Medical Science

UPSC Medical Science 2026 — Paper II

All 8 questions from UPSC Civil Services Mains Medical Science 2026 Paper II (400 marks total). Every stem reproduced in full, with directive-word analysis, marks, word limits, and answer-approach pointers.

8Questions
400Total marks
2026Year
Paper IIPaper

A

Q1
50M Compulsory discuss

(a) Discuss the various sputum-based tests for the diagnosis of tuberculosis under the National Programme in India, along with their advantages and disadvantages. (10 marks) (b) Describe the management of a case of dog bite on the fingers associated with bleeding, as per the national guidelines of India. (10 marks) (c) A 15-month-old child, weighing 8 kg, is brought to the District hospital with fever for 5 days, loose motions and vomiting for 2 days, and respiratory distress for 1 day and has not passed urine. (i) Assess and classify the child as per IMNCI guidelines and document the complete diagnosis. (ii) How will you manage this case as per the IMNCI guidelines ? (10 marks) (d) A 24-hour-old newborn has presented with jaundice extending to the palms and soles. (i) Classify and enumerate the possible causes of hyperbilirubinemia in this newborn. (ii) Outline the management for unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia at this age. (10 marks) (e) (i) What do you understand by a papulosquamous lesion in dermatology ? Enumerate these disorders. (ii) Describe the clinical and histopathological clues for the differentiation between psoriasis and lichen planus. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) भारत में राष्ट्रीय कार्यक्रम के अंतर्गत ट्यूबरकुलोसिस के निदान हेतु किए जाने वाले विभिन्न स्पूटम-आधारित जाँचों की, उनके लाभों तथा हानियों के साथ चर्चा कीजिए। (10 अंक) (b) भारत के राष्ट्रीय दिशा-निर्देशों के अनुसार कुक्कुर के अंगुलियों पर काटने तथा उनसे रक्तस्रावण होने पर कैसे प्रबंधन किया जाना चाहिए, वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक) (c) एक 15-माह का बालक, जिसका वजन 8 kg है, 5 दिन के बुखार, 2 दिन के पतले मल तथा वमन, 1 दिन के श्वसन कष्ट एवं मूत्र न होने के लक्षणों के साथ जिला अस्पताल में लाया गया है। (i) आई.एम.एन.सी.आई. (IMNCI) के दिशा-निर्देशों के अनुसार इस बालक का आकलन तथा वर्गीकरण कीजिए एवं उसका संपूर्ण निदान (डायग्नोसिस) उल्लिखित कीजिए। (ii) आई.एम.एन.सी.आई. (IMNCI) के दिशा-निर्देशों के अनुसार इस केस (मामले) का प्रबंधन आप कैसे करेंगे ? (10 अंक) (d) एक 24-घंटे का नवजात, हथेलियों और तलवों तक के कामला के साथ प्रस्तुत हुआ है। (i) अतिबिलिरुबिनरक्तता को वर्गीकृत करते हुए इस नवजात में अतिबिलिरुबिनरक्तता के संभावित कारण गिनाइए। (ii) इस आयु में अयुग्मित अतिबिलिरुबिनरक्तता के प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (10 अंक) (e) (i) त्वचाविज्ञान में पिटिका-शल्की विक्षति से आप क्या समझते हैं? ऐसे विकारों के नाम गिनाइए। (ii) सोरियासिस तथा समतल लाइकेन को विभेदित करने वाले रोगलाक्षणिक तथा ऊतकविकृति संकेतों का वर्णन कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) 'Discuss' requires the candidate to list and describe each sputum-based diagnostic test used under India's National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) - smear microscopy, molecular NAAT (CBNAAT/Truenat), line probe assay and culture - and for each one to state advantages AND disadvantages. A list without merits/demerits answers only half the question. (b) 'Describe the management ... as per the national guidelines of India' requires the candidate first to grade the exposure (a bleeding bite on the fingers is Category III) and then to set out the three mandatory arms of post-exposure prophylaxis under the National Rabies Control Programme - wound toilet, rabies immunoglobulin infiltration and a cell-culture vaccine schedule - plus tetanus and antibiotic cover. (c) A two-part IMNCI case. Part (i) requires systematic IMNCI assessment (danger signs plus the four main symptoms) and a COMPLETE diagnosis, i.e. every IMNCI classification the child earns, not a single label. Part (ii) requires the IMNCI management - Plan C intravenous rehydration with actual volumes for an 8 kg child, pre-referral drugs and urgent referral. (d) Two parts. (i) Classify hyperbilirubinemia (unconjugated versus conjugated) and enumerate the causes that can produce jaundice within the first 24 hours of life. (ii) Outline the management of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia at this age - phototherapy, exchange transfusion and IVIG with their thresholds. The candidate must register that jaundice in the first 24 hours is ALWAYS pathological and that palm-and-sole involvement means a very high bilirubin. (e) Two parts. (i) Define the term papulosquamous in dermatology and enumerate the disorders in this group. (ii) Give the clinical AND the histopathological features that differentiate psoriasis from lichen planus - both sets of clues are required, and a purely clinical comparison answers only half of part (ii).

