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UPSC Civil Engineering — Previous Year Questions

Every question from Civil Engineering papers in UPSC Civil Services Mains (2021–2026), organised by year. 96 questions in total, each with directive-word analysis, model answer points, and a full evaluation rubric.

96Questions
6Years covered

2026 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2026

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) A frictionless pulley A as shown in the figure is supported by two bars AB and AC which are hinged at B and C to a… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) Using limit state method, design a reinforced concrete circular column (with lateral ties) of height 3·0 m. It is… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) A vertical member in a truss is subjected to the following member force (factored) : (i) Compressive force = 30 kN… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Three bodies of weights 200 N, 800 N and 400 N are connected with inextensible strings, passing over the… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A free jet of water with constant cross-section area of 0·01 m² is deflected by a hinged plate of length 2·0 m… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) Assuming the law for the velocity distribution in the boundary layer as v/V = 2(y/(δ)) - (y/(δ))², derive an… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) The data with respect to a normally consolidated clay are as follows : Thickness of the clay layer = 3·0 m Initial… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) Consolidated drained tests on clay specimens were performed and the following results were obtained : Specimen No… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) Explain with a neat sketch the essential features of English bond in brick masonry construction. (10 marks) (b)… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) A vertical curve is formed when a descending gradient of 0·5% meets another descending gradient of 3·0%. Find the… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) What do you understand by a Gantt or Bar chart with respect to construction project management ? Explain it with a… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) What do you understand by the effective CBR value ? Discuss its significance. How is it calculated as per the… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) What is the difference between a flood hydrograph and a mass curve ? Using the following data of a river at a dam… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) The following information is available regarding the relationship between trap efficiency and capacity-inflow ratio… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) A sedimentation tank is treating 5 million litres of sewage per day containing 250 ppm of suspended solids. The… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) (i) Explain Lacey's silt factor. If the value of this factor is 1.0, what does it indicate ? The longitudinal slope… 50 marks

2025 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2025

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) Draw the free body diagram of link ABCD and determine all reaction forces acting at A, B, C and D of the assembly… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) A T-section beam is constructed by gluing two pieces of wood together as shown in the figure. The maximum stress in… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) Analyse the continuous beam shown in the figure by slope-deflection method. Draw the Shear Force Diagram (SFD) and… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Analyse the frame shown in the figure by the moment distribution method. Draw the Bending Moment Diagram (BMD)… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A rigid body having dimensions of 0·6 m wide, 0·9 m high and 1·2 m long weighs 10 kN when submerged in water. What… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) The discharge Q over a small rectangular weir depends on head H over the weir, the weir height P, gravity g, width… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) A braced cut 7·0 m deep and 3·0 m wide is proposed in a cohesionless sand deposit. Assume that the first row of… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) The consolidated undrained (CU) tests were performed on the four over-consolidated clay samples obtained from a… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) Briefly discuss why it is more advantageous to use high strength concrete for construction of high-rise buildings… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) A contractor intends to bid for erecting a statue at a square in an urban area. The various activities of the… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) (i) Observations were made with a theodolite from the points A and B of baseline AB having horizontal length of 200… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Compare the application of 'straight blade' and 'angle blade' of bulldozers for earthwork in a construction… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A box culvert has an expected life of 10 years. (i) If the acceptable risk of at least one event exceeding the… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) A storm over a catchment of area 5 km² had a duration of 14 hours. The mass curve of rainfall of the storm is as… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) The data related to the activated sludge process is given below: Population = 500000 Wastewater contribution = 150… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) The figure shows an overflow spillway which is 40 m high. At the design energy head of 2·5 m over the spillway… 50 marks

