Medical Science

UPSC Medical Science 2026 — Paper I

All 8 questions from UPSC Civil Services Mains Medical Science 2026 Paper I (400 marks total). Every stem reproduced in full, with directive-word analysis, marks, word limits, and answer-approach pointers.

8Questions
400Total marks
2026Year
Paper IPaper

A

Q1
50M Compulsory describe

(a) Describe the hip joint under the following headings : (i) Factors responsible for its stability (ii) Arterial supply of upper end of femur along with mechanism of avascular necrosis of femoral head (10 marks) (b) A 55-year-old male is operated for a lung tumour. During the postoperative stay, he develops shortness of breath. His examination shows paradoxical movement of right hemidiaphragm during inspiration and same was also recorded on MR imaging. In the above case— (i) explain the anatomical basis of his clinical findings; (ii) enumerate the major openings of diaphragm and their vertebral levels, along with all the structures passing through each of them. (10 marks) (c) A 55-year-old male presented in surgery OPD with yellow-coloured sclera and greasy stools. On detailed examination, he was diagnosed with carcinoma of head of pancreas. Based on these clinical findings, discuss the following : (i) Serum markers of cholestasis (ii) Biochemical findings in serum, urine and stool sample in this patient (iii) Cause of greasy stools (10 marks) (d) Describe the phases of action potential in a neuron. State the difference in ‘conduction’ between myelinated and unmyelinated neuron. (10 marks) (e) With the help of a suitable well-labelled diagram, explain the principal connections of basal ganglia. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) निम्न सन्धि का वर्णन निम्नलिखित शीर्षकों के अंतर्गत कीजिए : (i) उसकी स्थिरता के लिए उत्तरदायी घटक (ii) ऊरु-अस्थि (फीमर) के ऊर्ध्व छोर की धमनी-रक्त आपूर्ति तथा ऊरु शीर्ष के अवाहिका परिगलन का यांत्रिकत्व (10 अंक) (b) एक 55-वर्षीय पुरुष का फुफ्फुस अर्बुद के लिए ऑपरेशन किया गया है। ऑपरेशन-पश्च वास की अवधि में उसकी साँस फूलने लगती है। जाँच करने पर प्रश्वसन के समय उसके दाहिने अर्धमध्यच्छद में विरोधाभासी क्रिया होती दिखाई देती है, जो MR इमेजिंग करते समय भी रिकॉर्ड की जाती है। उपर्युक्त मामले में— (i) उसकी रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताओं के शारीरचनात्मक आधार की व्याख्या कीजिए; (ii) मध्यच्छद में उपस्थित मुख्य द्वारों को, वे किस कशेरुका स्तर पर स्थित होते हैं, यह बताते हुए गिनाइए तथा प्रत्येक द्वार से गुजरने वाली सभी संरचनाओं के नाम भी गिनाइए। (10 अंक) (c) एक 55-वर्षीय पुरुष पीत वर्ण श्वेतपटल तथा स्नेहिकायुक्त (ग्रीसी) मल के लक्षणों के साथ शल्यचिकित्सा OPD में पहुँचता है। विस्तृत जाँच किए जाने पर रोगी के अग्न्याशय के शीर्ष भाग में कार्सिनोमा होने का निदान किया जाता है। इन रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताओं के आधार पर निम्नलिखित की व्याख्या कीजिए : (i) पित्तस्थिरता के सीरम चिह्नक (ii) रोगी के सीरम, मूत्र तथा मल के नमूनों के जीवरासायनिक जाँच परिणाम (iii) स्नेहिकायुक्त (ग्रीसी) मल का कारण (10 अंक) (d) तंत्रिकाकोशिका में क्रिया विभव के चरणों का वर्णन कीजिए। माइलिन-आवृत तथा माइलिन-आवरणरहित तंत्रिका कोशिकाओं में ‘चालन’ में अंतर उल्लिखित कीजिए। (10 अंक) (e) उपयुक्त सुचिह्नित आरेख की मदद से आधारी गंडिका के मुख्य संयोजनों की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) 'Describe ... under the following headings' demands two clearly separated headed sub-answers: (i) the factors that make the hip joint stable, and (ii) the arterial supply of the upper end of the femur PLUS the mechanism by which avascular necrosis of the femoral head occurs. Omitting the AVN mechanism forfeits a large share of marks. (b) A case of post-thoracotomy right hemidiaphragmatic paradox requires (i) the anatomical explanation - iatrogenic right phrenic nerve injury and why a paralysed dome rises on inspiration - and (ii) an enumeration of the major diaphragmatic openings with their vertebral levels AND every structure traversing each. Both parts, and specifically the vertebral levels, must appear. (c) Obstructive (post-hepatic/cholestatic) jaundice from carcinoma head of pancreas. Three explicit sub-parts must be answered: (i) serum markers of cholestasis, (ii) the biochemical findings in serum, urine AND stool, and (iii) the mechanism of the greasy stools (steatorrhoea). All three samples must be covered in (ii). (d) Two linked demands: describe the sequential phases of the neuronal action potential with the underlying ionic conductance changes and typical voltages, and then state, comparatively, how conduction differs between myelinated and unmyelinated neurons. Both halves carry marks; a graph of membrane potential against time strengthens the first half. (e) The question explicitly requires a well-labelled diagram PLUS an explanation of the principal connections of the basal ganglia - afferents to the striatum, the direct and indirect (and hyperdirect) intrinsic circuits with their transmitters, and the efferent outflow to the thalamus and cortex. A written answer with no diagram cannot score full marks.

  • Stability: deep acetabulum, labrum and transverse ligament, iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments, capsule, suction and muscles
  • Iliofemoral (Y) ligament as the strongest, preventing hyperextension
  • Supply: retinacular arteries from medial and lateral circumflex femoral (trochanteric anastomosis), artery of ligament of head, nutrient artery
  • Avascular necrosis: retinacular vessels torn in intracapsular fracture or dislocation, head left ischaemic, collapse and osteoarthritis
  • Right phrenic nerve (C3–C5) injury during hilar or mediastinal dissection, with its course over the pericardium
  • Paradoxical movement explained: paralysed dome rises on inspiration as the normal side descends and intrathoracic pressure falls
  • Openings with levels: caval T8, oesophageal T10, aortic T12
  • Contents of each opening plus the minor passages: sympathetic trunk, splanchnic nerves, subcostal vessels, superior epigastric vessels
  • Serum: conjugated bilirubin, markedly raised ALP and GGT, raised bile salts and cholesterol
  • Urine: bilirubin present, urobilinogen absent
  • Stool: pale, clay-coloured with no stercobilin and increased fat
  • Steatorrhoea from absent bile salts (no emulsification or micelles) and, if the duct is blocked, lack of pancreatic lipase
  • Resting potential about −70 mV, threshold about −55 mV, and voltage-gated Na+ channel opening for depolarisation with overshoot to about +35 mV
  • Repolarisation by Na+ inactivation and K+ efflux, then after-hyperpolarisation
  • Absolute and relative refractory periods; all-or-none spike
  • Myelinated: saltatory conduction at nodes of Ranvier, fast and energy-saving; unmyelinated: continuous, slow
  • Components: striatum, GPe, GPi, STN and substantia nigra (SNc and SNr)
  • Afferents: corticostriatal glutamatergic, nigrostriatal dopaminergic, thalamostriatal
  • Efferents: GPi/SNr inhibit the VA/VL thalamus, which excites the motor and premotor cortex
  • Direct pathway (facilitates), indirect pathway through GPe and STN (inhibits), and dopamine acting on D1 and D2 neurons
Q2
50M discuss

