Q1 50M 150w Compulsory elucidate
Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :
(a) “The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ in its absolute unrestricted application does not exist in India.” Elucidate with regard to service jurisprudence. (10 marks)
(b) “If the power of judicial review of legislation and administrative actions is abrogated or taken away, the Constitution will cease to be what it is.” Critically evaluate. (10 marks)
(c) What do you understand by legislative process? Under the Constitution, the Parliament has been empowered to make law on any matter, in any list, for any territory not included in a State. Explain. (10 marks)
(d) The word ‘State’ used in the ‘Directive Principles’ has the same meaning as has been given to it by Article 12, for the purposes of enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Examine in the light of exceptions, if any. (10 marks)
(e) The President in India is elected not directly by the people, but by the method of indirect election. Explain. Who will decide in case any dispute arises in connection with the election of the President? Discuss. (10 marks)
हिंदी में पढ़ें
निम्नलिखित में से प्रत्येक प्रश्न का उत्तर लगभग 150 शब्दों में दीजिए :
(a) “भारत में ‘प्रसाद के सिद्धान्त’ का पूर्णत: अनिर्बन्धित उपयोग अस्तित्व में नहीं है।” सेवा विधिशास्त्र के सम्बन्ध में विशदीकरण कीजिए। (10 अंक)
(b) “यदि विधायन और प्रशासनिक कार्यों के न्यायिक पुनर्विलोकन की शक्ति को निराकृत अथवा अपहृत कर (हटा) दिया जाए, तो संविधान जैसा है, वैसा ही समाप्त हो जाएगा।” आलोचनात्मक मूल्यांकन कीजिए। (10 अंक)
(c) विधायी प्रक्रिया से आप क्या समझते हैं? संविधान के अन्तर्गत ऐसे किसी राज्यक्षेत्र, जो किसी राज्य में सम्मिलित नहीं है, के लिए किसी भी सूची में, किसी भी विषय पर, विधि-निर्माण किए जाने हेतु संसद को सशक्त किया गया है। व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक)
(d) ‘निदेशक तत्त्वों’ में प्रयुक्त शब्द ‘राज्य’ का वही अर्थ है जैसा कि अनुच्छेद 12 द्वारा मूलभूत अधिकारों के प्रवर्तन के उद्देश्यों हेतु दिया गया है। यदि कोई अपवाद हो, तो उसके प्रकाश में परीक्षण कीजिए। (10 अंक)
(e) भारत में राष्ट्रपति का निर्वाचन लोगों द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष रूप से नहीं, बल्कि अप्रत्यक्ष निर्वाचन पद्धति द्वारा किया जाता है। व्याख्या कीजिए। यदि किसी कारणवश राष्ट्रपति के निर्वाचन के सम्बन्ध में कोई विवाद हो जाता है, तब उसका निपटारा कौन करेगा? विवेचना कीजिए। (10 अंक)
Answer approach & key points
(a) 'Elucidate' requires the candidate to explain and illustrate, not merely define: state the doctrine of pleasure as embodied in Article 310(1) and then demonstrate, through Article 311 and case law, that its operation in India is hedged in by constitutional restrictions, so that the absolute English form does not survive here. (b) 'Critically evaluate' demands both support and challenge: establish that judicial review of legislation and of administrative action is a basic feature without which the Constitution loses its identity, and then weigh the counter-arguments (counter-majoritarian objection, judicial overreach) before taking a reasoned position. (c) Two distinct limbs must both be answered: (i) explain what the legislative process is — the stages by which a Bill becomes an Act under Articles 107 to 111; and (ii) explain the specific power in Article 246(4) by which Parliament may legislate on any matter in any List for any part of the territory of India not included in a State, i.e. for Union Territories. (d) 'Examine in the light of exceptions, if any' requires the candidate to verify the proposition against Article 36, agree that the definition is carried over from Article 12, and then identify the qualifications: the opening words 'unless the context otherwise requires', the inclusive and judicially expanded meaning of 'other authorities', the contested position of the judiciary, and the fact that Article 36 operates only within Part IV. (e) Two limbs: (i) explain the indirect mode of the President's election — the composition of the electoral college under Article 54, the uniformity and proportionality scheme under Article 55, and the method of a single transferable vote by secret ballot; and (ii) discuss who decides election disputes, which is the Supreme Court under Article 71(1), with the consequences in Article 71(2)-(4) and the statute made under Article 71(3).