2024 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2024

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) A cantilever beam ABCD, as shown in the above figure, is carrying a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m between B… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) A cantilever beam ABC as shown in the above figure is having a total span of 2·0 m. The maximum safe allowable… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) A box culvert ABCD is shown in the above figure. By using member fixed end moments given above; calculate the final… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) A prestressed concrete T-beam having the cross-section of flange 1500 mm wide and 200 mm thick, rib of 300 mm wide… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A 125 mm diameter vertical cylinder rotates concentrically inside a fixed cylinder of diameter 130 mm. Both… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) The resistance force F of a ship is a function of its length L, velocity V, acceleration due to gravity g and fluid… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) A canal is to be excavated through a soil with c = 20 kN/m², φ = 20°, e = 0·80 and G = 2·70. The side slope is 1 in… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) A retaining wall 8 m high, with a smooth vertical back is pushed against a soil mass having c = 50 kN/m², φ = 15°… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) Describe various defects in clay bricks giving sources/causes of defects. (10 marks) (b) Draw neat sketches… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) The network for a construction project is shown in the figure given below. The three time estimates for each… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) (i) Explain spot speed, running speed, space-mean speed, time-mean speed and average speed. (10 marks) (ii) The… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) The network of a certain project is shown in the figure given below with the estimated time duration (in days) of… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) What is a flood hydrograph ? The monthly discharge (Q) data of a river at a gauging station are given below : … 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) Explain an aquifer. Deduce the expression for discharge (Q) through a well in an unconfined aquifer taking usual… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) A sewer having a 60 cm diameter (D) is required to flow at 0·4 depth (i.e., a proportional depth d/D = 0·4) on a… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) (i) What is Lacey's Silt Factor ? What is its value for standard silt ? Design an earthen canal using Lacey's silt… 50 marks

2023 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2023

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) An aluminium tensile specimen has a diameter of 30·50 mm and a gauge length 275 mm. If the force of 17·50 × 10⁴ N… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) Draw the shearing force and bending moment diagrams for the beam loaded as shown in the figure below. (15 marks)… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) Design a floor slab to cover a room with internal dimensions of 4·5 m × 6·0 m. The slab is simply supported on all… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Determine the horizontal component of deflection of joint D of the truss loaded as shown in the figure. The… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) The flow rate of water over a weir is 3 m³/s. A 1 : 10 scale model of the weir is tested in a water channel. Answer… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) A flow of 9.0 m³/s occurs in a long rectangular channel of 3.0 m width with 1.5 m depth of water flow. There is a… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) A 3.0 m high sandy fill material was placed loosely at a relative density of 50%. Laboratory studies indicated that… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) At a site, fine sand exists to a depth of 10 m and below this lies a soft clay layer 7.0 m thick. Water table is… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) What are the approximate limits of chemical (oxide) composition in hydraulic cement ? Also state the function of… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) For a project consisting of several activities, the allotted time and the dependencies of the activities are… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) (i) Explain any two traffic surveys carried out to decide the geometric design features of a road. (5 marks) (ii)… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) A machine was purchased for ₹4,50,000 on 1st January 2001 and erection and installation work costed ₹80,000. The… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A 6-hour unit hydrograph has the following ordinates (time in hr : ordinate in m³/s): 0 : 0; 6 : 200; 12 : 550; 18… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) (i) A 50 cm well in an unconfined aquifer of saturated thickness 45 m yields 600 lpm under a drawdown of 3 m at the… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) Discuss the following operational difficulties encountered in the operation of Activated Sludge process : (i)… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) (i) Design a trapezoidal concrete lined channel to carry a discharge of 300 m³/s at a slope of 1 in 4000. The side… 50 marks

