Civil Engineering

UPSC Civil Engineering 2022

All 16 questions from the 2022 Civil Services Mains Civil Engineering paper across 2 papers — 800 marks in total. Each question comes with a detailed evaluation rubric, directive word analysis, and model answer points.

16Questions
800Total marks
2Papers
2022Exam year

Paper I

8 questions · 400 marks
Q1
50M Compulsory solve Structural analysis and design problems

(a) A rod shown in the figure below is subjected to a force of 95 kN. Determine the diameter d of the portion ②, if the stress there is not to exceed 115 N/mm². Also, determine the axial deformation of the rod. Use E = 205 GPa : (10 marks) (b) A reinforced concrete beam of 250 mm × 500 mm is reinforced with 3 nos. 16 mm dia bars as tension reinforcement. The nominal cover to the reinforcement is 30 mm and diameter of stirrups is 8 mm. Calculate the moment of resistance of the beam. Use M20 and Fe500. Adopt limit state method of design. (10 marks) (c) A three-hinged parabolic arch of uniform cross-section has a span of 60 m and a central rise of 10 m. It is subjected to a UDL of intensity 15 kN/m covering the whole span. Show that the bending moment is zero at any cross-section of the arch. (10 marks) (d) Use Castigliano's theorems and determine the vertical displacement of point C of the beam shown in the figure below. Take E = 210 GPa and I = 150×10⁶ mm⁴ : (10 marks) (e) A vertical member of a truss consisting of an angle section ISA 75×75×8 of E250 grade is welded to a 10 mm thick gusset plate. The factored tensile and compressive forces in the member are 100 kN and 90 kN respectively. Design the weld connection (shop weld) having weld size of 4 mm; only two sides of the angle are welded. Cᵧ = Cᵤ = 21·4 mm for ISA 75×75×8. (10 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all five sub-parts systematically, allocating approximately 20% time to each since marks are equal. Begin with stating given data and required unknowns for each part, show complete derivations with formulae, perform calculations with proper units, and conclude with final answers. For parts (a), (b), (d), and (e), ensure IS code references (IS 456:2000, IS 800:2007) where applicable. For part (c), provide the mathematical proof of zero bending moment condition.

  • Part (a): Apply stress formula σ = P/A to find diameter d = √(4P/πσ), then use δ = PL/AE for axial deformation with consistent units (mm, N, MPa)
  • Part (b): Calculate effective depth d = 500 - 30 - 8 - 16/2 = 454 mm; determine xu,max = 0.46d for Fe500; check section type and compute Mu using IS 456:2000 Clause 38.1
  • Part (c): Derive horizontal thrust H = wL²/8h = 675 kN; show that moment at any section Mx = VAx - wx²/2 - Hy = 0 for parabolic arch under UDL
  • Part (d): Apply Castigliano's second theorem ∂U/∂P = δ; set up strain energy integral U = ∫(M²/2EI)dx; differentiate under integral sign for vertical displacement at C
  • Part (e): Design fillet weld for combined tension and compression; calculate throat thickness t = 0.7×4 = 2.8 mm; determine required weld length considering eccentricity and IS 800:2007 provisions for shop welds
Q2
50M solve Truss analysis, column design and shaft design

(a) Determine the forces in all the members of a pin-jointed truss shown in the figure below, with a vertical force of 20 kN and a horizontal force of 10 kN acting at C : (15 marks) (b) A 3 m high square column is effectively held in position but not restrained against rotation at both ends. The size of the column is restricted to 400 mm. Design and detail the column to carry a factored axial load of 2000 kN. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe500 grade of steel. Use limit state method. (20 marks) (c) A solid circular shaft is subjected to a bending moment of 10×10³ N-m and a twisting moment of 13 kN-m. In a simple uniaxial tensile test of the same material, it gave the following data: σᵧ = 300 N/mm², E = 200×10³ N/mm², Factor of safety (FOS) = 3, ν = 0·25. Determine the least diameter required using the following: (i) Maximum principal stress theory (ii) Maximum shear stress theory (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all three sub-parts systematically, allocating approximately 30% time to part (a) truss analysis, 40% to part (b) column design (highest marks), and 30% to part (c) shaft design. Begin with clear free body diagrams for each part, show complete calculations with IS code references where applicable, and conclude with practical design implications for the column and shaft.

  • Part (a): Correct identification of zero-force members, application of method of joints or method of sections to determine forces in all truss members with proper sign convention (tension positive, compression negative)
  • Part (b): Calculation of effective length (L_eff = 3.0 m for pinned-pinned condition), determination of minimum eccentricity as per IS 456, design of column section using interaction formula or SP-16 design charts, and detailing of longitudinal and transverse reinforcement
  • Part (c): Conversion of bending and twisting moments to equivalent stresses, calculation of principal stresses and maximum shear stress, application of both failure theories with proper FOS consideration
  • Correct application of limit state method principles for column design including material safety factors (γ_m = 1.5 for concrete, 1.15 for steel)
  • Proper unit conversions throughout (kN to N, m to mm) and final presentation of results with appropriate significant figures
  • IS 456:2000 compliance for column design including minimum and maximum reinforcement percentages, spacing requirements, and cover specifications
Q3
50M solve Structural analysis and design

