CSAT Paper II of the 2016 Preliminary examination, held on 7 August 2016. 80 questions · 200 marks · qualifying at 33%. The questions broke down as Comprehension 38, Basic Numeracy 27, Logical Reasoning 12, Mental Ability 3.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration ? 1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities 2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services 3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services 4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that the system of seeking accountability to society through the political executive 'has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.' This failure is attributed to the emphasis tilting in favor of greater internal accountability to political…
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society 2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society Which of these assumptions is/are valid ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states that the emphasis has tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of civil services to the political leaders of the day, implying that the political executive acts as a barrier to direct external accountability to society, validating Assumption 1.
Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage identifies the lack of accountability in civil services as a major factor underlying deficiencies in governance and public administration.
According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly lists internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission, and judicial review of executive decisions as means to achieve internal accountability.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions 2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god 3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states that 'Our duties to one another derive from these' (referring to religious traditions or universal ethical principles), validating Assumption 1 that human relationships are derived from religious traditions.
Which one of the following is the crux of this passage ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage begins by establishing that religious traditions define duties and rights based on a relationship with the divine or universal principles. It explicitly states that the correspondence between rights and duties is critical to understanding justice.
A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was :
UPSC's answer: (d) — B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple. The only fruit common to both B and C is oranges. A ate grapes and pineapple, and D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. Neither A nor D ate oranges, and neither of them fell sick.
Consider the following statements : 1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country 2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 confirms that the rate of population growth is increasing. Statement 2 explicitly states that the death rate is declining faster than the birth rate.
A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Take the start as (0, 0), with north as +y and east as +x. 3 km north → (0, 3); 3 km west → (–3, 3); 4 km south → (–3, –1). To get back to (0, 0) he must go 3 km east and 1 km north. Option (b), 3 km east then 1 km north, does exactly this without retracing any part of his route. Hence option (b).
Consider the following statement : “We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking”. Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The statement 'We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking' is a logical disjunction (A or B), which is true if at least one of the activities occurs. To falsify a disjunction, both components must be false; that is, neither activity can take place.
There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that :
UPSC's answer: (d) — No male knew music, and only 'many' (not all) of the 20 female members knew music, so some women also did not know music. Since nobody at the party knew music, all six guests came from the non-musicians: the 30 men plus the women who did not know music.
Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A (ii) A is seated two seats from D (iii) B is not seated next to A On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true ? 1. D is seated next to B 2. E is seated next to A 3. D and C are separated by two seats Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Number the five seats 1 to 5 round the table and put A at seat 1; A's neighbours are seats 2 and 5. 'A is two seats from D' puts D at seat 3 or seat 4 (the non-adjacent seats).
There are five hobby clubs in a college — photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The gardening group meets every 2nd day, electronics every 3rd, chess every 4th, yachting every 5th, and photography every 6th day. To find when all groups meet on the same day, calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their meeting intervals: 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the number of flowers be f and the number of bees be b. One bee per flower leaves one bee over: b = f + 1. Two bees per flower leaves one flower empty, so the bees fill (f – 1) flowers: b = 2(f – 1). Then f + 1 = 2f – 2, so f = 3 and b = 4. Hence 3 flowers and 4 bees, option (c).
Who is the doctor ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer. P and S are unmarried students, so they are not the married man's wife and do not hold the three professional roles. T is married to a group member other than P and S; Q is P's brother (male), so T's wife must be R.
Who is the artist ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer. P and S are unmarried students, so they are not the married man's wife and do not hold the three professional roles. T is married to a group member other than P and S; Q is P's brother (male), so T's wife must be R.
Who is the spouse of R ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — P and S are unmarried students, so they cannot be the spouse of R. T is a man married to one of the group members, meaning T is the spouse of a female member. Q is the brother of P, making Q male; since T is male, Q cannot be T's spouse, and T cannot be Q's spouse.
Who is the lawyer ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer. P and S are unmarried students, so they are not the married man's wife and do not hold the three professional roles. T is married to a group member other than P and S; Q is P's brother (male), so T's wife must be R.
Who of the following is definitely a man ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Q is explicitly stated to be the brother of P, which defines Q as male. Since Q is a brother, Q is definitely a man. P and S are unmarried students, but their gender is not definitively established as male (P could be female, and S's gender is unspecified).
There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The firm produces 1000 units per day, but 5% are unfit for sale, meaning only 95% are sellable. Calculate the daily sellable output: 1000 * (1 - 0.05) = 950 units per day. Divide the total order quantity by the daily sellable output: 19000 / 950. The calculation yields exactly 20 days.