(a) A 32-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. His clinical examination shows that his arm is adducted and medially rotated, elbow is extended and forearm is pronated. Sensory loss is also noted on lateral aspect of his forearm. His MR scan shows involvement of upper part of brachial plexus. Based on this clinical scenario, answer the following : (i) Identify the site of involvement of brachial plexus, using a diagram. (ii) Explain the anatomical basis of motor and sensory loss. (15 marks) (b) (i) Describe the role of various proteins regulating the iron absorption, transport and storage in the body. (10 marks) (ii) Explain the biochemical role of vitamin B6. Explain why the deficiency of vitamin B6 causes pellagra-like symptoms. (10 marks) (c) (i) Describe the functions of growth hormone. Write a note on the regulation of secretion of growth hormone. (10 marks) (ii) Discuss the mechanism of action of insulin at receptor level. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) सड़क यातायात दुर्घटना के पश्चात् एक 32-वर्षीय पुरुष आपातकालीन विभाग में लाया जाता है। उसकी रोगलाक्षणिक जाँच करने पर ज्ञात होता है कि उसकी बाहु अभिवर्तन तथा अभिमध्य घूर्णन में है, कोहनी प्रसार में है तथा प्रकोष्ठ अवतानन में है। उसके प्रकोष्ठ के पार्श्व पक्ष में संवेदनहीनता है। MR स्कैन करने पर उसकी प्रगंड जालिका का ऊर्ध्व भाग अंतर्ग्रस्त है। इस रोगलाक्षणिक दृश्य के आधार पर निम्नलिखित के उत्तर दीजिए : (i) प्रगंड जालिका किस स्थल पर अन्तर्ग्रस्त हुई है, एक आरेख द्वारा बोध कराइए। (ii) प्रेरक तथा संवेदन क्षति के शारीरचनात्मक आधार की व्याख्या कीजिए। (15 अंक) (b) (i) देह में लौह अवशोषण, वाहन तथा भंडारण के नियमन में विभिन्न प्रोटीनों की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) विटामिन B6 की जीवरासायनिक भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए। समझाइए कि विटामिन B6 हीनता से पेलाग्रा जैसे लक्षण क्यों उत्पन्न होते हैं। (10 अंक) (c) (i) वृद्धि हार्मोन के क्या-क्या कार्य हैं, उनका वर्णन कीजिए। वृद्धि हार्मोन स्रवण के नियमन पर एक टिप्पणी लिखिए। (10 अंक) (ii) ग्राही (रिसेप्टर) स्तर पर इंसुलिन के कार्य करने की क्रियाविधि की व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) A classical Erb-Duchenne (upper trunk) palsy after a road traffic accident. Two explicit demands: (i) identify the site of the plexus lesion USING A DIAGRAM, and (ii) explain the anatomical basis of each motor and sensory deficit described - the adducted medially rotated arm, extended elbow, pronated forearm and sensory loss on the lateral forearm. (b(i)) 'Describe the role of various proteins regulating iron absorption, transport and storage' requires a protein-centred answer covering all three compartments - luminal/enterocyte uptake and export, plasma transport and cellular delivery, and intracellular storage - together with the regulatory proteins (hepcidin-ferroportin axis, IRE/IRP system). (b(ii)) Two linked demands: (a) explain the biochemical role of vitamin B6, i.e. the reactions catalysed by its coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate, and (b) explain the specific mechanism by which B6 deficiency mimics pellagra - the block at the PLP-dependent kynureninase step of the tryptophan-to-niacin pathway. The causal explanation in (b) carries heavy weight. (c(i)) Two demands of roughly equal weight: describe the functions of growth hormone (growth-promoting and metabolic, direct versus IGF-1 mediated) and write a note on the regulation of its secretion (GHRH, somatostatin, ghrelin, IGF-1 feedback, and the physiological stimuli and inhibitors). (c(ii)) A compact note strictly at RECEPTOR level: the structure of the insulin receptor, the ligand-induced autophosphorylation, and the downstream signalling limbs (IRS-PI3K-Akt and Ras-MAPK) with the key cellular outcome of GLUT4 translocation. General insulin actions on metabolism are not what is asked.

  • Site: upper trunk (C5, C6) at Erb's point, shown on a plexus diagram
  • Motor: deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor paralysed, giving adducted and medially rotated arm
  • Biceps, brachialis and supinators paralysed with unopposed triceps and pronators, giving extended elbow and pronated forearm (waiter's tip)
  • Sensory: C5–C6 dermatomes, with lateral forearm supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm (musculocutaneous)
  • Absorption: Dcytb, DMT1, haem carrier protein and ferroportin with hephaestin
  • Transport: transferrin and transferrin receptor 1 with endosomal release
  • Storage: ferritin and haemosiderin
  • Regulation: hepcidin–ferroportin axis and the IRE–IRP system
  • PLP as the active coenzyme, with a Schiff base mechanism
  • Reactions: transamination, decarboxylation (GABA, dopamine, serotonin, histamine), ALA synthase, trans-sulfuration, glycogen phosphorylase
  • Kynureninase (PLP-dependent) converts 3-hydroxykynurenine to 3-hydroxyanthranilate in the tryptophan-to-niacin pathway
  • Deficiency causes accumulation of 3-hydroxykynurenine and xanthurenic acid, less niacin and NAD, and so pellagra-like features
  • Growth-promoting actions through IGF-1: bone, cartilage, muscle, protein anabolism
  • Metabolic actions: lipolysis, anti-insulin (diabetogenic) effect, electrolyte retention
  • Regulation: GHRH stimulation, somatostatin inhibition, ghrelin, IGF-1 feedback
  • Stimuli (hypoglycaemia, sleep, exercise, stress, amino acids) and inhibitors (hyperglycaemia, obesity, glucocorticoids, REM sleep)
  • Heterotetramer with extracellular α subunits that bind insulin and β subunits with tyrosine kinase activity
  • Autophosphorylation of β subunits and phosphorylation of IRS proteins
  • PI3K–Akt pathway with GLUT4 translocation and glycogen synthesis; Ras–MAPK pathway for growth
  • Termination by internalisation, phosphatases and receptor down-regulation
Q3
50M explain