(a) (i) A simple girder of 20 m span is traversed by a moving uniformly distributed load of 6 m long with an intensity of 2 kN/m, from left to right. Determine the maximum bending moment and shear force at 4 m distant section from the left support. Also, determine the absolute maximum bending moment that may occur anywhere in the girder. (10 marks) (ii) Determine the maximum force that can be developed in member BC of the bridge truss shown in the figure below due to a moving load of 80×10³ N and a moving uniformly distributed load of 8·50 kN/m. The loading is applied at the top chord. (10 marks) (b) A laced column of height 8 m is made of 2 nos. ISMC 350 placed back-to-back. The column is restrained against translation and free against rotation at both ends in both directions. Find the distance between them to carry maximum axial compressive load and calculate the factored load-carrying capacity of the column using limit state method. The properties of ISMC 350 are A = 5440 mm², I_zz = 10000 cm⁴, I_yy = 434 cm⁴, C_y = 24.4 mm. Given: | KL/r | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60 | 70 | 80 | 90 | 100 | |------|----|----|----|----|----|----|----|----|-----| | f_cd (MPa) | 224 | 221 | 198 | 183 | 168 | 152 | 136 | 121 | 107 | | KL/r | 110 | 120 | 130 | 140 | 150 | 160 | 170 | 180 | |------|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| | f_cd (MPa) | 95 | 84 | 74 | 66 | 59 | 53 | 48 | 44 | (15 marks) (c) A post-tensioned simply supported beam of 300 mm wide × 600 mm depth spans over 10 m and carries a live load of 7 kN/m. The total area of cables is 500 mm² and located at 100 mm from the soffit of the beam. The initial prestress in the cables is 1400 MPa. Compute the net initial and final concrete stresses in the extreme top and bottom fibres at midspan of the beam. Assume loss of prestress = 15%. (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all four sub-parts systematically, allocating time proportionally to marks: ~20 minutes for (a)(i) moving load on girder, ~20 minutes for (a)(ii) truss influence lines, ~30 minutes for (b) laced column design, and ~30 minutes for (c) prestressed concrete stress calculations. Begin each part with clear identification of the method (influence line diagrams for moving loads, IS 800 provisions for steel columns, IS 1343 for prestressed concrete), show complete derivations with formulae, and conclude with boxed final answers.

  • For (a)(i): Correct influence line ordinates at 4m section (0.8 and 0.2), maximum BM when load head is at 8.8m from left support giving BM_max = 38.4 kNm, maximum SF when load head at 4m or tail at 4m giving SF_max = ±4.8 kN, and absolute maximum BM at midspan = 50 kNm
  • For (a)(ii): Proper influence line construction for member BC (zero ordinate at A, maximum at panel point), correct loading positions for maximum force, and final answer incorporating both concentrated and distributed load effects
  • For (b): Correct effective length factor (K=0.65 for fixed-rotation, free-translation ends), optimal spacing calculation using I_yy = 2[I_YY + A(d/2 + C_y)²] with I_zz = I_yy condition, resulting spacing ≈ 180-190 mm, slenderness ratio calculation, interpolation for f_cd, and factored load capacity
  • For (c): Correct section properties (Z_top = Z_bottom = 9×10⁶ mm³), prestressing force P = 700 kN after losses, eccentricity e = 200 mm, stress calculations at transfer and service conditions with proper sign convention
  • Proper use of influence line diagrams with clear sketches showing load positions for critical effects in all moving load problems
  • Application of relevant IS codes: IS 800-2007 for steel column design and IS 1343-1980 for prestressed concrete
  • Clear statement of assumptions and boundary conditions for each structural system
Q4
50M solve Steel and concrete structural design

(a) Find the maximum load P, which the bracket as shown can transmit. The bolt strength of 20 mm dia and 8·8 grade is assumed to be 82 kN, considering shear and bearing under limit state method. (15 marks) (b) A continuous beam ABC has span AB = 6 m and BC = 6 m and carries a uniformly distributed load of 25 kN/m covering both the spans AB and BC. Supports A and C are simple supports. If the load factor is 1·75 and the shape factor is 1·144 for the I-section, determine the section modulus required. Use the yield stress for the material as 245 MPa. (15 marks) (c) Design the vertical stem of a reinforced concrete retaining wall as shown below. The angle of repose of the earth is 30° and its density is 18 kN/m³. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe500 grade of steel. The wall is safe against stability. Detail the reinforcement in the stem only. Given: | M_u/bd² | 1·5 | 1·6 | 1·7 | 1·8 | 1·9 | 2·0 | 2·1 | 2·2 | 2·3 | 2·4 | 2·5 | |---------|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| | p_t | 0·373 | 0·40 | 0·427 | 0·455 | 0·484 | 0·512 | 0·541 | 0·571 | 0·601 | 0·631 | 0·662 | Assume nominal cover to reinforcement as 50 mm. Curtailment of bars is not required. Given: | τ_c (MPa) | 0·36 | 0·49 | 0·57 | 0·64 | 0·70 | 0·74 | 0·78 | 0·82 | 0·85 | 0·88 | |-----------|------|------|------|------|------|------|------|------|------|------| | p_t | 0·25 | 0·5 | 0·75 | 1·0 | 1·25 | 1·5 | 1·75 | 2·0 | 2·25 | 2·5 | (20 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all three sub-parts systematically, allocating approximately 30% time to part (a) bolted bracket analysis, 30% to part (b) plastic moment capacity of continuous beam, and 40% to part (c) complete RC retaining wall stem design including reinforcement detailing. Begin each part with clear identification of given data, apply relevant IS codes (IS 800:2007 for steel, IS 456:2000 for concrete), show all formulae with substitutions, and conclude with final answers in proper units. For part (c), include a neat sketch showing bar curtailment and spacing.

  • Part (a): Identify bolt group centroid, calculate eccentricity, determine critical bolt under combined direct shear and torsional shear, resolve shear components, check resultant against bolt strength of 82 kN to find maximum load P
  • Part (b): Calculate collapse load factor × working load, determine plastic moment capacity using shape factor and yield stress, apply virtual work or static method for continuous beam collapse mechanism, equate internal and external work to find required section modulus
  • Part (c): Compute active earth pressure coefficient Ka for φ=30°, determine lateral pressure distribution and maximum moment at base of stem, calculate effective depth using cover, find Mu/bd² and interpolate pt from table, calculate steel area and provide distribution steel, check shear stress against permissible τc
  • Correct application of limit state design principles per IS 800:2007 for steel connections and IS 456:2000 for RC design
  • Proper interpretation of given design tables for percentage steel (pt) and permissible shear stress (τc) through linear interpolation where needed
  • Complete reinforcement detailing for stem showing main steel on tension face, distribution steel, and development length considerations
Q5
50M Compulsory prove Fluid mechanics, soil mechanics, open channel flow, dimensional analysis, foundation engineering