What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation ? 1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass 2. Biomass production competes with food production 3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is supported by the passage, which identifies the 'biggest challenge' as a 'long-term reliable supply' and notes that the 'maximum sustainable technical potential' is limited, making sustainable supply a constraint.
Which of the following can lead to food security problem ? 1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that 'Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices,' directly linking the cultivation of energy crops to food security issues.
In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel ? 1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050 2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources 3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is incorrect because the passage states that biomass use could increase to 150–200 exajoules, which is 'almost a quarter' of world primary energy in 2050, not 'all' requirements.
With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made : 1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions 2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources Which of these assumptions is/are valid ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Assumption 1 is valid because the passage states that biomass has the 'highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources' and that second-generation biofuels 'emit low levels of greenhouse gases,' implying that models projecting its use assume it helps mitigate emissions.
Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that we are witnessing a 'dangerous dwindling of biodiversity' in the food supply as a result of the green revolution's focus on high-yield crops.
A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is :
UPSC's answer: (a) — 11:00 am to 2:27 pm is 3 hours 27 minutes = 207 minutes. Four equal periods have three 5-minute rests between them (the rest after the last period falls outside the class), i.e. 15 minutes of rest. So 4 × (period) = 207 – 15 = 192 minutes, and each period is 192 ÷ 4 = 48 minutes.
Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows : A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The rule that the faster person of each pair returns with the lamp 'to accompany another person' means A (1 minute), the fastest, escorts each of the others across and brings the lamp back.
30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Calculate the sugar concentration in vessel A: 30 g / 180 ml = 1/6 g/ml ≈ 0.167 g/ml. Calculate the sugar concentration in vessel B: 40 g / 280 ml = 1/7 g/ml ≈ 0.143 g/ml. Calculate the sugar concentration in vessel C: 20 g / 100 ml = 1/5 g/ml = 0.200 g/ml.
In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the class have n students; each gives ₹n, so the collection is n × n = n². One student gives ₹2 extra: n² + 2 = 443, so n² = 441. n = 21, since 21 × 21 = 441. Hence 21 students, option (b).
Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Total marks available are 700 (70 problems × 10 marks each), and the passing threshold is 60%, which equals 420 marks. Anita answered 70% of 10 arithmetic problems correctly, scoring 7 × 10 = 70 marks. She answered 40% of 30 algebra problems correctly, scoring 12 × 10 = 120 marks.
In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 18 very tall boys represent three-fourths of the total boys, so the total number of boys is 18 ÷ (3/4) = 24. The total number of boys (24) is two-thirds of the total students, so the total number of students is 24 ÷ (2/3) = 36.
Consider the following statements : 1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B 2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C 3. B is older than C Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 says A is either the same age as B or older than B, so A is at least as old as B. Statement 2 says D is either the same age as C or older than C, so D is at least as old as C, but it does not force D to be older than C. Statement 3 says B is older than C, so B > C.
The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Let there be M men and F women. Total salary: 5000(M + F) = 5200M + 4200F. So 800F = 200M, i.e. M = 4F. Share of men = 4F ÷ 5F = 4/5 = 80%. Hence 80%, option (b).
Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Balls known directly: A has tennis, C has cricket, B has volleyball; so hockey, golf and football are in D, E and F. Hockey is in neither D nor E, so hockey is in F. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E, leaving football in D. Colours: A orange, C green; golf is in the violet box, so E is violet.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Balls known directly: A has tennis, C has cricket, B has volleyball; so hockey, golf and football are in D, E and F. Hockey is in neither D nor E, so hockey is in F. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E, leaving football in D. Colours: A orange, C green; golf is in the violet box, so E is violet.
The football is in the box of which colour ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Balls known directly: A has tennis, C has cricket, B has volleyball; so hockey, golf and football are in D, E and F. Hockey is in neither D nor E, so hockey is in F. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E, leaving football in D. Colours: A orange, C green; golf is in the violet box, so E is violet.
Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Let the third number Z be 100 for ease of calculation. Since X is 20% less than Z, X = 100 - 20 = 80. Since Y is 28% less than Z, Y = 100 - 28 = 72. The difference between X and Y is 80 - 72 = 8. To find by what percentage Y is less than X, divide the difference by X: (8 / 80) * 100 = 10%.
A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A train leaving A at 6 AM reaches B 42 hours later, at midnight on the second night, and can take the next 6 AM departure from B, 48 hours after it started. It is back at A after another 48 hours, so each train completes a round trip in 96 hours = 4 days.
A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The area of the rectangular tin is calculated as length multiplied by width: 12 cm × 8 cm = 96 cm². Since the tin is used to construct a closed cube, the total surface area of the cube must equal the area of the tin.