- Article 310(1) and the opening words 'Except as expressly provided by this Constitution'
- Article 311(1), 311(2) and 311(3)
- The three provisos to Article 311(2)
- Deletion of the second show-cause notice by the 42nd Amendment, 1976
- Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel, (1985) 3 SCC 398
- Articles 124(4), 148(1), 218 and 324(5) as exclusions
- Textual bases: Articles 13, 32, 136 and 226/227; legislative competence (Articles 245-246) and Part III as grounds for review of legislation
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225 — basic structure
- Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain, 1975 Supp SCC 1
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India, (1980) 3 SCC 625
- L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, (1997) 3 SCC 261
- Review of administrative action through the writs under Articles 32 and 226
- Counter-majoritarian difficulty / judicial overreach as the critical side
- Article 107 (ordinary Bills) and Article 108 (joint sitting)
- Articles 109 and 110 (Money Bills), Article 117 (Financial Bills)
- Article 111 (assent of the President)
- Article 245 and Article 246, with Article 246(4) stated correctly
- Seventh Schedule — Union, State and Concurrent Lists
- Articles 239, 239A, 239AA and 240 on Union Territories
- Article 36 and its opening words 'In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires'
- Article 12 and its inclusive definition, including 'other authorities'
- Article 37 (Part IV not enforceable but fundamental in governance)
- Judicial expansion of 'other authorities' (e.g. Rajasthan SEB v. Mohan Lal, AIR 1967 SC 1857; Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib, (1981) 1 SCC 722; Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. IICB, (2002) 5 SCC 111)
- The judiciary question — Mirajkar and Rupa Ashok Hurra
- Article 54 — electoral college of elected MPs and elected MLAs
- 70th Amendment, 1992 — Delhi and Puducherry Assemblies included
- Article 55 — uniformity and parity; value of vote formula; 1971 census (84th Amendment, 2001)
- Single transferable vote, proportional representation, secret ballot
- Article 71(1) — Supreme Court decides, decision final
- Article 71(2) — acts done before the declaration not invalidated
- Article 71(3) and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952
- Article 71(4) (11th Amendment, 1961) — vacancy in the electoral college no ground
(a) "While interpreting Article 21 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court introduced the concept of 'due process of law' indirectly into the Constitution of India, and thereby expanded its scope considerably." Support your answer with the help of leading case laws. (20 marks)
(b) " 'Constitutionalism' connotes in essence—'limited government' or 'a limitation on government'. It is the antithesis of arbitrary powers." Discuss. (15 marks)
(c) "The Legislature itself must set the essential policy, or lay down standards or policy in the Delegating Act and the delegate would then legislate to advance the legislative policy." Elaborate the statement with the help of relevant case laws. (15 marks)
हिंदी में पढ़ें
(a) "संविधान के अनुच्छेद 21 का निर्वचन करते समय उच्चतम न्यायालय ने 'विधि की सम्यक् प्रक्रिया' की अवधारणा को अप्रत्यक्ष (परोक्ष) रूप से भारतीय संविधान में प्रविष्ट किया है, जिसके कारण इसकी परिधि का अत्यन्त ही विस्तार हो गया।" निर्देशक (प्रमुख) वाद-विधियों की सहायता से अपने उत्तर का समर्थन कीजिए। (20 अंक)
(b) " 'संविधानवाद' का मूल रूप में अर्थ होता है—'परिसीमित सरकार' अथवा 'सरकार पर परिसीमा'। यह मनमानी करने की शक्तियों की विपरीत अवधारणा (ऐन्टीथीसिस) है।" विवेचना कीजिए। (15 अंक)
(c) "विधायिका को प्रत्यायोजक अधिनियम में ही आवश्यक नीति अथवा नीतिगत मानकों का निरूपण कर देना चाहिए, तत्पश्चात् प्रत्यायुक्त (प्रतिनिधि) विधायी नीति के अग्रसारण में विधि-निर्माण करेगा।" सुसंगत वाद-विधियों की सहायता से उक्त कथन की विस्तारपूर्वक व्याख्या कीजिए। (15 अंक)