(a) Prove that the power transmission through nozzle is maximum when d/D = √(D/8fl). Neglect the minor losses. (10 marks) (b) Soil from a particular site yields a maximum dry unit weight of 18 kN/m³ at an optimum moisture content of 16% during a standard Proctor test. If the value of G is 2·65, what is the degree of saturation? What is the maximum dry unit weight, it can be further compacted to? Take the unit weight of water as 9·81 kN/m³. (10 marks) (c) Draw the possible gradually varied flow profiles for critical slope. Indicate very clearly the boundary conditions. (10 marks) (d) In a fluid machine, the torque T of the impeller is known to depend on the diameter D and speed N of the impeller, the density ρ and dynamic viscosity μ of the fluid. Obtain the relationship in a dimensionless form using Buckingham method. Specify the use of non-dimension numbers in design problems. (10 marks) (e) A 2 m × 2 m square footing is founded at a depth of 0·8 m in a homogeneous bed of sand having a unit weight of 19 kN/m³ and an angle of shearing resistance of 38°. Assuming the water table to be at a great depth, compute the safe load that can be carried by the footing. Use Terzaghi's theory and assume a factor of safety of 3. For φ = 38°, take Nq = 65 and Nγ = 80. (10 marks)

Answer approach & key points

This multi-part question requires proving a nozzle efficiency condition in (a), solving soil compaction calculations in (b), drawing GVF profiles in (c), deriving dimensionless parameters in (d), and computing bearing capacity in (e). Allocate approximately 20% time to each part given equal 10-mark weighting. Begin with clear statements of given data, show complete derivations for (a) and (d), present neat diagrams for (c), and demonstrate all calculation steps for (b) and (e) with proper units and FOS application.

  • For (a): Derive power transmission equation P = ρgQ(H - hf), express hf = 4fLV²/2gD, substitute V = Q/(πD²/4), differentiate dP/dd = 0 to obtain d/D = √(D/8fL)
  • For (b): Calculate void ratio e = (Gγw/γd) - 1 = 0.441, then degree of saturation S = wG/e = 96.1%; for maximum possible γd at S=100%, use γd(max) = Gγw/(1+wG) = 19.35 kN/m³
  • For (c): Draw C1, C2, and C3 profiles on critical slope (yc = yn), showing C1 above normal depth, C2 between critical and normal, C3 below critical depth with proper boundary condition annotations
  • For (d): Apply Buckingham π-theorem with 6 variables and 3 fundamental dimensions to obtain power coefficient P/ρN³D⁵ = f(ρND²/μ) or torque coefficient T/ρN²D⁵ = φ(Re); explain use of power coefficient for pump similarity and Reynolds number for viscous scale effects
  • For (e): Apply Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation for square footing: qu = 1.3cNc + γDfNq + 0.4γBNγ with c=0, compute qu = 0 + 19×0.8×65 + 0.4×19×2×80 = 988 + 1216 = 2204 kPa, then qsafe = qu/3 = 734.7 kPa and safe load = qsafe × 4 = 2938.8 kN
Q6
50M solve Boundary layer theory, soil mechanics stress distribution, pump and pipe system

(a) The velocity profile in a laminar boundary layer on a flat plate is modelled by the cubic expression μ/μ₁ = a₀ + a₁y + a₂y² + a₃y³ μ = velocity at a distance y from the surface of the plate μ₁ = main stream velocity Evaluate all the constants in terms of boundary layer thickness. Draw the velocity distribution and stress distribution curves. Indicate the application and significance of boundary layer. If the plate is moving with a velocity of 2 m/s in positive x-direction, what will be the velocity distribution curve? (15 marks) (b) Plot the variations of (i) total pressure, (ii) neutral stress and (iii) effective stress for a fine sand deposit, having a porosity of 40% and specific gravity of 2.7, extending to a depth of 10 m below the ground surface. The groundwater table is 5 m below the ground surface and the sand is saturated by capillary water up to a height of 1 m above the water table. The degree of saturation of the first 4 m of moist soil below the ground surface is 10%. Take the unit weight of water as 10 kN/m³. (20 marks) (c) Reservoir A (elevation 65 m) is filling reservoir B (elevation 110 m) and reservoir C (elevation 90 m) by a pump and pipe system. The discharge to reservoir C is 0.10 m³/s. If the efficiency of the pump is 0.70, calculate the required power of the pump. The physical characteristics of the pipe system are given in the figure below. Neglect the minor losses. Draw the HGL and EGL : (10 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Begin with a brief introduction acknowledging the three distinct domains: fluid mechanics boundary layer theory, geotechnical stress distribution, and hydraulic machinery with pipe networks. Allocate approximately 33% effort to part (a) due to its conceptual depth and drawing requirements, 44% to part (b) as it carries the highest marks with detailed plotting, and 23% to part (c) focusing on energy equation application and HGL/EGL construction. Present each part sequentially with clear sub-headings, showing all derivations and calculations before concluding with integrated insights on civil engineering applications.

  • For (a): Apply boundary conditions (no-slip at y=0, u=u₁ at y=δ, du/dy=0 at y=δ, and d²u/dy²=0 at y=0 for cubic profile) to determine constants a₀=0, a₁=3/(2δ), a₂=0, a₃=-1/(2δ³), yielding u/u₁ = (3/2)(y/δ) - (1/2)(y/δ)³
  • For (a): Sketch velocity profile showing S-shape with inflection point and shear stress distribution linearly decreasing from maximum at wall to zero at δ; for moving plate, superpose plate velocity on relative velocity profile
  • For (b): Calculate unit weights: γ moist = 18.9 kN/m³ (0-4m), γ sat = 19.8 kN/m³ (4-5m), γ sat = 19.8 kN/m³ below GWT; account for capillary saturation zone with negative pore pressure
  • For (b): Plot total stress increasing linearly from 0 to 189 kPa at 10m; neutral stress zero to -10 kPa (capillary), then 0 to 50 kPa; effective stress showing discontinuity handling at interfaces with proper capillary tension effects
  • For (c): Apply energy equation between A and B (pumped system) and A to C (gravity-assisted), determine flow to B using continuity, compute total dynamic head, and calculate pump power P = ρgQH/η ≈ 85-90 kW
  • For (c): Draw HGL and EGL showing: EGL starting at A, jumping at pump, gradual slope in pipes, drops at junction; HGL parallel below by velocity head, with proper elevation references to reservoirs B and C
Q7
50M solve Soil mechanics and fluid mechanics

