GS Paper I of the 2018 Preliminary examination, held on 3 June 2018. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 26, History 22, Polity & Governance 14, General Science 13, Environment & Ecology 13, Current Events 7, Geography 5.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
Consider the following statements : 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the Leader of the Opposition was first formally recognised in Lok Sabha in 1969 (Ram Subhag Singh, Congress-O); statutory recognition came with the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition Act, 1977.
Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss ? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — Desert plants (xerophytes) minimise transpiration through leaf adaptations. Hard, waxy (cuticle-thickened) leaves (1) seal in moisture; tiny leaves (2) reduce the surface area exposed to sun and wind; in cacti and euphorbias, leaves are reduced to thorns (3) and the green stem takes over…
As per the NSSO 70ᵗʰ Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements : 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs. 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The NSSO 70th Round (2013) surveyed agricultural households across India. Statement 1 is correct: Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households among rural households (about 78%), followed by Uttar Pradesh.
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) ? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the NGT (2010) is a specialised tribunal for speedy environmental justice that relieves the higher courts, while the CPCB's statutory functions are to promote cleanliness of streams and wells and improve air quality.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: Parliament, by constitutional amendment under Article 368, can add laws to the Ninth Schedule so that Article 31B protects them from challenge on fundamental-rights grounds. Statement 2 is wrong: in I.R. Coelho v.
Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is the fee a merchant pays to the bank/card network for accepting payment through debit or credit cards, usually a percentage of the transaction — option (c).
What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ ? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Nuclear Suppliers Group (48 members) coordinates export controls on nuclear material, equipment and technology. Statement 1 is correct: membership gives access to advanced nuclear technology and trade with other members, a key reason India seeks entry (blocked by China).
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The 6% equalisation levy (2016) on payments to non-residents for online advertising was India's first move to tax the digital economy. Statement 1 is wrong: it was enacted through Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016 as a separate levy, deliberately kept outside the Income Tax Act.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: the N.K. Singh FRBM Review Committee (2017) recommended a general-government debt–GDP ceiling of 60% by 2023 — 40% for the Centre and 20% for the States.
Consider the following statements : 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: India imports about 14–15 million tonnes of edible oil a year against domestic production of roughly 10–11 million tonnes, meeting 55–60% of consumption through imports.
He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
UPSC's answer: (c) — Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna in Urdu, lived in the USA from 1914 to 1919 where he founded the Indian Home Rule League of America, and was later elected to the Central Legislative Assembly — option (c).
Consider the following statements : 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 states that an Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile; it is only proof of identity, and residents (including foreigners staying 182 days) can obtain it.
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Aral Sea (1), once the world's fourth-largest lake, has shrunk to about 10% of its 1960 area after Soviet irrigation projects diverted the Amu Darya and Syr Darya for cotton — one of the worst human-made environmental disasters.
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Rule of Law Index is published annually by the World Justice Project, a Washington-based independent organisation, ranking countries on constraints on government power, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, and civil and criminal…
Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), set up in 2008 under RBI and IBA guidance, operates the National Financial Switch, which interconnects all ATMs in India so that a card from one bank works at another bank's ATM — option (c).
Consider the following statements : 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Capital Adequacy Ratio = a bank's capital (Tier 1 + Tier 2) ÷ risk-weighted assets; it is the cushion of the bank's own funds that absorbs losses if borrowers default (statement 1).
The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply ? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Open APIs let any developer or device connect to Aadhaar's authentication and e-KYC services through standard interfaces. Statement 1 is correct: this is why Aadhaar authentication can be built into smartphones, PoS machines, micro-ATMs and other electronic devices.
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In 2017 the UN declared famine in parts of South Sudan, torn by civil war since 2013, and warned that Yemen — blockaded and bombed in the Saudi-led war since 2015 — faced the world's worst humanitarian crisis with millions in acute malnutrition and a cholera epidemic — option (d).
Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universities was recommended. 3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Wood's Despatch (1854), the 'Magna Carta of English education in India', laid out a graded system from village schools to universities. Statement 1 is correct: it introduced a grants-in-aid system to support private (mainly missionary) schools.
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (15 members in Lok Sabha, since 1953) examines whether rules, regulations, by-laws and orders made by the executive under powers delegated by Parliament stay within the scope of that delegation and are properly exercised — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: under Section 23 of the RTE Act, the NCTE (the notified academic authority) requires candidates for Classes I–VIII to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET or State TETs) conducted as per NCTE guidelines.
