणना कीजिए, यदि आनति न्यूनता और आनति अधिकता के सीमांत मान 75 मिमी (प्रत्येक) हैं। (15 अंक) (ii) सुदूर संवेदन को परिभाषित कीजिए। उल्लेख कीजिए कि यह फोटोग्रामेट्री से किस प्रकार भिन्न है। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Three demands: define the Gantt/bar chart in the context of construction project management, illustrate it with a neat labelled sketch, and discuss its limitations with suitable construction examples (the limitations carry the larger weight). (b) Explain, with a neat sketch of the strength versus water-cement ratio curve, how the degree of compaction achieved by vibration modifies the inverse strength-w/c relationship (Abrams' law holds only for fully compacted concrete), and then state the advantages of vibrating fresh concrete. (c(i)) For a BG curve of R = 1000 m with cant provided for an equilibrium speed of 90 km/h, compute the equilibrium cant and then the maximum permissible speed (cant + cant deficiency of 75 mm) and the minimum permissible speed (cant - cant excess of 75 mm). (c(ii)) Two parts in about 75 words: give a precise definition of remote sensing, and then bring out how it differs from photogrammetry (purpose, spectral range, sensors and output).

  • Definition: horizontal bars against a time scale, showing start, finish, duration and progress
  • Neat labelled sketch with an activity list, time axis and progress or today line
  • Limitations: no dependencies, no critical path or float, and poor for large complex projects
  • Further limitations with a construction example: hard to update, no uncertainty or resource information
  • Abrams' law: strength falls as w/c rises, valid only for fully compacted concrete
  • Sketch of strength against w/c: vibrated curve keeps rising at low w/c, hand-compacted curve turns down because of voids
  • Vibration makes stiff, low w/c mixes compactable; 1% voids costs about 5–6% strength
  • Advantages: denser and stronger, lower w/c, better bond, finish and economy, fewer voids
  • C = GV²/127R with G = 1750 mm gives 111.6 mm
  • Maximum: cant plus deficiency 186.6 mm, V_max ≈ 116.4 km/h
  • Minimum: cant minus excess 36.6 mm, V_min ≈ 51.5 km/h
  • Definition: information without contact, by recording reflected or emitted electromagnetic energy
  • Photogrammetry: accurate measurements and maps from overlapping photographs
  • Differences in purpose, spectral range (visible only against multispectral, thermal and microwave), sensors and output
Q4
50M discuss

(a) What do you understand by the effective CBR value ? Discuss its significance. How is it calculated as per the latest IRC guidelines ? (10 marks) (b) (i) List the various applications of Origin and Destination (O&D) Studies. (10 marks) (ii) Explain the process of orientation in Plane Table Surveying. Discuss the various methods of orientation highlighting suitability, advantages and disadvantages of each. (10 marks) (c) (i) With respect to the chemical admixtures that are added to concrete, briefly differentiate 'Accelerators' from 'Retarders', and also explain how they modify the properties of concrete. (10 marks) (ii) What is the creep for hardened concrete ? With a neat sketch, draw the time-versus-deformation diagram of hardened concrete. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) आप प्रभावी कैलिफोर्निया बीयरिंग अनुपात (CBR) मान से क्या समझते हैं ? इसके महत्व की चर्चा कीजिए। नवीनतम आई.आर.सी. दिशानिर्देशों के अनुसार इसकी गणना किस प्रकार की जाती है ? (10 अंक) (b) (i) उत्पत्ति और गंतव्य (ओ एण्ड डी) अध्ययनों के विभिन्न अनुप्रयोगों की सूची बनाइए। (10 अंक) (ii) समतल पटल (प्लेन टेबल) सर्वेक्षण में अभिविन्यास (ओरियन्टेशन) की प्रक्रिया को समझाइए। अभिविन्यास की विभिन्न विधियों की चर्चा प्रत्येक विधि की उपयुक्तता, लाभ एवं हानियों पर प्रकाश डालते हुए कीजिए। (10 अंक) (c) (i) कंक्रीट में मिलाए जाने वाले रासायनिक अधिमिश्रणों (एडमिक्सचर) के संदर्भ में, 'त्वरक' एवं 'मन्दक' के बीच संक्षेप में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए और यह भी समझाइए कि ये कंक्रीट के गुणों को किस प्रकार संशोधित करते हैं। (10 अंक) (ii) कठोर कंक्रीट के लिए विसर्पण (क्रीप) क्या है ? एक स्वच्छ रेखाचित्र की सहायता से कठोर कंक्रीट के समय-विरूपण आरेख बनाइए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Three demands: define the effective CBR of a subgrade as used in the latest IRC flexible pavement design guidelines, discuss why it matters for pavement design, and describe how it is determined (two-layer subgrade, chart, and conversion to resilient modulus). (b(i)) 'List the various applications' — an enumerated answer is wanted, covering the planning, design, terminal, modelling and traffic-management uses to which origin-destination data are put; a one-line mention of the survey methods is enough by way of context. (b(ii)) Two demands: explain what orientation of a plane table means and why it is necessary, and then discuss each method of orientation — by magnetic needle, by backsighting and by resection (three-point and two-point problems) — bringing out the suitability, advantages and disadvantages of each. (c(i)) Two demands: briefly differentiate accelerating admixtures from retarding admixtures (what each does to setting and strength, with named chemicals), and explain how each modifies the properties of fresh and hardened concrete, with the situations in which each is used. (c(ii)) Two demands: define creep of hardened concrete precisely, and draw the labelled time-versus-deformation diagram showing elastic strain on loading, creep under sustained load, instantaneous recovery and creep recovery on unloading, and the residual permanent strain.