Answer approach & key points
(a) The candidate must trace, through leading cases, how the Supreme Court moved from 'procedure established by law' to a requirement of fair, just and reasonable procedure — effectively importing due process — and must then show the resulting expansion of Article 21 into a reservoir of substantive rights. The instruction 'support your answer with the help of leading case laws' makes correct case names, years and holdings the core of the marking. (b) 'Discuss' the proposition that constitutionalism means limited government and is the antithesis of arbitrary power: define the concept and its theoretical sources, distinguish a constitution from constitutionalism, identify the devices through which the Indian Constitution institutionalises limitation, and test the claim against episodes where constitutionalism failed. (c) 'Elaborate with the help of relevant case laws' requires the candidate to explain the doctrine that essential legislative functions — laying down policy and standards — cannot be delegated, that the delegate may only fill in details to advance the declared policy, and to prove this through the Indian line of authority beginning with In re Delhi Laws Act.
- A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, AIR 1950 SC 27
- R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, (1970) 1 SCC 248
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248 — 'right, just and fair'
- Golden triangle of Articles 14, 19 and 21
- Francis Coralie Mullin (1981); Olga Tellis (1985); Hussainara Khatoon (1979-80)
- Mithu v. State of Punjab, (1983) 2 SCC 277
- Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1 and the proportionality test
- 44th Amendment, 1978 — Articles 20 and 21 non-suspendable under Article 359(1)
- C.H. McIlwain and Carl J. Friedrich on constitutionalism
- A.V. Dicey — rule of law; Montesquieu — separation of powers
- Constitution without constitutionalism; Loewenstein's normative/nominal/semantic typology
- Part III with Articles 32 and 226; judicial review; federalism; independent judiciary
- E.P. Royappa, (1974) 4 SCC 3 — arbitrariness is antithetic to equality
- Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and Minerva Mills (1980) — basic structure as limitation
- The 1975-77 Emergency and ADM Jabalpur as the counter-illustration
- In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, AIR 1951 SC 332 — essential legislative function
- Policy and guideline test; abdication test (Gwalior Rayon, (1974) 4 SCC 98)
- Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, AIR 1960 SC 554
- Harishankar Bagla v. State of M.P., AIR 1954 SC 465
- Conditional legislation distinguished from delegated legislation
- Controls: laying procedures, Committee on Subordinate Legislation, substantive and procedural ultra vires
(a) Keshavananda illustrates judicial creativity and the policy-making role of the Supreme Court of a very high order and could be regarded to be an improvement over the formulation in Golaknath. Examine with the help of relevant arguments. (20 marks)
(b) 'Constitutional governance' is a system where government authority is limited, defined and structured by a supreme written or unwritten constitution. Analyze with special reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. (15 marks)
(c) “The concept of ‘natural justice’ is of variable content and imposes variable procedural norms from case to case.” Explain. (15 marks)
हिंदी में पढ़ें
(a) केशवानन्द, न्यायिक सृजनात्मकता तथा नीति-निर्माण में उच्चतम न्यायालय की उच्च-स्तरीय भूमिका का दृष्टान्त है और इसे गोलकनाथ के विनिश्चय में सुधार के रूप में देखा जा सकता है। सुसंगत तर्कों की सहायता से परीक्षण कीजिए। (20 अंक)
(b) 'सांविधानिक शासन' एक ऐसी व्यवस्था है, जिसमें सरकार का प्राधिकार सीमित, परिभाषित तथा एक सर्वोच्च लिखित अथवा अलिखित संविधान द्वारा रचित है। भारतीय संविधान की छठवीं अनुसूची के विशेष सन्दर्भ में विश्लेषण कीजिए। (15 अंक)