Consider the following pairs : Tradition — State 1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Chapchar Kut is Mizoram's spring festival celebrated in March after jhum clearing, with the Cheraw bamboo dance. Pair 2 is correct: Khongjom Parba is a Manipuri ballad tradition sung with the dhol, narrating the 1891 Anglo-Manipur war's Battle of Khongjom.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated and repealed the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and seven other food laws.
The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 'two-state solution' is the proposal to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict by creating an independent Palestinian state alongside Israel, based on the pre-1967 borders with East Jerusalem as Palestine's capital — option (b).
With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements : 1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Section 13 of the NFSA makes the eldest woman aged 18 or above the head of household for ration-card purposes, to empower women.
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
UPSC's answer: (d) — Geographical Indications are covered by Articles 22–24 of the WTO's TRIPS Agreement, which obliges members to protect GIs against misuse. India, a WTO member, enacted the GI Act, 1999 (in force 2003) to meet this obligation and to protect products such as Darjeeling tea and Basmati — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 3 is correct: Rajasthan has iron-ore deposits in Jaipur (Morija-Banol), Bhilwara, Sikar and Udaipur districts. Statement 1 is wrong: under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015 State Governments conduct auctions of non-coal mineral blocks; the Centre auctions coal.
With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements : 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money), built by NPCI on UPI, lets users send money to anyone with a UPI-linked bank account using a UPI ID, mobile number or account+IFSC.
Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Delhi lies at about 77.2° E longitude. Bengaluru is at about 77.6° E — barely half a degree east of Delhi, so it lies almost due south — option (a). Hyderabad is at about 78.5° E, Nagpur at about 79.1° E and Pune at about 73.9° E, all farther from Delhi's meridian. Hence option (a).
International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
UPSC's answer: (a) — ILO Convention 138 (1973) sets the minimum age for employment (generally 15, or 14 for developing countries), and Convention 182 (1999) requires elimination of the worst forms of child labour — slavery, trafficking, hazardous work — option (a).
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The question asks which statement is NOT correct. Article 110(1) lists Money Bill matters: taxes (a); regulation of borrowing and guarantees (d); custody of the Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund and payments into or withdrawals from them (b); appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated…
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements : 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Under Article 55, the value of an MLA's vote = State population (1971 census) ÷ (number of elected MLAs × 1000), so it varies from State to State — from 7 in Sikkim to 208 in Uttar Pradesh (statement 1).
In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)' ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — India signed an India-specific safeguards agreement with the IAEA in 2009 and ratified the Additional Protocol in 2014. The Additional Protocol gives the IAEA expanded reporting and access to verify that India's declared civilian nuclear facilities and imported material are used only for peaceful…
Consider the following countries : 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — ASEAN has free-trade agreements with six dialogue partners: China (2004), South Korea (2006), Japan (2008), India (2009 goods, 2014 services/investment), and Australia–New Zealand (2009). Of the listed countries, Australia (1), China (3), India (4) and Japan (5) are ASEAN FTA partners.
With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — GACSA was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, hosted by FAO — not at Paris 2015, so statement 1 is wrong.
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India ? 1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Digital India (2015) rests on three pillars: digital infrastructure as a utility, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens.
Consider the following pairs : Towns sometimes mentioned in news — Country 1. Aleppo — Syria 2. Kirkuk — Yemen 3. Mosul — Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Aleppo (1) is Syria's largest city, devastated in the civil war and retaken by government forces in 2016. Mazar-i-Sharif (4) is northern Afghanistan's main city, home to the Blue Mosque.
In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Government of India Act, 1935 divided powers into Federal, Provincial and Concurrent Lists. Residuary powers — subjects in none of the three lists — were vested in the Governor-General, who could authorise either the federal or a provincial legislature to legislate on them at his discretion…
Consider the following statements : 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: under Article 179(a) the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) of a Legislative Assembly vacates office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — In political theory (Locke, Laski), law is the condition of liberty: without law there is only the rule of the strong, and no one's freedom is secure — 'where there is no law, there is no freedom' (Locke) — option (b).
Consider the following statements : 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against the President or a Governor in any court during the term of office (civil suits need two months' notice).