  • Definition: single CBR (or modulus) equivalent to the layered subgrade, giving the same surface deflection
  • Significance: the subgrade strength governs pavement thickness and the subgrade strain criterion; a weak embankment below a good top layer is otherwise ignored
  • Calculation: 4-day soaked CBR of each layer converted to M_RS = 10 CBR (≤ 5%) or 17.6 CBR^0.64 (> 5%)
  • Two-layer (500 mm over semi-infinite) IITPAVE deflection for 40 kN and 0.56 MPa, then effective modulus, capped at 100 MPa, and back to effective CBR
  • Planning: desire lines, trip generation and attraction, forecasting, new links and bypasses
  • Design: location of bypasses, intersection and flyover types, lanes and capacity
  • Terminals and facilities: bus, truck and rail terminals, parking, toll plazas, public transport routes
  • Modelling and traffic management: four-stage models, one-way schemes, diversions, signal coordination
  • Orientation: table set so that the sheet lines are parallel to the ground lines; needed for consistent plotting from different stations
  • Magnetic needle: quick, small scale, affected by local attraction
  • Backsighting: accurate, standard for traversing, needs a plotted line and visibility, error propagates
  • Resection: three-point (Bessel, Lehmann, mechanical; danger circle) and two-point problems
  • Accelerators shorten the setting time and raise early strength (CaCl₂, calcium formate, triethanolamine)
  • Retarders delay the setting time (gypsum, sugar, lignosulphonate, tartaric acid)
  • Effects on fresh concrete (setting time, workability) and hardened concrete (early and later strength, shrinkage)
  • Uses: cold weather, repair, shotcrete for accelerators; hot weather, long haul, large pours for retarders
  • Definition: increase in strain with time under sustained constant stress, over and above the instantaneous elastic strain
  • Diagram: elastic strain on loading, creep strain rising at a decreasing rate to a limit
  • On unloading: instantaneous recovery and creep recovery, both labelled
  • Residual permanent strain shown, and axes labelled with t₀ and t₁

B

Q5
50M Compulsory construct

(a) What is the difference between a flood hydrograph and a mass curve ? Using the following data of a river at a dam site, construct and plot a flood hydrograph and find the values of minimum and maximum discharge in the river. Month | Flow (m³/s) January | 110 February | 120 March | 130 April | 140 May | 150 June | 160 July | 180 August | 210 September | 170 October | 140 November | 110 December | 100 (10 marks) (b) A catchment has six rain gauge stations. The annual rainfall recorded by the gauges in a year is as follows : Station | A | B | C | D | E | F Rainfall (cm) | 82·7 | 102·9 | 180·3 | 110·3 | 95·8 | 136·70 (i) Determine the standard error in the estimation of mean rainfall in the existing set of rain gauges. (ii) For a 10% error in the estimation of mean rainfall, calculate the optimum number of rain gauge stations in the catchment. (10 marks) (c) A 30 cm diameter well penetrates 25 m below the static water table. After 24 hrs of pumping @ 5400 l/min, the water table in a test well 90 m away is lowered by 0·53 m and in another well 30 m away, the drawdown is 1·11 m. What is the transmissivity of the aquifer ? (10 marks) (d) A water supply system has several units, and the design of each unit should match with variations in the water demand. How will you take into account the effect of these variations in consumption while designing the following units for water treatment ? (i) Filter units (ii) Pumping units (iii) Distribution mains (iv) Sedimentation tank (v) Clear water reservoirs Demonstrate your design values for a town with a design population of 15000 and average per capita demand of 270 litres per capita per day for these units. (10 marks) (e) Determine the theoretical oxygen demand (ThOD) for glycine [CH₂(NH₂)COOH] using the following assumptions : (i) In the first step, the organic carbon and nitrogen are converted to carbon dioxide and ammonia respectively. (ii) In the second and third steps, ammonia is oxidized sequentially to nitrite and nitrate. The ThOD is the sum of the oxygen required for all three steps. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) बाढ़ जलालेख (हाइड्रोग्राफ) एवं संहति (मास) वक्र में क्या अंतर है ? एक बाँध स्थल पर नदी के निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों का उपयोग करके, एक बाढ़ जलालेख बनाइए और उसे आलेखित कीजिए तथा नदी में न्यूनतम और अधिकतम निस्सरण के मानों को ज्ञात कीजिए । माह | प्रवाह (m³/s) जनवरी | 110 फरवरी | 120 मार्च | 130 अप्रैल | 140 मई | 150 जून | 160 जुलाई | 180 अगस्त | 210 सितम्बर | 170 अक्टूबर | 140 नवम्बर | 110 दिसम्बर | 100 (10 अंक) (b) एक जलग्रहण क्षेत्र में छह वर्षामापी स्टेशन हैं । एक वर्ष में इन वर्षामापियों द्वारा दर्ज की गई वार्षिक वर्षा निम्नलिखित है : स्टेशन | A | B | C | D | E | F वर्षा (सेमी) | 82·7 | 102·9 | 180·3 | 110·3 | 95·8 | 136·70 (i) मौजूदा वर्षामापियों के सेट में औसत वर्षा के आकलन में मानक त्रुटि निर्धारित कीजिए । (ii) औसत वर्षा के आकलन में 10% की त्रुटि के लिए, जलग्रहण क्षेत्र में वर्षामापी स्टेशनों की इष्टतम संख्या की गणना कीजिए । (10 अंक) (c) 30 सेमी व्यास का एक कुआँ, स्थिर भौम जल-स्तर से 25 मीटर नीचे तक अंतर्वेशन करता है । 5400 लीटर प्रति मिनट की दर से 24 घटे तक पंपिंग करने के बाद, 90 मीटर की दूरी पर स्थित एक परीक्षण कुँए में भौम जल-स्तर 0·53 मीटर नीचे चला जाता है, और 30 मीटर की दूरी पर स्थित एक अन्य कुँए में भौम जल-स्तर में 1·11 मीटर की गिरावट आती है । इस जलवाही स्तर (एक्विफर) की पारगम्यता (ट्रांसमिसिविटी) क्या है ? (10 अंक) (d) जल आपूर्ति प्रणाली में कई इकाइयाँ होती हैं, और प्रत्येक इकाई का अभिकल्पन जल की माँग में होने वाले बदलावों के अनुरूप होना चाहिए । जल उपचार के लिए निम्नलिखित इकाइयों के अभिकल्पन के लिए खपत में होने वाले इन बदलावों के प्रभाव को किस प्रकार ध्यान में रखेंगे ? (i) फिल्टर इकाइयाँ (ii) पंपिंग इकाइयाँ (iii) मुख्य वितरण लाइन (iv) अवसादन टंकी (v) स्वच्छ जल कुंड 15000 की अभिकल्पित जनसंख्या एवं 270 लीटर प्रति व्यक्ति प्रतिदिन की औसत जल माँग वाले एक शहर के लिए, इन इकाइयों हेतु अपने अभिकल्पित मानों की गणना कीजिए । (10 अंक) (e) निम्नलिखित मान्यताओं का उपयोग करके ग्लाइसिन [CH₂(NH₂)COOH] के लिए सैद्धांतिक ऑक्सीजन माँग (ThOD) का निर्धारण कीजिए : (i) पहले चरण में, कार्बनिक कार्बन और नाइट्रोजन क्रमशः कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड और अमोनिया में परिवर्तित हो जाते हैं । (ii) दूसरे एवं तीसरे चरण में, अमोनिया क्रमिक रूप से नाइट्राइट और नाइट्रेट में ऑक्सीकृत हो जाती है । सैद्धांतिक ऑक्सीजन माँग, इन तीनों चरणों के लिए आवश्यक ऑक्सीजन का योग है । (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Three demands: distinguish a flood hydrograph from a mass curve, construct and plot the flood hydrograph from the twelve monthly discharges given for the dam site, and read off the minimum and maximum discharges in the river. (b) From the six annual rainfall values, compute (i) the standard error (percentage error) in the estimate of mean rainfall from the existing six gauges, and (ii) the optimum number of gauges for a 10% error, using N = (Cv/e)^2. (c) From a steady-state pumping test on an unconfined aquifer (Q = 5400 l/min, initial saturated thickness 25 m, drawdowns 1.11 m at 30 m and 0.53 m at 90 m), find the coefficient of permeability and hence the transmissivity of the aquifer. (d) Two demands: state which variation in demand governs the design of each of the five named units of a water supply system and why, and then work out the actual design values for a town of 15000 persons at 270 litres per capita per day. (e) Write and balance the three oxidation steps for glycine — carbon to CO2 with nitrogen released as ammonia, ammonia to nitrite, nitrite to nitrate — sum the oxygen demanded in all three and express the theoretical oxygen demand per mole and per gram of glycine.