2022 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2022

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) A rod shown in the figure below is subjected to a force of 95 kN. Determine the diameter d of the portion ②, if the… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) Determine the forces in all the members of a pin-jointed truss shown in the figure below, with a vertical force of… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) (i) A simple girder of 20 m span is traversed by a moving uniformly distributed load of 6 m long with an intensity… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Find the maximum load P, which the bracket as shown can transmit. The bolt strength of 20 mm dia and 8·8 grade is… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) Prove that the power transmission through nozzle is maximum when d/D = √(D/8fl). Neglect the minor losses. (10… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) The velocity profile in a laminar boundary layer on a flat plate is modelled by the cubic expression μ/μ₁ = a₀ +… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) (i) Distinguish between discharge velocity and seepage velocity in the case of flow of water through soils. 5 (ii)… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) A vertical cut, 4·5 m deep, is to be made in a c-φ soil having cohesion = 19·1 kN/m², angle of internal friction =… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) (i) Briefly explain the deterioration of concrete caused by leaching action, and (ii) chemical interaction. (10… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) A construction company is planning to purchase an excavation equipment for operating a borrow soil pit that will… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) A two-lane State Highway in plain terrain, with cutting section having camber of 2·0%, negotiates a curve of radius… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) In a layout of B.G. Yard, an 8° curve branches off from a 4° main curve in an opposite direction. If speed is… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A catchment has six rain gauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the rain gauges are as follows… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) (i) Define unit hydrograph. Explain two basic assumptions made in the derivation of a unit hydrograph. What are the… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) (i) Determine the volume of sludge before and after digestion and percent reduction for 500 kg of primary sludge… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) (i) The Gross Command Area for a distributary is 15000 hectares, 80% of which can be irrigated. The intensity of… 50 marks

2021 Mains

16 questions · 800 marks

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Paper I 8 Qs · 400 marksPaper II 8 Qs · 400 marks
All 16 questions from 2021

Paper I

  1. Q1 (a) Determine the forces in members AC, DE and GH of the truss loaded and supported as shown in the figure below : (10… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) Using moment area method, find the slopes and deflection at 'B' for the beam shown in the figure below. Point 'B'… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) The figure below represents time and consolidation relationship for a clay sample 30 mm thick subjected to a given… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Determine the maximum tensile force in member DI of the truss shown below due to the series of three moving loads… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A circular log of weight 1000 N and radius 18 cm is supported by a pair of brackets, one of which is shown in the… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) A submarine can be assumed to have cylindrical shape with rounded nose. Assuming its length to be 55 m and diameter… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) The subsoil at a site consists of a 12·0 m thick homogeneous layer of dense sand having dry unit weight, γd = 17·2… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) A 300 mm diameter concrete pile is to be driven into a medium dense to dense sand with an embedded length of 12 m… 50 marks

Paper II

  1. Q1 (a) (i) What is the purpose of first coat of plastering ? (ii) What loads are taken by the formwork apart from its… 50 marks
  2. Q2 (a) For a small project, the number of masons required is shown. The table also indicates the duration of each activity… 50 marks
  3. Q3 (a) (i) Explain with neat sketches, how surface and sub-surface water can be removed from a railway track. (ii) Two… 50 marks
  4. Q4 (a) Design the size and spacing of dowel bars at the expansion joints of a cement concrete pavement of thickness 25 cm… 50 marks
  5. Q5 (a) A one-hour unit hydrograph of a catchment is shown in the figure. A storm of two hours duration with intensity of… 50 marks
  6. Q6 (a) Two settling tanks – one rectangular, with length to width ratio of 3 : 1 and side water depth of 3·5 m; and the… 50 marks
  7. Q7 (a) An open drain is to be designed to prevent waterlogging for an area of 576 ha. Given that the drainage coefficient… 50 marks
  8. Q8 (a) From the basin map of a given watershed with drainage area 3000 km², the length of the mainstream (L) is measured… 50 marks

How Civil Engineering answers are marked

The shape the examiner expects, what earns the marks and the traps that lose them: the same card our rubrics for this subject are written from.

Answer skeleton

  1. Given
  2. Assumptions
  3. Design or analysis steps
  4. Result and check

What earns the marks

  • State the code clause and factor of safety
  • Draw the free body, SFD, BMD or section
  • Carry units through every step
  • Check the result against permissible limits

What earns the extra mark

  • Relevant IS code number
  • Neat labelled sketch

Traps that cost marks

  • Final value without the design check
  • Unstated assumptions
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