The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Bani Thani' was painted around 1750 by Nihal Chand at the court of Raja Sawant Singh (Nagari Das) of Kishangarh, Rajasthan, portraying the poet-singer Bani Thani as Radha with elongated eyes, arched brows and a pointed nose — option (d).
What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — THAAD is a US Army anti-ballistic-missile system, built by Lockheed Martin, that intercepts short- and medium-range missiles in their terminal phase using hit-to-kill interceptors and an X-band radar — option (c).
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Tyagaraja (1767–1847), one of the Carnatic Trinity, composed thousands of kritis in Telugu, overwhelmingly in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna — statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: he created and popularised ragas such as Kharaharapriya, Harikambhoji and Devagandhari.
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law" ? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People's responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — A.V. Dicey's 'Rule of Law' has three pillars: supremacy of law (no arbitrary power, hence limitation of powers — 1), equality before the law (2), and the primacy of individual rights protected by the courts (liberty and civil rights — 4).
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Legal tender is money that, by law, a creditor must accept when offered in payment of a debt — option (b). In India, RBI notes are unlimited legal tender (Section 26, RBI Act) and coins are limited legal tender up to ₹1,000 (Coinage Act, 2011).
If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
UPSC's answer: (c) — Opportunity cost is the value of the next-best alternative forgone; resources used to produce any good have an opportunity cost regardless of who pays.
Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
UPSC's answer: (c) — Economic development means growth plus improvement in people's welfare — reduction in poverty, unemployment and inequality (Dudley Seers' criteria).
Consider the following statements : Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Human capital formation is the process of raising the productive capacity of people through education, training, health and skills (statement 2). These capacities are intangible assets embodied in people, so it amounts to accumulation of intangible wealth (statement 4).
Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
UPSC's answer: (d) — The capital–output ratio (ICOR) measures how much capital is needed to produce one additional unit of output. A high capital–output ratio means investment is inefficient — much capital yields little output — so even a high-saving economy sees little growth from its capital formation (Harrod–Domar…
After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government ? 1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — After crushing the Santhal Hul (1855–56) led by Sidhu and Kanhu, the British carved out the Santhal Parganas as a separate district in 1855 with its own simplified administration under a Deputy Commissioner (statement 1).
Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19ᵗʰ century was the
UPSC's answer: (c) — In the 19th century British policy turned Indian agriculture towards cash crops for export and for British industry — cotton, jute, indigo, opium, tea and sugarcane — a process called commercialisation of agriculture — option (c).
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under Article 356 (President's Rule) the President may assume the functions of the State Government and declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament — option (b).
Consider the following pairs : Craft — Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pair 1 is correct: Puthukkuli is the traditional handwoven shawl of the Toda tribe of the Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu, with red and black embroidery on white cotton; it has GI status.
In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ? 1. Mobile phone operations 2. Banking operations 3. Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — GPS provides not only position but also highly precise time signals from satellite atomic clocks. Mobile networks (1) use GPS timing to synchronise base stations and for location services.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments. 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 3 is correct: Treasury bills are zero-coupon instruments sold at a discount and redeemed at par, the difference being the return. Statement 2 is correct: only the Government of India issues T-bills (91, 182 and 364 days); States borrow through State Development Loans, not T-bills.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: geomagnetic reversals, recorded in seafloor rock magnetism, occur irregularly, on average every few hundred thousand years; the last was about 780,000 years ago.
The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
UPSC's answer: (c) — WannaCry (May 2017) and Petya/NotPetya (June 2017) were ransomware attacks that encrypted files on hundreds of thousands of computers worldwide, hitting hospitals, shipping firms and Indian companies — option (c).
With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — FAO defines Conservation Agriculture by three principles: minimum mechanical soil disturbance (minimum/zero tillage — 2), permanent soil cover with crop residues or cover crops (4), and diversified crop rotations and sequences in space and time (5).
The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
UPSC's answer: (d) — Earth has seen five mass extinctions, the last 66 million years ago when an asteroid ended the dinosaurs. Scientists warn a sixth is under way, driven not by natural catastrophe but by humans: habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, pollution, invasive species and climate change…
With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — IRNSS (NavIC) is a seven-satellite constellation: three in geostationary orbit and four in inclined geosynchronous orbit (statement 1 is correct). Statement 2 is wrong: NavIC covers India and a region extending about 1,500 km beyond its borders, not 5,500 sq km.