  • Hydrograph: discharge against time; mass curve: cumulative volume against time (its integral, slope = discharge)
  • Hydrograph plotted with axes labelled and the points joined
  • Maximum 210 m³/s in August and minimum 100 m³/s in December
  • Mean 118.1 cm, standard deviation 35.4 cm (n − 1 divisor), C_v = 29.9%
  • Standard error ε = C_v/√N = 12.2%
  • N = (C_v/e)² = 8.97, so about 9 gauges (3 more)
  • Thiem equation for an unconfined aquifer Q = πK(h₂² − h₁²)/ln(r₂/r₁)
  • h₁ = 23.89 m and h₂ = 24.47 m (thickness 25 m less drawdown), Q = 0.09 m³/s
  • K ≈ 1.12 × 10⁻³ m/s (about 97 m/day)
  • T = K b ≈ 0.028 m²/s (about 2420 m²/day)
  • Average demand 4050 m³/day; maximum daily 1.8 × average = 7290 m³/day; peak hourly 2.7 × average hourly = 455.6 m³/h
  • Filters, sedimentation tank and pumps: maximum daily demand, with reasons
  • Distribution mains: maximum hourly demand of the maximum day
  • Clear water reservoir: hourly variation (balancing) and reserve, about one-third of the daily demand
  • Step 1: C₂H₅NO₂ + 1.5 O₂ → 2 CO₂ + H₂O + NH₃
  • Steps 2 and 3: NH₃ + 1.5 O₂ → NO₂⁻ + H⁺ + H₂O, and NO₂⁻ + 0.5 O₂ → NO₃⁻
  • Total 3.5 mol O₂ per mol of glycine = 112 g
  • ThOD = 112/75 = 1.49 g O₂/g glycine
Q6
50M solve

(a) The following information is available regarding the relationship between trap efficiency and capacity-inflow ratio for a reservoir : | Capacity-Inflow Ratio | Trap Efficiency | |---|---| | 0·1 | 87 | | 0·2 | 93 | | 0·3 | 95 | | 0·4 | 95·5 | | 0·5 | 96 | | 0·6 | 96·5 | | 0·7 | 97 | | 0·8 | 97·2 | | 0·9 | 97·3 | | 1·0 | 97·5 | Find the probable life of the reservoir with an initial reservoir capacity of 30 million cubic metres, if the annual flood flow is 60 million cubic metres and average annual sediment inflow is 360000 tonnes. Assume a specific weight of sediment equal to 1200 kg/m³. The useful life of the reservoir will terminate when 80% of initial capacity is filled with sediment. (20 marks) (b) A bed of uniform sand, having a particle size of 0·55 mm diameter, a specific gravity of 2·67, a porosity of 0·40 and a depth of 75 cm is to be washed hydraulically. Compute : (i) Backwash rate so that expansion will be 50 percent. (ii) Head loss at this backwash rate. [Take the kinematic viscosity as 1·3 × 10⁻² cm²/s and the coefficient of drag as C_D = 24/R for water.] (15 marks) (c) (i) How does the variation of sewage flow affect its velocity in a circular sewer ? (8 marks) (ii) If 20 mL of an odorous water sample is diluted with 180 mL of odour-free water to make a 200 mL mixture where the odour is just detectable, determine the threshold odour number of this water sample. Give your comments on acceptability of this sample from the consumer point of