In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Each of the five questions can be answered in 2 ways (T or F). The number of different answer sequences is 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32. No two candidates may give the same sequence, so at most 32 candidates are possible. Hence 32, option (d).
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage identifies 'crony capitalism' as the primary threat to economic growth, defining it by the lack of transparency and competition where influential figures gain resources through payoffs to politicians.
What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states that climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns.
Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage explicitly states that water and biodiversity are interdependent, with the hydrological cycle deciding how biodiversity functions. It highlights that vegetation and soil drive the movement of water, indicating that biological components are essential for the water cycle's operation.
Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that recent banking restructuring focused on automation and products for the middle and upper-middle classes. It explicitly identifies a gap where the 'common man' is excluded from these services.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements : 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is incorrect because the passage states that a campaign should 'primarily focus' on the abolition of manual scavenging, not that this single action will 'fully solve' all urban sanitation problems.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that nature made man's natural wants greater than his individual powers. It explicitly notes that no single man can supply his own wants without the aid of society. The text concludes that these wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.
The statement refers to :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that legal imperatives (a political function) correspond to effective demands. It further explains that these demands depend on the distribution of economic power. This establishes a direct causal link where economic conditions shape political/legal outcomes.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage attributes about 15% of global greenhouse emissions to agricultural practices and another 17% to forestry, land use and land-use change. Most of the latter comes from tropical deforestation, and the rest from draining and burning tropical peatland.
A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point ‘O’ ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — North-east and north-west are at right angles to each other, so OA (5 km) and AB (12 km) form a right angle at A. OB is the hypotenuse: OB² = 5² + 12² = 25 + 144 = 169. So OB = 13 km. Hence 13 km, option (b).
An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X₁ meters and breadth X₂ meters (X₁ and X₂ are variable). If X₁ + X₂ = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The area of the rectangular field is given by the product of its length and breadth, Area = X₁ * X₂. The problem states that the sum of the length and breadth is constant: X₁ + X₂ = 40.
The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Three years ago, the sum of the ages of the 5 family members was 80 years, making the average age 80/5 = 16 years. Today, those same 5 members have each aged by 3 years, so their current combined age is 80 + (5 * 3) = 95 years.
The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Let the basic pay of the first person be B1 and the second person be B2. The total emoluments for the first person are B1 + 0.65B1 = 1.65B1. The total emoluments for the second person are B2 + 0.80B2 = 1.80B2. Since the total emoluments are equal, 1.65B1 = 1.80B2.
A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The person is currently on the 1st step from the bottom. Climbing 4 more steps places him on the 1 + 4 = 5th step. The problem states that the 5th step is exactly the middle step of the ladder. For a step to be the exact middle, the number of steps below it must equal the number of steps above it.
What is C's surname ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — C wore the tie (clue 2). Clue 1 tells us a white sweater was worn, by someone who is neither B nor Ribeiro; C wore a tie, so A wore the white sweater and B the jacket.
What is the colour of the tie ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — C wore the tie (clue 2). Clue 1 tells us a white sweater was worn, by someone who is neither B nor Ribeiro; C wore a tie, so A wore the white sweater and B the jacket.
Who wore the sweater ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — C wore the tie (clue 2). Clue 1 tells us a white sweater was worn, by someone who is neither B nor Ribeiro; C wore a tie, so A wore the white sweater and B the jacket.
AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The standing part AC (12 m), the ground distance AD (5 m) and the broken part CD form a right-angled triangle with the right angle at A. CD² = 12² + 5² = 144 + 25 = 169, so the broken part is 13 m long. Original height = standing part + broken part = 12 + 13 = 25 m. Hence 25 m, option (b).
A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — North–south: 12 km north, then 15 km south, leaves him 3 km south of the start. East–west: 15 km east, then 19 km west, leaves him 4 km west of the start. Straight-line distance: √(3² + 4²) = √25 = 5 km. Hence 5 km, option (a).
A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is :
UPSC's answer: (b) — A side one-fourth of the big cube's side means the big cube is cut into 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 small cubes. Cubes with exactly one painted face lie in the interior of each face, away from edges: (4 – 2) × (4 – 2) = 4 per face. Six faces give 6 × 4 = 24 such cubes. Hence 24, option (b).
Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Let the total work be 100 units. Ram and Shyam together complete 60 units in 4 days, so their combined rate is 15 units/day. Shyam completes the remaining 40 units in 8 days, so Shyam's individual rate is 5 units/day.
A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The code splits a word into two equal halves and reverses the letters within each half independently. For SYSTEM (6 letters), the halves are SYS and TEM; reversing each gives SYS and MET, producing SYSMET.