Consider the following phenomena : 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — General Relativity (1915) describes gravity as the curvature of space-time by mass and energy (3). A consequence is that light bends when passing near a massive body (1), confirmed by Eddington's 1919 eclipse observations.
With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements : 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — DMH-11 GM mustard was developed by Deepak Pental's team at the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants, Delhi University — not IARI and PAU, so statement 3 is wrong.
Consider the following pairs : Terms sometimes seen in news — Context/Topic 1. Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence 2. Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency 3. CRISPR – Cas9 — Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: blockchain is the distributed-ledger technology underlying Bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies. Pair 1 is wrong: Belle II is a particle-physics experiment at the SuperKEKB accelerator in Japan studying B-mesons, with Indian participation; it is not about AI.
Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization" ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Carbon fertilisation' (CO2 fertilisation effect) is the increase in photosynthesis and plant growth caused by higher atmospheric CO2 concentrations, since CO2 is a raw material for photosynthesis — option (a).
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The scenario — phone, geyser, mirror, refrigerator, locks, car and office all sensing, communicating and acting automatically over the internet — is the Internet of Things (IoT), a network of connected physical devices with sensors and software — option (b).
With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements : 1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: India has almost no silicon-wafer manufacturing; wafer and cell production is dominated by China, Taiwan and Malaysia, and India imports most cells and wafers (the PLI scheme now aims to build capacity).
The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18ᵗʰ century were
UPSC's answer: (d) — By the mid-18th century Bengal was the Company's richest trading province; its staple exports were cotton textiles (muslins and calicoes), raw silk and silk goods, saltpetre (for gunpowder) and opium (for the China trade) — option (d).
Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Champaran (1917) was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, taken up on behalf of indigo cultivators forced under the tinkathia system to grow indigo on 3/20 of their land.
Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948 ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was founded in Kolkata in December 1948 by socialists who left the Communist-dominated AITUC and the Congress-linked INTUC; its founders included Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam, G.G. Mehta, Basawon Singh and R.S. Ruikar — option (d).
With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to
UPSC's answer: (b) — Sthanakvasi is a sect of Shvetambara Jainism founded in the 17th century by Lavaji, growing out of the Lonka Shah reform movement; it rejects idol worship and temples and worships in sthanakas (halls) — option (b). Its monks wear the muhapatti (mouth cloth); the Terapanth later split from it.
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Buland Darwaza and the buildings of Fatehpur Sikri, including the khanqah of Salim Chishti's complex, are built of red sandstone; only Salim Chishti's tomb is in white marble.
Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French gem merchant who made six voyages to India (1630s–1660s), described the Golconda diamond mines (Kollur) in detail in his 'Six Voyages' and is credited with bringing the Tavernier Blue (later the Hope Diamond) to Europe — option (b).
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Maitreya is the future Buddha who, according to both Theravada and Mahayana traditions, now resides in Tushita heaven and will descend to earth to teach the dharma anew when it has been forgotten — option (c).
Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The question asks which statement does NOT apply. Under Subsidiary Alliance (1798), an Indian ruler kept a British force in his territory and paid for it or ceded territory — so the Company maintained a large army at others' expense (a), excluded French influence during the Napoleonic wars (b), and…
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ? 1. Charter Act of 1813 2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Charter Act of 1813 (1) set aside ₹1 lakh a year for education, the first State commitment to educating Indians. The General Committee of Public Instruction (2), set up in 1823, was tasked with spending that grant and became the arena of debate over its use.
Which one of the following is an artificial lake ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Kodaikanal Lake is a star-shaped artificial lake built in 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the Collector of Madurai, by damming streams — option (a).
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — PMKVY (2015) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, implemented through the NSDC — so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: besides trade skills, training includes soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha" ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — After Tilak's death in August 1920, Gandhi became president of the All India Home Rule League and renamed it 'Swarajya Sabha', shifting its goal to swaraj through non-cooperation — option (a).
Which among the following events happened earliest ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Dinabandhu Mitra's play 'Neel Darpan', exposing indigo planters' oppression, appeared in 1860 — the earliest event. Satyendranath Tagore passed the ICS in 1863; Swami Dayanand founded the Arya Samaj in 1875; Bankim's 'Anandamath' was published in 1882. Hence option (b).
Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — Riverbed sand acts as a natural aquifer and filter; removing it deepens the channel and cuts off recharge, so the water table in adjoining areas falls (3).