view. The odour sensitivity of an individual varies, so what may be the correct procedure and method to carry out an odour test ? (7 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) इस जलाशय की संभावित आयु ज्ञात कीजिए, जिसकी प्रारंभिक जलाशय क्षमता 30 मिलियन घन मीटर है, यदि वार्षिक बाढ़ प्रवाह 60 मिलियन घन मीटर और औसत वार्षिक अवसाद अंतर्वाह 360000 टन है। अवसाद का विशिष्ट भार 1200 किग्रा प्रति घन मीटर मानिए। जलाशय की उपयोगी आयु तब समाप्त हो जाएगी जब उसकी प्रारंभिक क्षमता का 80% भाग अवसाद से भर जाएगा। (20 अंक) (b) एकसमान रेत की एक परत, जिसका कण आमाप 0·55 मिमी व्यास, विशिष्ट घनत्व 2·67, संरंध्रता 0·40 एवं गहराई 75 सेमी है, को द्रवीय रूप से साफ किया जाना है। गणना कीजिए : (i) प्रतिधावन (बैकवॉश) दर ताकि विस्तारण 50 प्रतिशत हो । (ii) इस प्रतिधावन दर पर होने वाला दाबोच्चता ह्रास । [शुद्धगतिक श्यानता (काइनेमेटिक विस्कोसिटी) का मान 1·3 × 10⁻² cm²/s और जल के लिए कर्षण गुणांक C_D = 24/R लीजिए ।] (15 अंक) (c) (i) एक वृत्ताकार सीवर में सीवेज के प्रवाह में होने वाला बदलाव उसके वेग को किस प्रकार प्रभावित करता है ? (8 अंक) (ii) यदि 20 मिलीलीटर गंध वाले जल के नमूने को 180 मिलीलीटर गंध-रहित जल के साथ तनुकृत करके 200 मिलीलीटर का मिश्रण बनाया जाता है, जिसमें गंध बस थोड़ी-सी ही महसूस होती है, तो जल के इस नमूने की 'गंध की सीमा संख्या' ज्ञात कीजिए । उपभोक्ता के दृष्टिकोण से इस जल के नमूने की स्वीकार्यता पर अपनी टिप्पणी दीजिए । प्रत्येक व्यक्ति की गंध पहचानने की क्षमता अलग-अलग होती है, इसलिए गंध परीक्षण करने की सही प्रक्रिया एवं विधि क्या होनी चाहिए ? (7 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Using Brune's trap-efficiency versus capacity-inflow relation supplied in the table, find the probable useful life of a 30 Mcum reservoir (annual inflow 60 Mcum, sediment inflow 360000 tonnes per year at 1200 kg/cum) up to the point at which 80% of the initial capacity is silted, by the incremental (step-by-step) method because trap efficiency falls as the capacity shrinks. (b) For a 75 cm deep uniform sand bed (d = 0.55 mm, G = 2.67, porosity 0.40) expanded by 50% during backwashing, compute (i) the backwash (fluidisation) rate, using Stokes' law because the drag coefficient is prescribed as CD = 24/R, and (ii) the head loss through the expanded bed. (c(i)) Explain how the velocity in a circular sewer changes as the depth of flow (and hence the discharge) varies — through the hydraulic mean depth in Manning's equation — and state the design consequences (self-cleansing velocity at minimum flow, non-scouring velocity at maximum flow). (c(ii)) Three demands in about 105 words: compute the threshold odour number for 20 mL of sample made up to 200 mL, comment on whether such water is acceptable to consumers, and state the correct procedure for an odour test given that individual sensitivity to odour varies.