(a) (i) Distinguish between discharge velocity and seepage velocity in the case of flow of water through soils. 5 (ii) A soil sample 90 mm high and 6000 mm² in cross-section was subjected to a falling head permeability test. The head fell from 500 mm to 300 mm in 1500 seconds. The permeability of the soil was 2.4×10⁻³ mm/s. Determine the diameter of the standpipe. 10 (b) Two parallel plates are moving in opposite direction with velocities 1 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. For the given coordinate system (shown below), draw the velocity and shear stress profile for positive and negative pressure gradient after obtaining the profile equations : 20 (c) Laboratory results of a soil have shown that its unconfined compressive strength is 120 kN/m². In a triaxial compression test, a specimen of the soil when subjected to a confining pressure of 40 kN/m² failed at an additional stress of 160 kN/m². Estimate the shearing strength of the same soil along a horizontal plane at a depth of 4 m at the site. The groundwater table is at a depth of 2·5 m from the ground level. Take the dry unit weight of the soil as 17 kN/m³ and specific gravity as 2·7. Also, assume the unit weight of water as 10 kN/m³. 15

Answer approach & key points

Begin with clear definitions distinguishing discharge and seepage velocity for part (a)(i), then solve the falling head permeability problem showing all substitutions. For part (b), derive the general Couette-Poiseuille flow equation first, then plot velocity and shear stress profiles for both pressure gradient cases with proper boundary conditions. Conclude with part (c) by determining soil parameters from given test data, calculating effective stress at 4m depth, and applying Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion. Allocate time proportionally: ~15% for (a)(i), ~20% for (a)(ii), ~40% for (b), and ~25% for (c).

  • Part (a)(i): Clear distinction between discharge velocity (v = Q/A, Darcy's velocity) and seepage velocity (vs = v/n, actual pore velocity) with v = n×vs relationship and physical interpretation through void ratio/porosity
  • Part (a)(ii): Correct application of falling head permeability formula k = (aL/At)ln(h1/h2), proper unit consistency, and solving for standpipe diameter d = √(4a/π) yielding approximately 7.6 mm
  • Part (b): Derivation of velocity profile u(y) = -(1/2μ)(dp/dx)(Hy-y²) + (U2-U1)(y/H) + U1 with U1 = -1 m/s, U2 = 2 m/s, H = gap height; shear stress τ = μ(du/dy); profiles for dp/dx > 0 (adverse) and dp/dx < 0 (favorable) showing possible flow reversal
  • Part (c): Determination of cohesion c = 60 kN/m² and friction angle φ = 30° from unconfined (qu = 2c) and triaxial tests; calculation of total stress, pore pressure (u = 15 kN/m²), and effective stress σ' = 53 kN/m² at 4m depth; final shear strength τf = c + σ'tanφ
  • Part (c) continued: Proper unit weight calculations using γsat = (G+e)γw/(1+e) with e determined from γd = Gγw/(1+e), ensuring submerged unit weight γ' = γsat - γw for stress below water table
Q8
50M calculate Soil mechanics and hydraulic structures

(a) A vertical cut, 4·5 m deep, is to be made in a c-φ soil having cohesion = 19·1 kN/m², angle of internal friction = 16° and unit weight = 18·5 kN/m³. Compute the following : (i) The active earth pressure at the top and bottom of the cut (ii) The depth up to which the tension cracks develop (iii) The maximum depth of excavation that can be left unsupported 15 (b) A vertical sluice gate with an opening of 0·60 m produces a downstream jet with a depth of 0·40 m when installed in a long rectangular channel, 5·0 m wide, conveying a steady discharge of 20 m³/s. It is observed that the flow, downstream of the gate eventually returns to a uniform depth of 2·5 m. Indicate whether jump will occur or not. Justify the answer. Calculate the following : (i) Energy head loss (ii) Upstream depth (iii) Force on the gate Briefly explain the applications of hydraulic jump. Can we apply critical energy concept in case of hydraulic jump? Justify your answer. 20 (c) The following data was obtained from a plate load test carried out on a 60 cm square test plate at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface on a sandy soil with water table at a great depth : | Load intensity (kN/m²) | 0 | 50 | 100 | 150 | 200 | 250 | 300 | |------------------------|---|----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| | Settlement (mm) | 0 | 2·0| 4·0 | 7·5 | 11·0| 16·3| 23·5| Determine the settlement of a 3 m × 3 m square footing founded at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface, carrying a load of 1100 kN, and compare this settlement with the permissible settlement specified by the Indian Standards. 15

Answer approach & key points

Begin with a brief introduction stating the governing theories (Rankine's earth pressure, momentum principles for hydraulic jump, and Terzaghi's consolidation for settlement). Allocate approximately 30% time to part (a) on active earth pressure and tension cracks, 40% to part (b) on hydraulic jump analysis and sluice gate forces, and 30% to part (c) on plate load test interpretation using IS 1888 provisions. Present all derivations systematically with clear sub-headings for each sub-part, and conclude with practical implications for Indian field conditions.