(a) (i) 1. Name the ligaments of ovary and their role in ovarian torsion and its complications. 2. Explain the surgical importance of anatomical relations of structures in ovarian fossa. (10 marks) (ii) Describe the major anatomical sites of portosystemic anastomosis, listing the veins involved. (10 marks) (b) (i) Define genetic code. What are the salient features of genetic code? (5 marks) (ii) What are posttranslational modifications? Discuss in brief the post-translational modifications involving various amino acids. (10 marks) (c) (i) Describe any two methods to measure cardiac output. Explain the role of 'Frank-Starling law' in cardiac contraction. (10 marks) (ii) Discuss the structure and function of Golgi tendon organ. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) 1. डिंबग्रंथि के स्नायुओं के नाम गिनाइए तथा डिंबग्रंथि मरोड़ में उनकी भूमिका एवं डिंबग्रंथि मरोड़ से होने वाली जटिलताएँ बताइए। 2. डिंबग्रंथि खात की अवरचनाओं के शारीर संबंधों के शल्यकर्म महत्त्व की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) प्रतिहारी-वैहिक तंत्रानुसारी शाखामिलन के प्रमुख शारीरचना स्थलों का वर्णन कीजिए तथा उन शिराओं के नाम गिनाइए, जो इसमें सम्मिलित हैं। (10 अंक) (b) (i) आनुवंशिक कूट को परिभाषित कीजिए। आनुवंशिक कूट की मुख्य विशेषताएँ क्या हैं? (5 अंक) (ii) पोस्टट्रांसलेशनल रूपांतरण क्या होते हैं? विभिन्न अमीनो अम्लों में होने वाले पोस्टट्रांसलेशनल रूपांतरणों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक) (c) (i) हृद् निर्गम के मापन की किन्हीं दो विधियों का वर्णन कीजिए। हृद् संकुचन में 'फ्रैंक-स्टार्लिंग नियम' की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) गोली कंडरा अंग की संरचना तथा कार्य की व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Two numbered sub-parts, both compulsory: (1) name the ligaments of the ovary and explain their role in ovarian torsion and the complications that follow, and (2) explain the SURGICAL importance of the anatomical relations of the ovarian fossa. The second part is a relations-plus-clinical-application question, not a bare list of boundaries. (a(ii)) Describe the MAJOR anatomical sites of portosystemic (portocaval) anastomosis and, at each site, LIST THE VEINS - both the portal tributary and the systemic vein it communicates with. Naming sites without naming the paired veins does not meet the demand. (b(i)) Two short demands: a precise definition of the genetic code, then an enumeration of its salient features with the specific facts (64 codons, 61 sense plus 3 stop, initiator AUG, degeneracy, wobble, non-overlapping and comma-free, near-universality with mitochondrial exceptions). (b(ii)) Define post-translational modification and then discuss the modifications ORGANISED BY THE AMINO ACID RESIDUE involved - serine/threonine/tyrosine, asparagine, proline and lysine, glutamate, cysteine, plus proteolytic processing - each with a named enzyme or clinical example. A residue-wise treatment is what the phrase 'involving various amino acids' demands. (c(i)) Two demands: describe ANY TWO methods of measuring cardiac output - with the governing equation and a worked illustration, not just the name - and then explain the role of the Frank-Starling law in cardiac contraction, i.e. its statement, its sarcomere-level mechanism and its physiological significance. (c(ii)) A tight note on the Golgi tendon organ covering BOTH its structure (site, capsule, in-series arrangement, Ib innervation, absence of motor supply) and its function (tension detection, autogenic inhibition through the Ib inhibitory interneuron, protective and force-regulating roles).

  • Ligaments: suspensory (infundibulopelvic), ovarian ligament proper, mesovarium, tubo-ovarian
  • Torsion on the vascular pedicle: venous then arterial obstruction, infarction, necrosis, peritonitis, loss of ovary
  • Ovarian fossa boundaries: external iliac vessels, obliterated umbilical artery, ureter and internal iliac artery, uterine artery origin; floor obturator nerve and vessels
  • Surgical points: ureter injury, obturator nerve and referred thigh pain, iliac vessel bleeding, lymph nodes
  • Lower oesophagus: left gastric with oesophageal/azygos veins, causing varices
  • Anal canal: superior rectal with middle and inferior rectal veins, causing haemorrhoids
  • Umbilicus: paraumbilical with epigastric and thoracoepigastric veins, causing caput medusae
  • Retroperitoneal (Retzius) and bare area of the liver: colic, duodenal and pancreatic veins with renal, lumbar, phrenic and gonadal veins
  • Definition: triplet codons in mRNA specify the amino acid sequence
  • 64 codons: 61 sense and 3 stop (UAA, UAG, UGA), initiator AUG
  • Degenerate with wobble; unambiguous, non-overlapping, comma-free
  • Nearly universal, with mitochondrial exceptions
  • Definition of PTM as covalent change after or during translation
  • Ser/Thr/Tyr phosphorylation and O-glycosylation; Asn N-glycosylation
  • Pro/Lys hydroxylation (vitamin C, collagen), Glu γ-carboxylation (vitamin K), Cys disulphide bonds and prenylation
  • Proteolytic processing (proinsulin, zymogens, signal peptides) and lysine modifications
  • Fick principle CO = VO₂/(CaO₂ − CvO₂) with a worked example
  • Indicator dilution or thermodilution, with the principle and area under the curve
  • Frank–Starling law: force of contraction proportional to end-diastolic fibre length within physiological limits
  • Role: matching right and left outputs, adjusting stroke volume to venous return, intrinsic control, and limits in failure
  • Encapsulated receptor at the musculotendinous junction, in series with muscle fibres
  • Collagen bundles with intertwined endings of Ib afferent fibres
  • Senses tension; the Ib fibre excites inhibitory interneurons that inhibit the α motor neuron of the same muscle (autogenic inhibition)
  • Protective role and the clasp-knife reflex; contrast with the muscle spindle
Q4
50M describe