(c) ‘‘ ‘प्राकृतिक न्याय’ की अवधारणा परिवर्तनशील विषय-वस्तु वाली है तथा यह अलग-अलग मामलों में विभिन्न प्रक्रियात्मक मानक आरोपित करती है।’’ व्याख्या कीजिए। (15 अंक)
Answer approach & key points
(a) 'Examine with the help of relevant arguments' requires a reasoned comparison, not narration: state what Golaknath held, what Kesavananda held, and then argue specifically why Kesavananda represents an improvement — both doctrinally and in its policy consequences — while acknowledging the criticisms of judicial creativity that the basic structure doctrine invites. (b) 'Analyse with special reference to the Sixth Schedule' requires the candidate to define constitutional governance as limited, defined and structured authority, and then to demonstrate it through the concrete example of the Sixth Schedule — the Autonomous District and Regional Councils, their constitutionally defined legislative, judicial, executive and financial powers, and the constitutionally fixed checks upon them. (c) 'Explain' the proposition that natural justice has no fixed content: state the two core rules, then demonstrate with authority that what the rules require varies with the statutory framework, the nature of the inquiry, the subject matter and the consequences — including situations where the rules are curtailed or excluded altogether.
- Shankari Prasad (1951) and Sajjan Singh (1965)
- I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab, AIR 1967 SC 1643 — 11 Judges, 6:5, prospective overruling, Entry 97 List I
- 24th, 25th and 29th Constitutional Amendments
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225 — 13 Judges, 7:6, 24 April 1973
- Basic structure doctrine; 24th Amendment upheld; second limb of Article 31C struck down
- Minerva Mills (1980) — Article 368(4) and (5) struck down
- Why it is an improvement over Golaknath, and the criticisms of judicial creativity (no textual basis, indeterminacy, counter-majoritarian objection)
- Article 244(2) and Article 275(1)
- Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram as the four States covered
- Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils; Paragraph 2 composition (not more than 30 members, up to 4 nominated)
- Paragraph 3 legislative subjects — land, forest other than reserved forest, jhum cultivation, inheritance, marriage and divorce, social customs
- Paragraph 3(3) — Governor's assent
- Paragraphs 4 and 5 — village courts and conferment of civil/criminal court powers
- Paragraphs 7, 8 and 9 — District Fund, land revenue, taxes and mineral royalties
- Paragraph 14 Commission and Paragraph 16 dissolution/assumption by the Governor
- Nemo judex in causa sua and audi alteram partem
- Russell v. Duke of Norfolk, [1949] 1 All ER 109 — Tucker L.J.'s formulation
- A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, (1969) 2 SCC 262
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248
- Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India, (1981) 1 SCC 664 — post-decisional hearing
- Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel, (1985) 3 SCC 398 — exclusion by express provision or necessary implication
(a) “The Supreme Court of India is a multi-jurisdictional Court and may be regarded as the most powerful Apex Court in the world.” Justify this statement supported by relevant constitutional provisions. (20 marks)
(b) “It is the satisfaction of the President and not of the Central Cabinet, for proclamation of emergency in India.” Do you agree with it? Critically examine and also, discuss about the consequences of such proclamation. (15 marks)
(c) “An ‘Ombudsman’ is the projection of the legislative function of supervising the administration.” Elucidate this statement in Indian perspectives with the help of examples. (15 marks)
हिंदी में पढ़ें