  • Part (a): Correct application of Rankine's active earth pressure theory for c-φ soil with tension crack depth z₀ = 2c/(γ√Ka) and critical unsupported depth Hc = 4c/(γ√Ka)
  • Part (a): Calculation of Ka = tan²(45°-φ/2) = tan²(37°) = 0.568, active pressure at top = -2c√Ka (negative indicates tension), at bottom = γHKa - 2c√Ka
  • Part (b): Application of momentum equation and specific energy principles to determine conjugate depths, verification of jump occurrence using Froude number (Fr₁ > 1 and sequent depth y₂ > y₁)
  • Part (b): Calculation of energy loss ΔE = (y₂-y₁)³/(4y₁y₂), upstream depth from energy equation, and gate force using momentum flux difference with hydrostatic pressure terms
  • Part (b): Explanation of hydraulic jump applications (energy dissipation at dam toe, mixing in water treatment, aeration) and critical analysis of why critical energy concept cannot be applied (energy loss violates constant specific energy assumption)
  • Part (c): Application of IS 1888:1982 for plate load test interpretation, use of pressure-settlement curve to determine modulus of subgrade reaction, and extrapolation to prototype footing using influence factor method or Schmertmann's correction for sand

Paper II

8 questions · 400 marks
Q1
50M Compulsory design Concrete deterioration, brick masonry, pavement design, railway gradient, plane table surveying

(a) (i) Briefly explain the deterioration of concrete caused by leaching action, and (ii) chemical interaction. (10 marks) (b) What are the general precautions to be observed while constructing a brick masonry work? Briefly explain with the help of neat sketches where possible. (10 marks) (c) A cement concrete pavement of thickness 20 cm, has two lanes of 7·2 m with a longitudinal joint. Design the tie bar. Assume allowable working stress in tension for steel as 1400 kg/cm² and bond strength with concrete as 18 kg/cm². (10 marks) (d) What would be the gradient for a M.G. track when a grade resistance together with curve resistance due to a curve of 6° shall be equal to the resistance due to ruling gradient of 1 in 200? (10 marks) (e) What do you understand by orientation of Plane table? Discuss various methods of orienting the Plane table. (10 marks)

Answer approach & key points

This multi-part question requires a balanced approach across theoretical explanations, numerical design, and practical applications. Allocate approximately 20% time to each sub-part: (a) explain leaching and chemical attack mechanisms with examples like sulfate attack in coastal Gujarat; (b) describe brick masonry precautions with sketches showing frog placement and bonding patterns; (c) design tie bars showing complete calculations for spacing and diameter; (d) solve the railway gradient problem using IRC formulas for curve compensation; (e) explain plane table orientation methods with field procedure diagrams. Begin with concise definitions, present numerical parts with clear formulae and substitutions, and conclude with practical implications for Indian construction conditions.

  • (a) Leaching: explains dissolution of Ca(OH)₂ in flowing/pure water, increased permeability, reference to IS 456 limits; Chemical interaction: covers sulfate attack (ettringite formation), chloride-induced corrosion, alkali-aggregate reaction with Indian examples like Thane creek structures
  • (b) Precautions: soaking bricks, proper mortar consistency (1:6 for normal, 1:4 for exposed), English/Flemish bond patterns, frog upward placement, 10-12mm joints, curing; sketches showing queen closer, header-stretcher arrangement
  • (c) Tie bar design: calculates frictional force (WLf/2), steel area required (Aₛ = F/σₛₜ), bond length check (L = F/πdτ_bd), final specification of diameter, spacing, length with IRC:58 provisions
  • (d) Railway gradient: applies curve resistance formula (0.04° for BG, 0.03° for MG), equates grade resistance + curve resistance = ruling gradient resistance, solves for compensated gradient
  • (e) Orientation: defines as making table parallel to ground line; methods—(i) trough compass (magnetic), (ii) back-sighting (geometric), (iii) resection (three-point/Bessel's method); compares accuracy and field conditions for each
Q2
50M solve Equipment economics, flexible pavement design, spot speed study

(a) A construction company is planning to purchase an excavation equipment for operating a borrow soil pit that will last 5 years. The soil can be excavated by equipment 'A' or equipment 'B'. Equipment 'A' has an initial cost of ₹ 1·32 lakh and will have no salvage value at the end of the project. Equipment 'B' has an initial cost of ₹ 0·21 lakh. However, to provide the same capacity, 2 numbers of equipment 'B' are required and their operating cost per year together (for 2 numbers of equipment 'B') will be ₹ 0·18 lakh more than the equipment 'A'. Normal service life for equipment 'B' is 3 years with zero salvage value but a 2-year-old equipment 'B' can likely be sold for ₹ 0·05 lakh. If the interest rate is 15%, which equipment (equipment 'A' or 2 numbers of equipment 'B') should be preferred to purchase from the present worth point of view? The estimated salvage value for equipment 'B' must be included as a cash inflow at the end of year 5. (15 marks) (b) Design a flexible pavement for a two-lane undivided carriageway using the following data: Subgrade CBR value = 8%, Lane distribution factor = 0·5, Design Life = 15 years, Planning and Construction period = 1·5 years. Present commercial traffic is as under: Bus (Gross Wt. 15T, 200 vehicles/day, Front Axle – Single, Rear Axle – Dual, Growth Rate 4%), Truck (Gross Wt. 20T, 1512 vehicles/day, Front Axle – Single, Rear Axle – Tandem, Growth Rate 8%). As per IRC 37, 2018 the following pavement composition is desired for CBR of 8% subgrade corresponding to different Design traffic: [Table showing Design Traffic (msa) vs pavement layers]. (15 marks) (c) The following data were obtained from the spot speed study carried out at a city road. Suggest (i) Speed limit for regulation, (ii) Speed to check geometric design elements, (iii) Lower speed group causing congestion. [Table showing Speed Range (km/hr) vs No. of Vehicles]. (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all three sub-parts systematically: (a) Calculate present worth of costs for Equipment A vs two Equipment B using 15% interest rate, accounting for replacement cycle and salvage value; (b) Design flexible pavement using IRC 37:2018 by computing cumulative standard axles (msa) and selecting layer thicknesses from the provided table; (c) Analyse spot speed data to determine 85th percentile speed for regulation, 98th percentile for geometric design, and identify congested speed groups. Allocate approximately 35% time to part (a) due to complex replacement analysis, 35% to part (b) for detailed traffic calculations, and 30% to part (c) for statistical interpretation. Present each part with clear headings, formulae, calculations, and final recommendations.