(a) (i) Describe the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow from site of production to its absorption. Write a note on the mechanism of its absorption. (5 marks) (ii) A 62-year-old hypertensive male is brought to medical OPD with the complaints of sudden onset of visual loss in both his eyes. His ophthalmologic examination reveals right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, and his MR scan shows cerebral hemorrhage involving left occipital lobe. Based on the above findings, explain the anatomical basis of visual loss in this patient using a diagram depicting the entire visual pathway. (10 marks) (b) (i) Define glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Discuss the different clearance tests used to measure glomerular filtration rate. (10 marks) (ii) Discuss briefly the different steps of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique. Write three applications of PCR technique in clinical medicine. (10 marks) (c) (i) Discuss in brief the functional divisions of cerebellum and state the role of each division. (5 marks) (ii) Discuss in brief the medial and lateral descending pathways and their functions. (5 marks) (iii) Discuss in brief the role of oxytocin in parturition and lactation. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) निर्माण-स्थल से अवशोषण तक मस्तिष्कमेरु तरल (CSF) के प्रवाह का वर्णन कीजिए। उसके अवशोषण के यांत्रिकत्व पर एक टिप्पणी लिखिए। (5 अंक) (ii) दोनों नेत्रों में अचानक उत्पन्न हुई दृष्टिहीनता की शिकायत के साथ एक 62-वर्षीय उच्च रक्तदाबी पुरुष कायचिकित्सा OPD में लाया जाता है। उसकी नेत्र चिकित्सीय जाँच करने पर उसे दाहिनी समदिक् अर्धदृष्टिता है, जिसमें मैकुला बचा हुआ है तथा उसके MR स्कैन पर बाएँ पश्चकपाल खण्ड में प्रमस्तिष्कीय रक्तस्राव दिखा है। उपर्युक्त जाँच-परिणामों के आधार पर इस रोगी में उत्पन्न हुई दृष्टिहीनता का शारीरिक आधार एक ऐसे आरेख के माध्यम से समझाइए, जिसमें संपूर्ण दृष्टि-मार्ग चित्रित हो। (10 अंक) (b) (i) केशिकास्तवकीय निस्यंदन दर (GFR) को परिभाषित कीजिए। केशिकास्तवकीय निस्यंदन दर के मापन में काम आने वाली विभिन्न उत्सर्जन (क्लीयरेंस) जाँचों की व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) पॉलीमरेज़ शृंखला अभिक्रिया (PCR) तकनीक के विभिन्न चरणों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। रोगलाक्षणिक चिकित्सा में PCR तकनीक के तीन अनुप्रयोग लिखिए। (10 अंक) (c) (i) अनुमस्तिष्क के क्रियात्मक विभाजनों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए तथा प्रत्येक विभाजन की भूमिका बताइए। (5 अंक) (ii) मध्यवर्ती तथा पार्श्विक अवरोही मार्गों तथा उनके कार्यों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक) (iii) प्रसव तथा स्तन्यस्रवण में ऑक्सीटोसिन की भूमिका की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Trace the CSF from its site of formation, through every ventricle and foramen, to its site of absorption, and then write specifically on the MECHANISM of absorption (pressure-dependent bulk flow through arachnoid villi acting as one-way valves, with the alternative routes). (a(ii)) A left occipital haemorrhage causing right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. The answer must (a) draw and label the ENTIRE visual pathway from retina to visual cortex and (b) use it to explain why the field loss is right-sided, homonymous, and why the macula is spared. (b(i)) Define GFR with its normal value, then discuss the DIFFERENT clearance tests used to measure it - the clearance formula, the properties of an ideal marker, inulin as the gold standard, creatinine clearance with its sources of error, and the radioisotopic, iohexol and cystatin C alternatives. (b(ii)) Two demands: describe the steps of PCR - the reaction components and the three thermal steps with their temperatures, durations and molecular events, repeated over cycles giving exponential amplification - and then state THREE specific applications in clinical medicine. Exactly three named, concrete applications are required. (c(i)) Name the three FUNCTIONAL divisions of the cerebellum with their anatomical and phylogenetic equivalents, and state the role of each - including the deep nucleus and the signature deficit of each division. A purely anatomical (lobar) answer does not meet the demand. (c(ii)) Discuss the two descending motor systems classified by their position in the spinal white matter and their termination in the ventral horn - the LATERAL (lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal) and the MEDIAL/ventromedial (anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal) groups - naming the tracts in each and stating their functions. (c(iii)) Two specified roles of oxytocin - in parturition (uterine receptor upregulation at term, augmentation of contractions, the Ferguson positive-feedback reflex, control of postpartum haemorrhage) and in lactation (the neuroendocrine milk-EJECTION or let-down reflex through myoepithelial cells). Both must be covered; milk secretion is prolactin's role, not oxytocin's.

  • Formation by choroid plexuses (about 500 mL/day, total about 150 mL)
  • Path: lateral ventricles, foramina of Monro, third ventricle, aqueduct, fourth ventricle, foramina of Magendie and Luschka, subarachnoid space
  • Absorption through arachnoid villi into the superior sagittal sinus
  • Mechanism: pressure-dependent bulk flow through one-way valve villi, with minor routes and the effect of blockage
  • Diagram: retina, optic nerve, chiasma, optic tract, lateral geniculate body, optic radiation, visual cortex, correctly labelled
  • Nasal fibres cross at the chiasma, so the left hemisphere carries the right visual field of both eyes
  • Left cortical lesion gives loss of the right half of the field in both eyes (homonymous)
  • Macular sparing from dual blood supply (posterior and middle cerebral arteries) at the occipital pole and large macular representation
  • Definition and normal value about 125 mL/min (90–120 mL/min/1.73 m²)
  • Clearance formula C = UV/P and the properties of an ideal marker
  • Inulin as the gold standard and creatinine clearance with its errors (tubular secretion, muscle mass, drugs)
  • Alternatives: radioisotopes (51Cr-EDTA, 99mTc-DTPA), iohexol and cystatin C
  • Components: template, two primers, Taq polymerase, dNTPs, Mg²⁺ and buffer
  • Steps: denaturation about 94–95 °C, annealing about 50–65 °C, extension about 72 °C
  • 25–35 cycles giving exponential amplification (2ⁿ)
  • Three named applications: infections (TB, HIV, COVID-19), genetic diseases, cancer or haematology (BCR-ABL)
  • Vestibulocerebellum: flocculonodular lobe, equilibrium and vestibulo-ocular reflex
  • Spinocerebellum: vermis and paravermis, tone, posture and execution of movement
  • Cerebrocerebellum: lateral hemispheres, planning and coordination of skilled movement via dentate nucleus
  • Inputs and outputs of each division, with the effect of a lesion
  • Medial pathways: anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal
  • Medial function: posture, balance, axial and proximal muscle control
  • Lateral pathways: lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal
  • Lateral function: skilled voluntary movement of distal limbs
  • Made in the hypothalamic supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei, released from the posterior pituitary
  • Parturition: uterine receptor upregulation, Ferguson reflex with positive feedback, uterine contraction
  • Postpartum: uterine contraction and control of bleeding
  • Lactation: suckling reflex to milk ejection by myoepithelial contraction; prolactin makes milk