With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements : 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 3 is correct: irrigation water carries dissolved salts which accumulate as water evaporates, especially with poor drainage, causing salinisation (as in Punjab, Haryana and the Indira Gandhi canal command).
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
UPSC's answer: (b) — PAGE was launched in 2013 in response to the outcome document 'The Future We Want' of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) held at Rio de Janeiro in 2012, which called for support to countries pursuing green economies — option (b).
"3D printing" has applications in which of the following ? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — 3D printing (additive manufacturing) builds objects layer by layer from digital models and is used across fields. Confectioners print chocolate and sugar shapes (1); researchers have printed a bionic ear with embedded electronics (2); car makers print prototypes and parts (3); surgeons use printed…
Consider the following statements : 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. 2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. 3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is India's (and South Asia's) only confirmed active volcano. Statement 2 is wrong: it lies about 140 km north-east of Port Blair, far north of Great Nicobar.
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Prosopis juliflora (vilayati kikar / seemai karuvelam), a thorny tree from Central America introduced for fuelwood and afforestation, has become a highly invasive species in India.
Consider the following statements : 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: reef-building corals need warm (18–30 °C), clear, shallow water, so most reefs lie between 30° N and 30° S. Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia, Australia and the Philippines together hold over a third of the world's reef area (Indonesia alone about 18%).
“Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
UPSC's answer: (c) — 'Momentum for Change' is a UNFCCC Secretariat initiative showcasing climate-action projects; its 'Climate Neutral Now' pillar (2015) urges individuals and organisations to measure, reduce and offset their emissions using certified UN carbon credits — option (c).
With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs : Institution — Founder 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras — William Jones 2. Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: Warren Hastings founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 to train Muslims in Persian and Arabic for Company service. Pair 1 is wrong: the Benaras Sanskrit College was founded in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, the Resident, not by William Jones (who founded the Asiatic Society).
Consider the following pairs : Regions sometimes mentioned in news — Country 1. Catalonia — Spain 2. Crimea — Hungary 3. Mindanao — Philippines 4. Oromia — Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 1 is correct: Catalonia, with Barcelona as capital, held a disputed independence referendum from Spain in 2017. Pair 3 is correct: Mindanao is the southern island group of the Philippines, site of the Marawi siege (2017) and the Bangsamoro autonomy process.
Consider the following events : 1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India. 2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'. 3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier. 4. Goa became a part of independent India. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Air India was nationalised in 1953 under the Air Corporations Act (event 3). The Imperial Bank of India became the State Bank of India on 1 July 1955 under the SBI Act (event 2). The first elected communist government, under E.M.S. Namboodiripad, took office in Kerala in April 1957 (event 1).
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — In K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) the Supreme Court held that privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and is also implicit in the other freedoms of Part III — Article 19 (speech, movement) and Article 25 (conscience) — option (c).
Consider the following : 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The CCEA announces MSPs for 22 mandated crops plus fair and remunerative price for sugarcane, on CACP recommendation: 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley, ragi/finger millet), 5 pulses, 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soybean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, niger)…
In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Pakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary lies in East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, bounded by the Kameng and Pakke rivers, and is also Pakke Tiger Reserve — option (a).
With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements : 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: PSLV places Earth-observation and other satellites in polar/sun-synchronous orbits, while GSLV is built to put heavier communication satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbit.
With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements : 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: in April 2017 the five associate banks (SBBJ, SBH, SBM, SBP, SBT) and Bharatiya Mahila Bank were merged into SBI to strengthen and consolidate public sector banking.
Consider the following items : 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertising material Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax) ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under GST, unbranded hulled cereal grains (1), fresh or cooked eggs (2) and newspapers, including those with advertising (4), are exempt (nil rate). Processed and canned fish (3) is taxable under GST, so it is not exempt. Exemptions cover basic foods and print media to keep essentials affordable.
Consider the following statements : 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: Section 2(b) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines 'critical wildlife habitat' as areas of national parks and sanctuaries kept inviolate for wildlife conservation.
Consider the following : 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Plant pathogens (fungi, bacteria, viruses) spread by many agents. Wind (4) carries fungal spores over long distances — wheat rust spores travel hundreds of kilometres; dust blowing (2) carries spores and bacteria on soil particles.
With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements : 1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: APEDA, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, serves as the Secretariat for NPOP and accredits certification bodies for organic exports.
Question paper and answer key: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check. Practise this paper with a timer →
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