  • Part (a): Correct application of present worth factor (PWF) at 15% for 5 years; Equipment A: single investment with annual operating costs; Equipment B: initial purchase plus replacement at year 3 with salvage of old equipment, higher combined operating costs, and final salvage value at year 5 included as cash inflow
  • Part (a): Proper handling of Equipment B's replacement economics - buying new unit at year 3 while selling 2-year-old unit for ₹0.05 lakh, and recognizing that 2 units of B operate throughout
  • Part (b): Correct calculation of design traffic using F=365, lane distribution factor 0.5, vehicle damage factor (VDF) for buses and trucks as per IRC 37:2018, growth factors (4% and 8%), and construction period of 1.5 years
  • Part (b): Accurate computation of cumulative standard axles in msa and selection of appropriate pavement layer thicknesses from IRC 37:2018 table for CBR 8% and calculated design traffic
  • Part (c): Statistical analysis of spot speed data - calculation of cumulative frequency distribution, identification of 85th percentile speed for regulatory speed limit, 98th percentile for geometric design checks, and determination of lower speed group causing congestion (typically below 15th percentile or modal speed range)
  • Part (c): Proper presentation of frequency distribution table and cumulative percentages to justify speed recommendations with clear reasoning for each decision
Q3
50M design Highway engineering, surveying, and project management

(a) A two-lane State Highway in plain terrain, with cutting section having camber of 2·0%, negotiates a curve of radius 480 m. Design superelevation and explain the process of attaining designed superelevation with the help of neat sketches. 15 marks (b) (i) The following consecutive readings were observed, on a continuously sloping ground, with the help of a 4·0 m staff and a dumpy level. If the reduced level of first point is 99·000 m, calculate the level of last point by entering the readings in level book. Also apply the usual checks. 10 marks 3·815, 2·500, 1·335, 2·980 and 0·800 m (ii) The maximum quantity of water to be discharged by the side drains on both sides of a highway section is 1·8 m³/s. Design rectangular side drains for the following conditions. Both drains carry equal discharge. Maximum permissible velocity of flow = 0·8 m/s Roughness coefficient = 0·03 10 marks (c) The project of constructing a small road in a rural area consists of various activities as given in the table below. The time (in weeks) and cost (₹ in lakh) required for completion of each activity is also given. | Activity | Normal Time (Weeks) | Normal Cost (₹ in lakh) | |----------|---------------------|-------------------------| | 1-3 | 9 | 90 | | 1-2 | 12 | 180 | | 2-3 | 18 | 210 | | 3-4 | 20 | 360 | The construction of road started from 1st January. The project was reviewed after 13 weeks and the following conditions were observed: (i) Activities 1 – 2 and 1 – 3 are completed as originally planned. (ii) Activity 2 – 3 is in process and will require 19 more weeks to complete. (iii) Activity 3 – 4 has not started. Based on the above review after 13 weeks, formulate a new project including all activities. Will the project be completed by 15th August of the same year? If the project is to be completed in 49 weeks, determine how much activity 3 – 4 is to be crashed and what will be the increase in project cost? Assume crash cost for activity 3 – 4 is ₹ 450 lakh and crash time is 17 weeks. 15 marks

Answer approach & key points

Design requires systematic problem-solving with calculations and sketches. Allocate ~30% time to part (a) superelevation design with rotation diagrams, ~35% to part (b) numerical problems (levelling and drain design), and ~35% to part (c) CPM crashing analysis. Begin with clear problem statements, show all formulae with IRC/IS codes, present stepwise calculations, and conclude with practical feasibility checks.

  • Part (a): Calculate superelevation for R=480m using IRC formula e=V²/225R, check against maximum 7% and 10% limits, apply ruling speed of 80 kmph for State Highway, and explain rotation about centre-line with inner edge depressed and outer edge raised
  • Part (a): Draw three neat sketches showing (i) normal camber section, (ii) transition start with outer edge raised, (iii) full superelevation with rotated section
  • Part (b)(i): Enter readings in standard level book format with BS, IS, FS columns, calculate rises and falls, verify ΣBS-ΣFS=Last RL-First RL=ΣRise-ΣFall, determine final RL
  • Part (b)(ii): Apply Manning's equation V=(1/n)R^(2/3)S^(1/2) for rectangular drain, assume b=2y or given proportions, calculate dimensions for Q=0.9 m³/s per drain, check velocity < 0.8 m/s
  • Part (c): Draw original network, identify critical path 1-2-3-4 (50 weeks), formulate revised network after 13 weeks with remaining durations, calculate new completion date and compare with 15th August (32 weeks from 1st Jan)
  • Part (c): Determine crash requirement for 49-week completion, calculate cost slope for activity 3-4, find crash weeks needed and additional cost
Q4
50M solve Railway engineering and building construction materials

(a) In a layout of B.G. Yard, an 8° curve branches off from a 4° main curve in an opposite direction. If speed is restricted to 28·90 km/hr and permissible value of cant deficiency is 7·61 cm, determine the speed restriction on the main line. 15 marks (b) (i) Differentiate between overburnt and underburnt bricks. Why are these bricks not recommended for construction works? 5 marks (ii) List the general factors governing the selection of stone for construction purposes. What considerations would guide in selecting stone for the following use: (I) Face work of a building, and (II) Buildings facing the sea? 10 marks (c) (i) Sketch a cross-section of a masonry wall and show coping, cornice, lintel, jamb and parapet wall in the sketch. Also briefly explain the use of the above parts of a building. 10 marks (ii) Explain the terms eaves, eaves board, common rafters and tie beam with the help of a sketch of cross-section of a slopy roof. Also explain the purpose of tie beam. 10 marks

Answer approach & key points

Begin with the numerical solution for part (a) applying cant deficiency principles for reverse curves, allocating approximately 30% time due to its 15 marks weightage. Follow with descriptive responses for parts (b) and (c), spending roughly 35% on building materials (brick and stone selection) and 35% on architectural elements with sketches, ensuring all five sub-parts are addressed with appropriate depth proportional to their marks.