B

Q5
50M Compulsory state

(a) (i) State the therapeutic indications, drug interactions and side effects of Methotrexate. (5 marks) (ii) State the therapeutic indications, drug interactions and side effects of Furosemide. (5 marks) (b) (i) Enumerate any four ‘antigen-presenting cells (APCs)’. Describe in brief two major antigen processing pathways. (5 marks) (ii) Enumerate any two types of effector T cells. What are Treg cells? (5 marks) (c) A 16-year-old boy presented with fever, chills and malaise. On history, he revealed intense throbbing pain around the right knee. X-ray of the knee revealed a lytic focus of bone destruction surrounded by a zone of sclerosis. (i) What is the most probable diagnosis? (ii) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (iii) Enumerate four complications. (10 marks) (d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis and immunophenotypic classification of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. (10 marks) (e) Classify 'thermal injuries'. How is the total body surface area involved in burns calculated in adults? Give the various causes of death in burns. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) मेथोट्रेक्सेट के चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों, औषधि अन्योन्यक्रियाओं तथा अनुषंगी प्रभावों का वर्णन कीजिए। (5 अंक) (ii) फ़्यूरोसेमाइड के चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों, औषधि अन्योन्यक्रियाओं तथा अनुषंगी प्रभावों का वर्णन कीजिए। (5 अंक) (b) (i) किन्हीं चार ‘ऐंटिजन-प्रेजेन्टिंग सेल (APCs)’ के नाम गिनाइए। दो मुख्य ऐंटिजन संसाधन मार्गों का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए। (5 अंक) (ii) किन्हीं दो प्रकार की प्रेरक T कोशिकाओं के नाम गिनाइए। Treg कोशिकाएँ क्या हैं? (5 अंक) (c) एक 16-वर्षीय बालक ज्वर, कँपकँपी और व्याकुलता के लक्षणों के साथ पहुँचता है। पूछे जाने पर वह बताता है कि उसके दाहिने घुटने के इर्द-गिर्द तीव्र प्रस्पंद वेदना है। घुटने का एक्स-रे करने पर उसमें अस्थि नाश का संलयी विकारस्थान है, जो स्क्लेरोटिस मंडल से घिरा हुआ है। (i) सर्वाधिक संभावित निदान क्या है? (ii) इस रुग्णता के रोगजनन का वर्णन कीजिए। (iii) इससे उत्पन्न हो सकने वाली चार जटिलताओं के नाम गिनाइए। (10 अंक) (d) तीव्र लसीकाकोशिकीय श्वेतरक्तता के लैबोरेटरी निदान तथा इम्यूनो-व्यक्तरूपी वर्गीकरण का वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (e) 'दग्ध क्षतियों' को वर्गीकृत कीजिए। वयस्कों में शारीरिक तल का कुल कितना क्षेत्रफल दग्ध से क्षतिग्रस्त हुआ है, इसकी गणना कैसे की जाती है? ऐसे कौन-कौन से कारण हैं, जिनसे दग्ध में मृत्यु हो सकती है? (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Three explicitly named headings for methotrexate must all appear - therapeutic indications (malignant and non-malignant), drug interactions (with the mechanism of each), and side effects. A brief statement of the antifolate mechanism frames the answer but does not substitute for any of the three. (a(ii)) Three explicitly named headings for furosemide must all appear - therapeutic indications, drug interactions (with the mechanism of each) and side effects. A one-line statement of its action on the Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter of the thick ascending limb frames the answer. (b(i)) Two directives: 'Enumerate' four antigen-presenting cells (a bare list suffices) and 'Describe in brief' the two major antigen processing pathways. Both the cytosolic/MHC class I and the endocytic/MHC class II pathway must be covered with their end-point T-cell partner. (b(ii)) Two parts: 'Enumerate' any two types of effector T cells (naming with their lineage marker and function) and define/explain Treg cells - their phenotype, origin and suppressive mechanisms. (c) A clinical vignette with three explicit sub-parts: (i) state the single most probable diagnosis from fever, chills, throbbing peri-knee pain and an X-ray lytic focus rimmed by sclerosis in a 16-year-old; (ii) describe the pathogenesis of that condition; (iii) enumerate four complications. All three must be answered; the diagnosis must be committed to, not hedged. (d) Two linked demands: describe the laboratory diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (blood counts, smear, marrow, cytochemistry, ancillary tests) and set out its immunophenotypic classification (B-lineage and T-lineage subtypes with their defining markers). (e) Three forensic-medicine demands: classify thermal injuries (by agent and by depth), state precisely how the total body surface area burnt is calculated in an ADULT (Wallace's Rule of Nines with percentages), and give the various causes of death in burns grouped as immediate, early and delayed.