  • Sediment volume 360 000 × 1000/1200 = 0.30 Mm³/year; initial capacity-inflow ratio 0.5
  • Life ends at 24 Mm³ lost, capacity 6 Mm³ (ratio 0.1)
  • Steps of 6 Mm³ using mean trap efficiency 95.75%, 95.25%, 94% and 90% from the table
  • Times 20.9, 21.0, 21.3 and 22.2 years, total about 85 years
  • Stokes settling velocity v_s = g(G − 1)d²/18ν = 21.2 cm/s
  • Expanded-bed porosity 0.60 from (1 − ε_e)L_e = (1 − ε)L
  • Backwash velocity v_b = v_s ε_e^4.5 ≈ 2.13 cm/s (about 77 m/h)
  • Head loss (1 − ε)(G − 1)L = 0.75 m
  • Manning v = (1/n)R^(2/3)S^(1/2); velocity depends on R = A/P at fixed n and S
  • Same velocity at full and half depth (R = D/4); maximum v ≈ 1.14 V at 0.81D and maximum Q ≈ 1.07 Q at 0.95D
  • Velocity falls below half depth (about 0.7 V at 0.25D)
  • Design: self-cleansing velocity at minimum flow and non-scouring velocity at maximum flow
  • TON = (A + B)/A = 200/20 = 10
  • Comment: not acceptable for drinking (limit about 3), needs treatment
  • Procedure: panel of at least five persons, odour-free room and dilution water, blanks, increasing concentrations, geometric mean of the thresholds
Q7
50M calculate

(a) A sedimentation tank is treating 5 million litres of sewage per day containing 250 ppm of suspended solids. The tank removes 60 percent of the suspended solids. Calculate the quantity of sludge produced per day in bulk (volume) and weight, if the : (i) moisture content of the sludge is 97 percent, (ii) moisture content of the sludge is 96 percent, and (iii) specific gravity of the wet sludge is 1·02. Calculate the volume of sludge produced for both moisture contents and the percentage reduction in volume of sludge produced for 1·0 percent reduction in moisture content (wet sludge). (20 marks) (b) Draw a neat sketch of a diversion work (headwork). Briefly explain the functions of the following : (i) Silt excluder (ii) Cross regulator (iii) Canal fall (iv) Aqueduct (v) Escape (15 marks) (c) (i) A mass concrete dam is constructed across a river. The bed width of the river is 100·0 m. The depth of water upstream of the dam in the river is 10·0 m. The deepest foundation is at R.L. of 100·0 m. If the R.L. of the crest of spillway is 160·0 m, find : (I) Hydraulic height of the dam (II) Total height of the dam (III) Total hydrostatic force on the upstream face of the dam (10 marks) (ii) Classify the following hydraulic devices based upon their mode of operation : (I) Aqueduct (II) Super passage (III) Falls (IV) Barrage/weir (V) Dams (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक अवसादन टंकी प्रतिदिन 5 मिलियन लीटर सीवेज का शोधन कर रही है, जिसमें 250 पीपीएम निलंबित ठोस पदार्थ है । यह टंकी 60 प्रतिशत निलंबित ठोस को हटा देती है । प्रतिदिन बनने वाले अवपंक (स्लज) की मात्रा (आयतन एवं वजन में) की गणना कीजिए, यदि : (i) अवपंक (स्लज) में नमी की मात्रा 97 प्रतिशत है, (ii) अवपंक (स्लज) में नमी की मात्रा 96 प्रतिशत है, और (iii) गीले अवपंक (स्लज) का विशिष्ट घनत्व 1·02 है । दोनों नमी की मात्राओं के लिए बनने वाले अवपंक (स्लज) के आयतन की गणना कीजिए और अवपंक (स्लज) में नमी की मात्रा में 1·0 प्रतिशत की कमी (गीला अवपंक) होने पर अवपंक के आयतन में होने वाली प्रतिशत कमी । (20 अंक) (b) मोड़ मुखरचना (डायवर्जन हैडवर्क) का एक स्वच्छ रेखाचित्र बनाइए । निम्नलिखित के कार्यों को संक्षेप में समझाइए : (i) गाद अपवर्जक (सिल्ट एक्सक्लूडर) (ii) क्रॉस नियामक (क्रॉस रेगुलेटर) (iii) नहर झरना (कैनाल फॉल) (iv) जलसेतु (एक्वाडक्ट) (v) पलायन (एस्केप) (15 अंक) (c) (i) एक नदी पर एक घन कंक्रीट बाँध बनाया गया है । नदी के तल की चौड़ाई 100·0 मीटर है । बाँध के ऊर्ध्वप्रवाह (अपस्ट्रीम) में नदी के पानी की गहराई 10·0 मीटर है । सबसे गहरी नींव 100·0 मीटर के समानीत तल (आर.एल.) पर है । यदि अधिप्लव मार्ग (स्पिलवे) के शिखर का समानीत तल 160·0 मीटर है, तो निम्नलिखित ज्ञात कीजिए : (I) बाँध की द्रवीय (हाइड्रोलिक) ऊँचाई (II) बाँध की कुल ऊँचाई (III) बाँध के ऊर्ध्वप्रवाह (अपस्ट्रीम) फलक पर कुल द्रवस्थैतिक (हाइड्रोस्टेटिक) बल (10 अंक) (ii) निम्नलिखित द्रवीय (हाइड्रोलिक) उपकरणों को उनके कार्य करने के तरीके के आधार पर वर्गीकृत कीजिए : (I) जलसेतु (एक्वाडक्ट) (II) सुपर पैसेज (III) झरने (फॉल्स) (IV) बैराज/वीयर (V) बाँध (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) For a 5 MLD sedimentation tank treating sewage at 250 ppm SS with 60% removal, compute the daily sludge production by weight and by volume at 97% and at 96% moisture content (wet sludge specific gravity 1.02), and then the percentage reduction in sludge volume caused by the 1% reduction in moisture content. (b) Two demands: draw a neat labelled sketch (plan) of a diversion headwork showing all its components, and then explain briefly the function of each of the five named items — silt excluder, cross regulator, canal fall, aqueduct and escape. (c(i)) Three quantities are asked for a mass concrete dam with river bed width 100 m, 10 m depth of water upstream, deepest foundation at RL 100.0 m and spillway crest at RL 160.0 m: (I) the hydraulic height, (II) the total (structural) height, and (III) the total hydrostatic force on the upstream face. The definitions of the two heights must be stated because the data fix them only through an assumption. (c(ii)) Classify the five named hydraulic structures by their mode of operation: dams as storage works, weir/barrage as diversion (river) works, aqueduct and super passage as cross-drainage works, and falls as canal drop/energy-dissipation works — with the distinguishing feature of each class.