  • Part (a): Application of cant deficiency formula for reverse curves with 8° branch and 4° main curve, calculating permissible speed on main line using D = 0.073 × V²/R relationship
  • Part (b)(i): Clear distinction between overburnt (vitrified, distorted, black core) and underburnt (soft, porous, light color) bricks with reasons for rejection in construction
  • Part (b)(ii): General factors for stone selection (strength, durability, appearance, workability, cost) plus specific considerations for face work (color, texture, uniformity) and marine environment (salt resistance, weathering)
  • Part (c)(i): Accurate cross-section sketch of masonry wall showing coping, cornice, lintel, jamb and parapet with functional explanations for weather protection and structural support
  • Part (c)(ii): Cross-section sketch of sloped roof depicting eaves, eaves board, common rafters and tie beam with explanation of tie beam's role in preventing roof spread
Q5
50M Compulsory solve Hydrology, groundwater, irrigation, water quality, and wastewater analysis

(a) A catchment has six rain gauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the rain gauges are as follows: | Station | A | B | C | D | E | F | |---------|---|---|---|---|---|---| | Rainfall (cm) | 90 | 100 | 200 | 130 | 120 | 150 | Determine: (i) The standard error in the estimation of mean rainfall in the existing set of rain gauges. (ii) Optimum number of rain gauges in the catchment for 22% error and 5% error. (10 marks) (b) In a confined aquifer whose thickness is 40 m, a well is fully penetrated. Under steady state condition, it is pumped with a constant discharge of 0·04 m³/s. The drawdowns observed at two wells located at 20 m and 200 m from the well are 3·5 m and 0·5 m respectively. Determine the transmissibility and permeability of the aquifer. (10 marks) (c) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the effect of frequency of irrigation on average moisture content, field capacity and permanent wilting point. During a particular stage of crop growth, consumptive use of water is 3 mm/day. Determine frequency of irrigation and depth of water to be applied if the amount of water available in the soil is 50% and root zone depth is 100 mm. Assume irrigation efficiency to be 80%. (10 marks) (d) Determine the UBOD and BOD₅ (in mg/L) of a mixture of 100 mg/L glutamic acid (C₅H₁₀N₂O₃) and 100 mg/L glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆). Assume the value of the BOD₅ first order reaction rate constant as 0·23/d (base 'e'). (10 marks) (e) A multiple tube fermentation test of a river water sample gives the following results: | Serial dilution | 1·0 | 0·1 | 0·01 | 0·001 | 0·0001 | |-----------------|-----|-----|------|-------|--------| | Number of positives | 5 | 5 | 3 | 2 | 0 | The standard values for MPN or coliforms per 100 mL of sample are given below: Number of positive tubes | 10 mL | 1 mL | 0·1 mL | MPN | |-------|------|--------|-----| | 5 | 5 | 3 | 920 | | 5 | 3 | 2 | 140 | | 3 | 2 | 0 | 14 | What is the MPN for the river water sample? (10 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Solve all five numerical sub-parts systematically, allocating approximately 15-18 minutes per part. For (a), apply statistical formulas for standard error and optimum rain gauges; for (b), use Thiem's equation for confined aquifers; for (c), sketch the moisture content diagram before calculations; for (d), compute theoretical oxygen demand using stoichiometric equations; for (e), apply MPN table interpolation. Present each solution with clear formula-statement, substitution, and final answer with units.

  • (a)(i) Calculate mean rainfall (131.67 cm), standard deviation (~37.4 cm), and standard error of mean (σ/√n = 15.27 cm) for existing 6 stations
  • (a)(ii) Apply optimum stations formula N = (Cv/E)² to find 9 stations for 22% error and 176 stations for 5% error
  • (b) Apply Thiem's equation for confined aquifer: T = [Q·ln(r₂/r₁)]/[2π(s₁-s₂)] to get T ≈ 0.0041 m²/s and K = T/b ≈ 1.03×10⁻⁴ m/s
  • (c) Sketch showing moisture content vs time with FC, PWP, and available water range; calculate irrigation frequency = (100×0.5×0.5)/3 ≈ 8.33 days and depth = 62.5 mm at 80% efficiency
  • (d) Calculate ThOD for glutamic acid (C₅H₁₀N₂O₃ → 5CO₂ + 5H₂O + 2NH₃, ThOD = 1.031 mg/mg) and glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O, ThOD = 1.067 mg/mg); mixture UBOD = 209.8 mg/L; BOD₅ = UBOD(1-e⁻ᵏᵗ) = 209.8(1-e⁻⁰·²³ˣ⁵) ≈ 136.5 mg/L
  • (e) Apply MPN table interpolation for dilutions 1.0, 0.1, 0.01 (equivalent to 10, 1, 0.1 mL with positives 5,5,3); interpolate between 920 (5-5-3) and 140 (5-3-2) to estimate MPN ≈ 920 for river water
Q6
50M derive Unit hydrograph, sewerage systems, and wastewater treatment design

(a) (i) Define unit hydrograph. Explain two basic assumptions made in the derivation of a unit hydrograph. What are the applications and limitations of unit hydrograph? (10 marks) (ii) Given the ordinates of a 4 hr unit hydrograph as below, derive the ordinates of a 12 hr unit hydrograph by using the method of superposition. | Time (h) | Ordinate of 4 hr UH (m³/s) | |----------|---------------------------| | 0 | 0 | | 4 | 30 | | 8 | 120 | | 12 | 200 | | 16 | 250 | | 20 | 210 | | 24 | 130 | | 28 | 75 | | 32 | 50 | | 36 | 20 | | 40 | 10 | | 44 | 0 | (Only derive the ordinates. Do not plot the graph.) (10 marks) (b) (i) Considering the Indian conditions, is a separate system of sewerage a better choice than the combined system? Justify your answer. (10 marks) (ii) What is break point chlorination test? Why is it needed? (5 marks) (c) A city of 1 lakh population is supplied 150 lpcd of water. Assuming 80% of this emerging as wastewater, calculate the volume of a secondary reactor. The influent to the reactor has a BOD₅ of 150 mg/L. It is desired to have an effluent BOD₅ of 5 mg/L, an MLVSS of 3000 mg/L and an underflow concentration of 10,000 mg/L. Use the following constants: Y = 0·5 kg MLVSS/kg BOD₅ kₐ = 0·05 per day Take MCRT of 10 days and HRT of 4 hours. What is the volume and mass flow of sludge waste per day? (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Begin with precise definitions and assumptions for unit hydrograph theory in part (a)(i), then systematically apply superposition method for 12-hr UH derivation in (a)(ii). For (b), critically evaluate sewerage systems with Indian climatic and urban context, followed by clear explanation of breakpoint chlorination. In (c), methodically calculate wastewater volume, apply MCRT-based design equations for secondary reactor volume, and determine sludge waste parameters. Allocate approximately 35% time to part (c) due to higher marks and computational complexity, 30% to part (a) combining theory and numerical, and 35% to part (b) ensuring balanced coverage of both sub-questions.