  • Mechanism: dihydrofolate reductase inhibition (antifolate)
  • Indications: ALL, choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, plus rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis and ectopic pregnancy
  • Interactions: NSAIDs, penicillins and probenecid (reduced excretion), co-trimoxazole (additive antifolate)
  • Adverse effects: myelosuppression, mucositis, hepatotoxicity, pneumonitis, teratogenicity; leucovorin rescue
  • Action: NKCC2 inhibition in the thick ascending limb
  • Indications: pulmonary oedema, heart failure, ascites and oedema, renal failure, hypertension, hypercalcaemia
  • Interactions: aminoglycosides and cisplatin (ototoxicity), NSAIDs (blunted effect), digoxin (hypokalaemia), lithium
  • Adverse effects: hypovolaemia, hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, metabolic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hyperuricaemia
  • APCs: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells, and Langerhans or Kupffer cells
  • Endogenous pathway: proteasome, TAP, MHC class I to CD8+ T cells
  • Exogenous pathway: endosome, MHC class II with CLIP and HLA-DM to CD4+ T cells
  • Both pathways with their T-cell partner
  • Two effector T cells with cytokines or function (Th1, Th2, Th17 or CD8+ CTL)
  • Treg phenotype: CD4+ CD25+ FOXP3+
  • Origin: thymic (natural) and peripheral (induced)
  • Suppression by IL-10, TGF-β, CTLA-4 and IL-2 consumption; role in self-tolerance
  • Diagnosis committed to: haematogenous pyogenic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess, S. aureus) of the metaphysis
  • Pathogenesis: haematogenous seeding of the metaphysis, suppuration, raised pressure, subperiosteal spread
  • Sequestrum, involucrum and cloacae; reactive sclerosis from a low-virulence infection explains the rim
  • Four complications: septicaemia, septic arthritis, chronic osteomyelitis, pathological fracture, amyloidosis or Marjolin's ulcer
  • Blood count and smear: anaemia, thrombocytopenia, lymphoblasts
  • Marrow: 20% or more lymphoblasts; FAB L1, L2, L3
  • Cytochemistry: MPO and Sudan black negative, PAS positive, TdT positive; flow cytometry, cytogenetics, CSF examination
  • Classification: B-lineage (CD19, CD22, CD79a, CD10) with pro-B, common, pre-B and mature B; T-lineage (cytoplasmic CD3, CD7, CD2, CD5, CD1a) with pro-T to mature T
  • Classification by agent (dry heat, moist heat, cold) and by depth (Dupuytren's six degrees)
  • Rule of nines: head and neck 9%, each upper limb 9%, trunk front 18% and back 18%, each lower limb 18%, perineum 1%
  • Immediate causes of death: neurogenic shock, asphyxia and burn shock
  • Early and delayed causes: renal failure, toxaemia, septicaemia, pneumonia, embolism, tetanus, contractures
Q6
50M describe

(a) (i) Define inflammation. Describe the cardinal features of acute inflammation. (10 marks) (ii) Describe the pathogenesis of secondary tuberculosis. Enumerate five microscopic features of tuberculosis in AIDS. (10 marks) (b) (i) Elaborate the mechanism of action of antimicrobial resistance. (5 marks) (ii) Name the third-generation Cephalosporins. State their therapeutic indications and side effects. (5 marks) (c) (i) 1. Name five clinically important species of Candida. 2. Write the laboratory diagnosis of Candida infection. 3. Mention a seromarker for invasive candidiasis. (10 marks) (ii) Describe in brief any five clinical manifestations of Aspergillus infection. Mention one specific antigen test used for its diagnosis. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) शोथ को परिभाषित कीजिए। तीव्र शोथ की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) द्वितीयक ट्यूबरकुलोसिस के रोगजनन का वर्णन कीजिए। AIDS में ट्यूबरकुलोसिस होने पर पाई जाने वाली पाँच सूक्ष्मदर्शी विशेषताओं को गिनाइए। (10 अंक) (b) (i) प्रतिसूक्ष्मजीवी प्रतिरोध के कार्य करने की क्रियाविधि की विस्तार से व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक) (ii) तीसरी पीढ़ी की सिफैलोस्पोरीन कौन-कौन सी हैं, नाम गिनाइए। उनके चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों तथा अनुपंगी प्रभावों को उल्लिखित कीजिए। (5 अंक) (c) (i) 1. कैंडिडा की रोगलाक्षणिक दृष्टि से महत्वपूर्ण पाँच स्पीशीज़ के नाम गिनाइए। 2. कैंडिडा संक्रमण के लैबोरेटरी निदान पर लिखिए। 3. आक्रामक (इन्वेसिव) कैंडिडा-रुग्णता का एक सीरोमार्कर उल्लिखित कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) ऐस्पर्जिलस संक्रमण की किन्हीं पाँच रोगलाक्षणिक अभिव्यक्तियों का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए। उसके निदान में उपयोग होने वाले एक विशिष्ट ऐंटिजन टेस्ट को उल्लिखित कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Two demands: give a precise definition of inflammation, then describe (not merely list) the cardinal features of acute inflammation - naming each Latin sign and explaining the vascular and cellular mechanism that produces it. (a(ii)) Two parts: describe the pathogenesis of SECONDARY (post-primary/reactivation) pulmonary tuberculosis - why it occurs, why it is apical, and how pre-existing hypersensitivity shapes the lesion - and then enumerate exactly five microscopic (histological) features of tuberculosis occurring in AIDS. (b(i)) 'Elaborate the mechanism of action' means set out HOW bacteria become resistant - the four or five biochemical mechanisms, each with a named drug-organism example - and the genetic basis by which resistance is acquired and spread. (b(ii)) Three demands in one short note: NAME the third-generation cephalosporins (parenteral and oral), STATE their therapeutic indications, and STATE their side effects. Naming is compulsory, not optional. (c(i)) Three numbered sub-parts, all compulsory: (1) name five clinically important Candida species, (2) write the laboratory diagnosis of candidiasis (specimen, microscopy, culture, identification tests), and (3) mention a seromarker for INVASIVE candidiasis. (c(ii)) Two demands: describe IN BRIEF any five clinical manifestations of Aspergillus infection (each needs the host setting and a defining feature, not just a name), and mention ONE specific antigen test used for diagnosis.

  • Definition: local response of vascularised tissue to injury, bringing cells and plasma proteins
  • Rubor and calor from vasodilatation and increased blood flow (histamine, NO, prostaglandins)
  • Tumor from increased vascular permeability and exudate; dolor from bradykinin and prostaglandins; functio laesa
  • Cellular events: margination, rolling, adhesion, diapedesis, chemotaxis and phagocytosis
  • Reactivation or reinfection in a sensitised host, precipitated by immunosuppression
  • Apical location from high oxygen tension and poor lymph drainage
  • Type IV hypersensitivity: caseation, cavitation and bronchogenic spread with hilar nodes spared
  • AIDS: poorly formed or absent granulomas, few giant cells and lymphocytes, extensive necrosis and numerous acid-fast bacilli
  • Enzymatic inactivation (β-lactamase, aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes)
  • Altered target (PBP2a in MRSA, D-Ala-D-Lac in VRE, gyrase, ribosomal methylation)
  • Reduced permeability (porin loss) and active efflux
  • Genetic basis: mutation and horizontal transfer by conjugation, transduction, transformation
  • Parenteral: cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefoperazone
  • Oral: cefixime, cefpodoxime, cefdinir
  • Indications: meningitis, gonorrhoea, typhoid fever, sepsis, Pseudomonas (ceftazidime), pneumonia
  • Side effects: hypersensitivity, diarrhoea and superinfection, biliary sludge (ceftriaxone), bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction (cefoperazone)
  • Species: C. albicans, C. tropicalis, C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis, C. krusei (or C. auris)
  • Specimens and direct microscopy showing budding yeast with pseudohyphae
  • Culture on Sabouraud agar and CHROMagar; germ tube test, chlamydospores, sugar tests, MALDI-TOF
  • Seromarker: (1→3)-β-D-glucan (or mannan antigen)
  • Five manifestations from ABPA, aspergilloma, invasive pulmonary aspergillosis, chronic pulmonary aspergillosis, sinusitis, otomycosis, keratitis
  • ABPA with asthma, eosinophilia and raised IgE
  • Aspergilloma in a pre-existing cavity with haemoptysis; invasive disease in neutropenia with the halo sign
  • Galactomannan antigen test (ELISA on serum or BAL)
Q7
50M classify