  • Dry solids 5 × 10⁶ l × 250 mg/l × 0.60 = 750 kg/day
  • At 97% moisture: 750/0.03 = 25 000 kg/day and volume 24.51 m³/day
  • At 96% moisture: 750/0.04 = 18 750 kg/day and volume 18.38 m³/day
  • Reduction in volume (24.51 − 18.38)/24.51 = 25%
  • Labelled plan: weir or barrage, undersluices, divide wall, head regulator, silt excluder, fish ladder, guide banks and marginal bunds
  • Silt excluder: tunnels in the undersluice pocket that pass bottom silt downstream (not a silt ejector)
  • Cross regulator: gate across the parent canal below an offtake to head up water and control discharge; canal fall: drop and energy dissipation on steep ground
  • Aqueduct: canal carried over a drainage; escape: releases surplus canal water to a natural drain
  • Definitions: hydraulic height is the highest controlled water level above the lowest original bed; total height is the top of dam above the lowest foundation
  • Assumptions stated: reservoir at crest RL 160 with bed at RL 150, top of dam at crest
  • Hydraulic height 10.0 m and total height 60.0 m
  • F = ½γh²b = ½ × 9.81 × 10² × 100 = 49 050 kN, acting at h/3 above the bed
  • Dams: storage works
  • Barrage or weir: diversion (river) works
  • Aqueduct and super passage: cross-drainage works
  • Falls: canal drop or energy-dissipation works, with the distinguishing feature of each class
Q8
50M explain

(a) (i) Explain Lacey's silt factor. If the value of this factor is 1.0, what does it indicate ? The longitudinal slope of a canal running in an alluvial soil is 1/5000. Design the canal section and also find discharge (Q). Take Lacey's silt factor, f = 0.90 and the canal side slope as 1/2 H : 1 V. (15 marks) (ii) What are the effects of waterlogging ? (5 marks) (b) Consider a thermoelectric power plant of 1000 Mega Watt capacity with a load factor of 70 percent and an efficiency of 42 percent. Determine pollutants emitted on an annual basis such as particulates, carbon dioxide, and sulphur dioxide, if coal is used as fuel. The ultimate analysis and calorific value of the coal used are as follows : Moisture | Ash | Carbon | Hydrogen | Nitrogen | Sulphur 8% | 7% | 78% | 2% | 2% | 1% Oxygen | Calorific Value | Fly ash 2% | 30 Mega Joules/kg | 77% of ash Assume complete combustion as per the stoichiometric equation and no air pollution control device. If an electrostatic precipitator is installed which removes 99% of particulates, compute the amount of particulate emissions. (15 marks) (c) Enumerate the key additions in the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 in comparison with the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, to emphasize that it is a paradigm shift. (15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) लेसी के गाद गुणक को समझाइए। यदि इस गुणक का मान 1.0 है, तो यह क्या दर्शाता है ? जलोढ़ मृदा में बनी एक नहर की अनुदैर्ध्य प्रवणता 1/5000 है। नहर खंड की अभिकल्पना और निस्सरण (Q) भी ज्ञात कीजिए। लेसी का गाद गुणांक, f = 0.90 और नहर की पार्श्व प्रवणता 1/2 H : 1 V है। (15 अंक) (ii) जल-भराव के क्या प्रभाव हैं ? (5 अंक) (b) एक 1000 मेगावॉट क्षमता का ताप-वैद्युत ऊर्जा संयंत्र 70 प्रतिशत भार गुणक (लोड फैक्टर) और 42 प्रतिशत दक्षता के साथ कार्य कर रहा है। यदि कोयले का उपयोग ईंधन के रूप में किया जा रहा है तो उत्सर्जित प्रदूषकों जैसे सूक्ष्म कण, कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड, और सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड का वार्षिक आधार पर उत्सर्जन का निर्धारण कीजिए। प्रयुक्त कोयले का चरम विश्लेषण और ऊष्मीय मान इस प्रकार