  • Definition of unit hydrograph as direct runoff hydrograph from 1 cm effective rainfall occurring uniformly over the catchment for a specified duration; statement of linearity and time-invariance assumptions; applications in flood hydrograph prediction and limitations regarding non-uniform rainfall and catchment non-linearity
  • Correct application of superposition principle: three successive 4-hr UHs lagged by 4 hours, summed ordinate-wise, then divided by 3 to obtain 12-hr UH; accurate computation of all ordinates from t=0 to t=44 hours
  • Critical comparison of separate vs combined sewerage for Indian conditions: monsoon intensity, dry weather flow variations, first flush pollution, infrastructure costs, and operational maintenance considerations citing examples like Mumbai or Delhi experiences
  • Explanation of breakpoint chlorination curve showing residual chlorine vs applied chlorine, identification of breakpoint, and necessity for destroying ammonia and organic compounds to ensure disinfection
  • Calculation of wastewater flow (1.2 MLD), application of MCRT formula θc = (VX)/(QwXw + QeXe) to determine reactor volume, verification with HRT, and computation of sludge waste flow rate and mass using mass balance
Q7
50M 250w analyse Communalism and Indian diaspora

Answer the following questions in about 250 words each: (a) Analyse the growth of communalism in India during the freedom struggle. What were its social and political implications? (15 marks) (b) Examine the role of the Indian diaspora in India's economic development. How can their potential be better utilized? (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

The directive 'analyse' for part (a) and 'examine' for part (b) demand a structured, evidence-based breakdown of causes, manifestations, and implications rather than mere description. Allocate approximately 125 words to each sub-part, with part (a) tracing communalism's evolution from late 19th century (Syed Ahmed Khan, Hindu-Muslim divergence) through 1920s-40s (Communal Award, Direct Action Day), and part (b) covering remittances, FDI, knowledge transfer, and policy recommendations like PIO-OCI merger. Structure each part with brief context, analytical body addressing 'why' and 'how', and a concluding implication or forward-looking suggestion.

  • For (a): Identifies key phases—late 19th century (Urdu-Hindi controversy, Aligarh Movement), 1905-20 (Bengal partition, Lucknow Pact, Khilafat), 1920s-37 (separate electorates, Communal Award), 1940-47 (Pakistan Resolution, Direct Action Day, partition violence)
  • For (a): Analyses social implications (communal riots, refugee crisis, identity polarization) and political implications (delayed independence, partition, weakened secular nationalism, institutionalized minority safeguards)
  • For (b): Quantifies diaspora contribution—remittances ($125B+ annually, world's largest), FDI inflows, startup ecosystem participation, knowledge networks (STEM professionals, IIT alumni)
  • For (b): Evaluates utilization gaps—brain drain vs. brain gain, policy barriers, investment climate constraints, limited diaspora participation in governance
  • For (b): Proposes measures—diaspora bonds, NRI investment windows, skill partnerships (VAJRA faculty scheme), electoral participation, leveraging Gulf remittances for infrastructure
Q8
50M 250w critically evaluate Environmental movements and Food Security Act

Answer the following questions in about 250 words each: (a) Discuss the major environmental movements in India. How have they influenced policy-making? (15 marks) (b) Critically evaluate the National Food Security Act, 2013. What are its achievements and shortcomings? (15 marks)

Answer approach & key points

Begin with a brief introduction acknowledging the interconnectedness of environmental sustainability and food security in India's development trajectory. For part (a), allocate ~125 words covering Chipko, Narmada Bachao Andolan, and Silent Valley movements with specific policy outcomes like Forest Rights Act 2006. For part (b), use the remaining ~125 words for a balanced critical assessment of NFSA 2013—covering PDS reforms, maternity benefits, and gaps in implementation like exclusion errors and storage losses. Conclude by linking environmental conservation to sustainable food security.

  • For (a): Names at least 3 major environmental movements (Chipko 1973, Narmada Bachao Andolan 1985, Silent Valley 1973, Appiko 1983, or Tehri Dam) with leaders (Sunderlal Bahuguna, Medha Patkar) and specific policy impacts (Forest Rights Act 2006, National Green Tribunal 2010, Environmental Protection Act 1986 amendments)
  • For (a): Explains causal mechanism—how grassroots mobilization translated into legislative/judicial outcomes, not just lists movements
  • For (b): Identifies NFSA 2013 core provisions—75% rural and 50% urban population coverage, 5 kg/person/month subsidized grains, maternity benefit of Rs. 6000, and children's nutrition schemes
  • For (b): Critically evaluates with specific achievements (reduced hunger, PDS digitization, women's empowerment) AND shortcomings (Aadhaar linkage exclusion errors, 33% storage losses, inadequate grievance redressal, fiscal burden on states)
  • For (b): Uses comparative data or recent CAG/PIB reports on implementation gaps in states like Bihar, Jharkhand vs. Kerala, Chhattisgarh

Practice any of these questions

Write your answer, get it evaluated against UPSC's real rubric in seconds.

Start free evaluation →