(a) (i) Classify neurotoxic poisons. Discuss in brief the clinical features, treatment and postmortem findings in acute poisoning by 'opiates'. (10 marks) (ii) Write a brief note on 'atypical drowning'. (5 marks) (b) (i) A 60-year-old male presented with an irregular plaque-like lesion at the base of tongue. Biopsy showed a proliferation of atypical cells displaying keratin pearls. 1. What is the most probable diagnosis? 2. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (10 marks) (ii) Enumerate five differences between benign and malignant tumours. Describe the mechanisms by which the tumour cells evade the immune system. (10 marks) (c) (i) Briefly describe the advantages of Liposomal Amphotericin-B over conventional Amphotericin-B. (5 marks) (ii) Briefly describe the therapeutic indications and adverse effects of Thiazides. (5 marks) (iii) Elaborate the therapeutic indications, mechanism of action and side effects of Metformin. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) न्यूरोटॉक्सिक विषों को वर्गीकृत कीजिए। ‘स्वापकों (ओपिएट)’ से हुई तीव्र विषाक्तता में उत्पन्न होने वाली रोगलाक्षणिक विशेषताओं, उपचार तथा मरणोत्तर जाँच-परिणामों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) ‘अप्रूपी डूबने (एटिपिकल ड्राउनिंग)’ पर एक संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए। (5 अंक) (b) (i) एक 60-वर्षीय पुरुष की जिह्वा के आधार पर एक अनियमित चकत्ते जैसी विक्षति है। उसकी बायोप्सी करने पर केराटिन मुक्ताभ संपुट प्रदर्शित कर रही अप्रूपी कोशिकाओं का प्रफलन दिखाई दिया। 1. ऐसे में सर्वाधिक संभावित निदान क्या है? 2. इस रुग्णता के रोगजनन का वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) सुदम तथा दुर्दम अर्बुदों के बीच पाँच अंतर गिनाइए। अर्बुद कोशिकाओं के उन यांत्रिकत्वों का वर्णन कीजिए, जिनसे वे इम्यून प्रणाली से बचकर निकल जाती हैं। (10 अंक) (c) (i) संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए कि रूढ़िगत एम्फोटेरिसिन-B की तुलना में लाइपोसोमल एम्फोटेरिसिन-B के क्या-क्या लाभ हैं। (5 अंक) (ii) थायाज़ाइड के चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों तथा प्रतिकूल प्रभावों का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए। (5 अंक) (iii) मेटफॉर्मिन के चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों, कार्य करने की क्रियाविधि तथा अनुषंगी प्रभावों की विस्तार से व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Two demands: CLASSIFY neurotoxic poisons (the standard forensic classification into cerebral, spinal and peripheral, with examples under each) and then DISCUSS IN BRIEF, for acute opiate poisoning, three specified heads - clinical features, treatment, and postmortem findings. All three heads must appear. (a(ii)) A brief note on 'atypical drowning' - define drowning, then explain each recognised atypical variety (dry drowning, immersion syndrome, secondary drowning, shallow-water drowning) with its mechanism, and state the medico-legal importance. (b(i)) A vignette with two numbered sub-parts: (1) commit to the single most probable diagnosis for a 60-year-old man with an irregular plaque at the base of the tongue whose biopsy shows atypical cells forming keratin pearls, and (2) describe the pathogenesis of that condition, covering both the tobacco/alcohol and the HPV pathways. (b(ii)) Two demands: enumerate FIVE differences between benign and malignant tumours (best set out as a table on the classical parameters) and then describe the mechanisms by which tumour cells escape immune surveillance. (c(i)) A comparative short note: state the ADVANTAGES of liposomal amphotericin B over conventional (deoxycholate) amphotericin B - toxicity, dosing, pharmacokinetics and clinical usefulness - with at least a passing mention of its drawback. (c(ii)) Two heads only: the therapeutic INDICATIONS of thiazide diuretics and their ADVERSE EFFECTS. A one-line mechanism is acceptable as a lead-in, but the marks lie in the two lists, each made specific. (c(iii)) Three heads on a single drug: the therapeutic indications of metformin, its MECHANISM OF ACTION (which is the pivot of the question - 'elaborate'), and its side effects.

  • Classification: cerebral (somniferous, inebriant, deliriant), spinal (strychnine, gelsemium) and peripheral (curare, conium)
  • Clinical features: pinpoint pupils, coma and respiratory depression
  • Treatment: airway and ventilation, naloxone, gastric lavage with potassium permanganate, charcoal
  • Postmortem: non-specific cyanosis, visceral congestion, pulmonary oedema, needle marks; chemical analysis
  • Definition of drowning as asphyxia from submersion in liquid
  • Dry drowning through laryngeal spasm with no water in the lungs
  • Immersion syndrome by vagal inhibition; submersion of an unconscious person
  • Secondary (delayed) drowning and shallow-water drowning, with medico-legal importance
  • Diagnosis committed to: squamous cell carcinoma of the base of the tongue
  • Tobacco and alcohol pathway: carcinogens, field change, TP53, CDKN2A and cyclin D1 changes
  • HPV pathway: types 16 and 18, E6 degrading p53 and E7 inactivating Rb, p16 overexpression
  • Progression from dysplasia to carcinoma in situ and invasion, with nodal spread
  • Five differences: growth rate, growth pattern and capsule, differentiation, mitoses, metastasis
  • Loss of MHC class I and antigen loss (immunoediting)
  • Checkpoint ligands (PD-L1, CTLA-4), lack of costimulation
  • Immunosuppressive factors and cells (TGF-β, IL-10, Tregs, MDSCs) and Fas ligand
  • Much less nephrotoxicity
  • Fewer infusion reactions and less hypokalaemia
  • Higher doses (3–5 mg/kg/day) and single or short-course regimens
  • Better tissue distribution through the reticuloendothelial system; high cost as the drawback
  • Indications: hypertension, oedema, hypercalciuria and calcium stones, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • Electrolyte effects: hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia
  • Metabolic effects: hyperuricaemia, hyperglycaemia, dyslipidaemia
  • Other effects: hypovolaemia, sulphonamide allergy, digoxin toxicity, ineffective when GFR is low
  • Indications: type 2 diabetes (first line), prediabetes, PCOS
  • Mechanism: AMPK activation and mitochondrial complex I inhibition, reduced hepatic gluconeogenesis
  • Increased peripheral insulin sensitivity and reduced intestinal glucose absorption, without insulin secretion
  • Side effects: gastrointestinal upset, lactic acidosis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and contraindications (renal impairment)
Q8
50M enumerate