हैं : नमी | राख | कार्बन | हाइड्रोजन | नाइट्रोजन | सल्फर 8% | 7% | 78% | 2% | 2% | 1% ऑक्सीजन | ऊष्मीय मान | उड़न राख 2% | 30 मेगा जूल प्रति किग्रा | राख का 77% स्टॉइकियोमीट्री समीकरण के अनुसार पूर्ण दहन मान लीजिए और कोई वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण उपकरण नहीं लगा है। यदि एक स्थिरवैद्युत अवक्षेपक स्थापित कर दिया जाता है और वह 99 प्रतिशत सूक्ष्म कणों को हटा देता है, तो सूक्ष्म कणों के उत्सर्जन की मात्रा की गणना कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) भारत में ठोस अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन नियम, 2016 की तुलना में ठोस अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन नियम, 2026 में हुए प्रमुख परिवर्धनों की सूची बनाइए जिससे इस बात पर ज़ोर दिया जा सके कि यह एक प्रतिमान परिवर्तन है। (15 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Three demands: explain Lacey's silt factor and state what f = 1.0 signifies in terms of the bed material, then design the canal section (bed width, depth, velocity, area, perimeter, hydraulic radius) and find the discharge for S = 1/5000, f = 0.90 and side slopes of 1/2 H : 1 V. (a(ii)) In about 75 words, enumerate the effects of waterlogging — on soil aeration and crop yield, on salinity/alkalinity, and the ancillary agricultural, health and structural consequences. (b) For a 1000 MW coal-fired plant at 70% load factor and 42% efficiency (coal CV 30 MJ/kg, ash 7% of which 77% is fly ash, carbon 78%, sulphur 1%), find the annual coal consumption and the annual emissions of particulates, CO2 and SO2 with no control device, and then the particulate emission with a 99%-efficient electrostatic precipitator. (c) 'Enumerate the key additions ... to emphasize that it is a paradigm shift' — the answer must first establish what the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 already provided, then list the additions made by the 2026 Rules, and argue why the additions amount to a change of paradigm rather than an incremental amendment.

  • f = 1.76√d (d in mm); f = 1.0 is standard medium silt, d ≈ 0.323 mm
  • Lacey's equations: V = (Qf²/140)^(1/6), R = 5V²/2f, P = 4.75√Q, S = f^(5/3)/(3340Q^(1/6))
  • Q ≈ 3.9 m³/s, V ≈ 0.53 m/s, A ≈ 7.37 m², P ≈ 9.4 m, R ≈ 0.79 m
  • Trapezoid solved with P = B + 2.236D and A = BD + 0.5D²: D ≈ 0.95 m, B ≈ 7.3 m
  • Rise of water table into the root zone, poor aeration and reduced crop yield
  • Salinity and alkalinity from capillary rise and evaporation
  • Ancillary effects: delayed tillage and sowing, mosquito breeding and disease
  • Damage to foundations, roads and canal linings
  • Average output 700 MW; energy 6.132 × 10⁶ MWh/yr; heat input at 42% efficiency
  • Coal ≈ 1.75 × 10⁶ t/yr (about 55.6 kg/s)
  • Fly ash ≈ 9.4 × 10⁴ t/yr with no control; ≈ 944 t/yr with a 99% ESP
  • CO₂ ≈ 5.0 Mt/yr using 44/12 of the carbon mass; SO₂ ≈ 35 000 t/yr using 64/32 of the sulphur mass
  • Notified 28 January 2026, in force 1 April 2026, superseding the 2016 Rules
  • Four-stream source segregation (wet, dry, sanitary, special care) against three in 2016
  • Polluter-pays environmental compensation and extended bulk waste generator responsibility (20 000 m², 40 000 l/day or 100 kg/day)
  • Central online portal, landfill restriction and audits, legacy dumpsite biomining, RDF targets of 5% to 15%
  • Paradigm shift: from local-body collection and disposal to generator responsibility, circular economy and enforcement by liability and digital tracking

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