If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Let R = 5a and S = 5b, where a and b are distinct integers. For option (a), R - S = 5a - 5b = 5(a - b), which is always divisible by 5. For option (c), R × S = 25ab, which is always divisible by 25. For option (d), R² + S² = 25a² + 25b² = 25(a² + b²), which is divisible by 5 (and 25).
How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2 ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Numbers between 100 and 300 are 101 to 299. Beginning with 2: 200 to 299 — 100 numbers. Ending with 2: 102, 112, …, 192 and 202, 212, …, 292 — 20 numbers. Both beginning and ending with 2: 202, 212, …, 292 — 10 numbers, counted twice above. Total = 100 + 20 – 10 = 110. Hence 110, option (a).
What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The passage states that feeding two billion more people by 2050 makes the choice of diet urgent due to its impact on the planet. It explicitly contrasts a diet revolving around meat and dairy with one based on unrefined grains, nuts, fruits, and vegetables.
Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that after cattle domestication, the ability to digest milk (lactose tolerance) evolved independently in specific populations, indicating a biological adaptation.
In the above statement, the author implies that :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage states that conceptual difficulties in comparing national income between underdeveloped and industrialized countries are 'particularly serious'.
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage states that increased atmospheric CO2 supports plant growth, leading to flourishing vegetation. It explains that the roots of these plants stimulate microbial activity in the soil. This heightened microbial activity accelerates the decomposition of soil carbon.
According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem ? 1. Setting up more agro-based industries 2. Improving the price affordability by the poor 3. Regulating the conditions of marketing 4. Providing food subsidy to one and all Select the correct answer using the code given below:
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that 'Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.' This sentence directly identifies 'marketing' (implying regulation of conditions)…
According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The passage explicitly states in the very first sentence that 'Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food.' The text elaborates that while individual countries might manage this through trade, for the world as a…
According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies ? 1. Balancing demand and supply of food 2. Increasing imports of food 3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor 4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The passage states that for the world as a whole, a supply-demand balance is an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation, validating statement 1.
The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of : 1. overgrowth of the population worldwide 2. sharp decline in the area of food production 3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage explicitly states that the issue of worldwide food supply has gained significance for two main reasons: changes in the quantum and composition of demand, and the strain on individual countries' capabilities to generate uninterrupted food supplies.
Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further, 1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other 2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3 3. 4 is not to appear at the last place 4. 1 is not to appear at the first place How many different numbers can be formed ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Rules: 2 and 3 never adjacent; 1 never immediately followed by 3; 4 not last; 1 not first. Check the permutations starting with 2, 3 or 4 against these rules. Starting with 2: 2143 and 2431 qualify (2413 fails, since 1 is followed by 3).
A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m × 4 m × 6 m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Calculate the volume of the cylindrical overhead tank using the formula V = πr²h, where r = 2 m and h = 7 m, resulting in 28π cubic meters. Approximate π as 22/7 to simplify the calculation, giving a volume of 28 × (22/7) = 88 cubic meters.
In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Total students are 60, with girls being twice the number of boys, so there are 20 boys and 40 girls. Kamal is ranked 17th from the top, meaning there are 16 students ahead of him. Since 9 of the students ahead of Kamal are girls, the remaining 7 students ahead of him must be boys (16 - 9 = 7).
A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8.00 a.m. and before 9.30. a.m. ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A and B walk in opposite directions, so their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: 2 + 3 = 5 rounds per hour. They meet every time their combined distance covered equals one full round of the park.
W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Calculate the total days required for W: Since W does 25% (1/4) of the work in 30 days, W takes 30 × 4 = 120 days to complete the whole work. Calculate the total days required for X: Since X does 1/4 of the work in 10 days, X takes 10 × 4 = 40 days to complete the whole work.
The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The total monthly income of the family of 5 is calculated as 5 multiplied by Rs. 10,000, which equals Rs. 50,000. The annual income increase for one person is Rs. 1,20,000, so the monthly increase is Rs. 1,20,000 divided by 12, which equals Rs. 10,000.
In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The bucket is at the start (0 m), and the first apple is 5 m away, with subsequent apples 3 m apart. The positions of the 6 apples are: 5 m, 8 m, 11 m, 14 m, 17 m, and 20 m from the start.
A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The target's radius is 0.5 m and the red band's radius is 0.20 m. Probability = red area ÷ total area = (π × 0.20 × 0.20) ÷ (π × 0.5 × 0.5) = 0.04 ÷ 0.25. 0.04 ÷ 0.25 = 0.16. Hence 0.16, option (c).
A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770 ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The marked price of the toy is given as Rs. 770. A 10% discount is allowed on the marked price, so the discount amount is 10% of 770, which is Rs. 77. The selling price (SP) is the marked price minus the discount: 770 - 77 = Rs. 693.
Question paper and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check. Practise this paper with a timer →
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