(a) (i) 1. Enumerate five agents of malaria in humans. 2. Describe in brief rapid diagnostic test (RDT) used for malaria and its advantages. 3. Mention the vaccine available for malaria. (10 marks) (ii) Discuss the role of ‘antibody-dependent enhancement’ in pathogenesis of severe dengue. Write in brief the laboratory diagnosis of dengue. (10 marks) (b) (i) Define injury as per Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. Enumerate the various mechanical injuries. Write a brief note on ‘concealed punctured wound’. (10 marks) (ii) What is identification? Describe in brief the primary and secondary characteristics of identification. Which is the surest test for identification of an individual? Why? (10 marks) (c) (i) Discuss the management of complicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria. (5 marks) (ii) Describe the therapeutic indications and side effects of Primaquine. (5 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) 1. मानवों में मलेरिया के पाँच कारकों के नाम गिनाइए। 2. मलेरिया में उपयोग किए जाने वाले रैपिड डायग्नोस्टिक टेस्ट (RDT) तथा उसके लाभों का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए। 3. मलेरिया के लिए उपलब्ध टीके उल्लिखित कीजिए। (10 अंक) (ii) प्रचंड डेंगू के रोगजनन में ‘ऐंटीबॉडी-डिपेंडेंट इन्हैन्समेंट’ की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए। डेंगू के लैबोरेटरी निदान पर संक्षेप में लिखिए। (10 अंक) (b) (i) भारतीय न्याय संहिता के अनुसार, अभिघात को परिभाषित कीजिए। विभिन्न आघातज क्षतियों (अभिघातों) के नाम गिनाइए। ‘अप्रकट विद्ध क्षत’ पर एक संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए। (10 अंक) (ii) अभिज्ञान (आइडेंटिफिकेशन) क्या है? अभिज्ञान के प्राथमिक तथा द्वितीयक अभिलक्षण संक्षेप में वर्णित कीजिए। किसी व्यक्ति की शिनाख्त (अभिज्ञान) का सर्वाधिक विश्वसनीय टेस्ट क्या है? क्यों? (10 अंक) (c) (i) जटिल प्लाज्मोडियम फाल्सीपैरम मलेरिया के प्रबंधन की व्याख्या कीजिए। (5 अंक) (ii) प्राइमाक्विन के चिकित्सार्थ संकेतों तथा अनुषंगी प्रभावों का वर्णन कीजिए। (5 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a(i)) Three numbered sub-parts, all compulsory: (1) enumerate five human malaria parasites, (2) describe the rapid diagnostic test for malaria - its principle, target antigens and advantages - and (3) mention the malaria vaccine(s) available. (a(ii)) Two demands: DISCUSS the role of antibody-dependent enhancement in the pathogenesis of SEVERE dengue - the immunological mechanism and the clinical consequences it explains - and write in brief the laboratory diagnosis of dengue, organised by day of illness. (b(i)) Three demands: DEFINE injury as laid down in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (quote the statutory wording), ENUMERATE the various mechanical injuries in their standard classification, and write a brief note on the 'concealed punctured wound' with its sites and medico-legal significance. (b(ii)) Four demands: define identification, describe the PRIMARY and the SECONDARY characteristics (identifiers) separately, name the surest single test for identifying an individual, and JUSTIFY that choice - the 'why' carries marks of its own. (c(i)) 'Discuss the management of complicated (severe) Plasmodium falciparum malaria' - recognise severe malaria by its defining criteria, give the specific antimalarial with its exact dose regimen, state how therapy is completed, and cover supportive/ICU care including what must be avoided. (c(ii)) Two heads only: the therapeutic indications of primaquine (with the dose regimen for each) and its side effects, including the contraindications that follow from them.

  • Five species: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi
  • RDT: immunochromatographic lateral-flow test on finger-prick blood, result in 15–20 minutes
  • Antigens HRP-2 (P. falciparum), pLDH and aldolase; advantages of speed, no microscope or electricity, suitability for remote areas
  • Vaccines: RTS,S/AS01 and R21/Matrix-M against P. falciparum circumsporozoite protein
  • ADE: secondary infection with a different serotype, or infant with maternal antibody
  • Cross-reactive non-neutralising antibody, Fcγ-receptor uptake by monocytes and macrophages, higher viral load
  • Cytokine release, plasma leakage, thrombocytopenia, DHF and DSS
  • Diagnosis by day: NS1 antigen and RT-PCR in days 1–5; IgM ELISA and IgG from day 5
  • Definition: any harm illegally caused to any person in body, mind, reputation or property (BNS section 2(14))
  • Classification: abrasion, contusion, laceration, incised, punctured, firearm wounds (and chop wounds or fractures)
  • Concealed punctured wound: thin sharp instrument, tiny opening in a hidden site
  • Sites and medico-legal significance: scalp, axilla, orifices, fontanelle, nape; missed injury, natural-death label, deep organ injury
  • Definition: determination of individual identity of a person or remains
  • Primary: age, sex, stature, race; fingerprints, dental records, DNA
  • Secondary: scars, moles, tattoos, deformities, hair and eye colour, handwriting, clothing and effects
  • Surest test: DNA fingerprinting, with reasons of uniqueness, stability, tiny sample, use on decomposed remains
  • Recognition of severe malaria: cerebral malaria, severe anaemia, renal failure, pulmonary oedema, hypoglycaemia, shock
  • IV artesunate 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12, 24 h then daily; alternatives artemether IM or quinine with doxycycline
  • Completion with a full 3-day oral ACT after at least 24 h of parenteral treatment
  • Supportive care: glucose, anticonvulsants, transfusion, dialysis, ventilation; avoid fluid overload and steroids
  • Radical cure of P. vivax and P. ovale (hypnozoites): 0.25 mg/kg for 14 days
  • Gametocidal single dose in P. falciparum
  • Adverse effects: haemolysis in G6PD deficiency, methaemoglobinaemia, GI upset
  • Contraindications: G6PD deficiency, pregnancy, infants under 6 months

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