(a) ‘‘भारत का उच्चतम न्यायालय एक बहु-अधिकारिता का न्यायालय है तथा इसे विश्व का सर्वशक्तिशाली शीर्ष न्यायालय कहा जा सकेगा।’’ उक्त कथन की सुसंगत संवैधानिक उपबन्धों की सहायता से न्यायसंगत पुष्टि कीजिए। (20 अंक)
(b) ‘‘भारत में आपातकाल की उद्घोषणा के लिए वांछित सन्तुष्टि राष्ट्रपति की होनी चाहिए, न कि केन्द्रीय कैबिनेट की।’’ क्या आप इस बात से सहमत हैं? आलोचनात्मक परीक्षण कीजिए तथा उद्घोषणा के प्रभावों की भी विवेचना कीजिए। (15 अंक)
(c) ‘‘ ‘ऑम्बड्समैन’ विधायी कार्य से उत्पन्न, प्रशासन पर पर्यवेक्षण की व्यवस्था है।’’ उक्त कथन का भारत के परिप्रेक्ष्य में उदाहरणों की सहायता से विशदीकरण कीजिए। (15 अंक)
Answer approach & key points
(a) 'Justify this statement supported by relevant constitutional provisions' requires the candidate to enumerate, Article by Article, the distinct jurisdictions the Supreme Court exercises — original, writ, appellate, advisory, review, and the special powers under Articles 141 and 142 — and then to argue, with comparison, why this aggregation makes it exceptionally powerful, while acknowledging the criticisms. (b) Two limbs. First, 'do you agree' and 'critically examine' the claim that the satisfaction for proclaiming an emergency is the President's and not the Cabinet's — requiring the candidate to take a position using Articles 352(3) and 74(1). Second, discuss the consequences of such a proclamation under Articles 353, 354, 358 and 359 and the extension of legislative terms. (c) 'Elucidate in Indian perspectives with the help of examples' requires the candidate to explain the Ombudsman as an institution created by and reporting to the legislature to supervise administration, trace the Indian attempt to create one, and give real Indian examples — the Lokpal, the State Lokayuktas and cognate grievance-redressal bodies — with a critical assessment of how far the Indian model matches the classical one.
- Article 131 — original jurisdiction; Article 32 — writ jurisdiction as a fundamental right
- Articles 132, 133, 134, 134A, 135 — appellate jurisdiction
- Article 136 — special leave to appeal, plenary and discretionary
- Article 143 — advisory jurisdiction, and the 143(1)/143(2) distinction
- Article 141 — law declared binding on all courts
- Article 142 — complete justice; Union Carbide (1991); SCBA v. Union of India (1998)
- Article 129 — court of record; Article 137 and the curative petition (Rupa Ashok Hurra, 2002)
- Basic structure review of constitutional amendments
- Comparison with the US Supreme Court and the UK Supreme Court
- Article 352(1) and the three grounds; 'armed rebellion' substituted by the 44th Amendment, 1978
- Article 352(3) — written communication of the Union Cabinet's decision
- Article 74(1) and its proviso (44th Amendment)
- Deletion of the 38th Amendment's ouster clause; S.R. Bommai (1994) on reviewability
- Article 352(4)-(8) — parliamentary approval, special majority, one month, six months, revocation
- Article 353 and Article 250 — Union directions and Parliament's power over the State List
- Article 354 — modification of revenue distribution
- Proviso to Article 83(2) and Article 172(1) — extension of legislative terms
- Article 358 (Article 19 suspended, war/external aggression only) and Article 359 (Articles 20 and 21 excepted)
- Sweden 1809 — Justitieombudsman; UK Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration, 1967
- First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) — Lokpal and Lokayukta recommendation
- Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (in force 16 January 2014)
- Composition: Chairperson and up to 8 Members, at least half judicial
- Selection Committee: PM, Speaker, Leader of Opposition, CJI or his nominee, eminent jurist
- Prime Minister within jurisdiction with subject-matter exclusions and procedural safeguards
- Section 63 — State Lokayuktas; Maharashtra 1971; Karnataka Lokayukta as an example
- Critical point: the Indian model is anti-corruption rather than maladministration-focused