  • Smear microscopy: cheap and rapid; low sensitivity, no species or resistance information
  • CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF): high sensitivity, rifampicin resistance in about 2 hours; costly, power needed, no isoniazid result
  • Truenat and line probe assay with their merits and demerits
  • Culture (LJ and MGIT) as gold standard with DST; slow, biosafety and cost limits
  • Category III exposure identified
  • Immediate wound washing with soap and running water for 15 minutes, antiseptic, no suturing or irritants
  • RIG on day 0: human 20 IU/kg or equine 40 IU/kg or monoclonal 3.33 IU/kg, infiltrated into and around the wound
  • Cell-culture vaccine: intradermal 0.1 mL two sites on days 0, 3, 7, 28 or intramuscular Essen; tetanus and antibiotics
  • Assessment: danger signs, breathing rate and chest indrawing, dehydration signs, fever work-up, nutrition
  • Complete classification: severe dehydration, severe pneumonia or very severe disease, very severe febrile disease
  • Plan C: 100 mL/kg, that is 800 mL (240 mL in 30 minutes, 560 mL in 2½ hours) with reassessment
  • Pre-referral or first-line drugs: oxygen, injectable antibiotic, paracetamol, glucose, zinc; watch for fluid overload and refer urgently
  • Classification into unconjugated and conjugated; jaundice in the first 24 hours is always pathological (Kramer zone 5)
  • Causes: Rh and ABO incompatibility, G6PD deficiency, sepsis or TORCH, concealed haemorrhage, polycythaemia
  • Investigations and intensive phototherapy at once with 4–6 hourly bilirubin
  • Exchange transfusion (double volume, indications) and IVIG 0.5–1 g/kg; treat the cause, watch for kernicterus
  • Definition: raised scaly papules or plaques
  • Enumeration: psoriasis, lichen planus, pityriasis rosea, secondary syphilis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea, pityriasis rubra pilaris
  • Clinical: silvery scale, Auspitz sign, extensor sites, nail pitting against violaceous polygonal papules, Wickham striae, flexor and mucosal sites, severe itch
  • Histology: psoriasis with parakeratosis, absent granular layer, Munro abscesses, club-shaped rete ridges; lichen planus with hypergranulosis, saw-tooth acanthosis, basal liquefaction, band-like infiltrate, Civatte bodies
Q2
50M discuss

(a) A 20-year-old medical student presents with fever, dry cough, and right-sided chest pain. She also has loss of weight and loss of appetite. The chest X-ray shows right-sided pleural effusion. Discuss the diagnostic investigations and management of this patient. (20 marks) (b) A 2-year-old boy, weighing 8 kg, with a length of 72 cm, has presented at the hospital. (i) How does one assess and classify malnutrition in this boy ? (ii) What are the clinical features of malnutrition and what are its complications ? (iii) Outline the stepwise management of ‘Severe Acute Malnutrition’. (iv) Explain the dietary management during the rehabilitation phase. (20 marks) (c) A 1-month-old infant has yellowish greasy scaling on the vertex and frontal area of the scalp. His retroauricular and nasolabial folds show erythema and scaling. (i) What is the diagnosis? (ii) What is the aetiology of this disorder? (iii) How do you manage this disorder? (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक 20-वर्षीय मेडिकल छात्रा बुखार, सूखी खाँसी और छाती के दाहिनी ओर के दर्द के साथ प्रस्तुत होती है। उसका वजन भी घटा है और उसे भूख भी कम लग रही है। उसकी छाती के एक्स-रे पर दाहिनी ओर परिफुप्फुस निःसरण दृष्टिगत है। इस रोगी की नैदानिक जाँच-परीक्षणों तथा प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (20 अंक) (b) एक 2-वर्षीय बालक, जिसका वजन 8 kg है और लम्बाई 72 cm है, अस्पताल में प्रस्तुत हुआ है। (i) इस बालक में कुपोषण का आकलन तथा वर्गीकरण कैसे किया जाना चाहिए? (ii) कुपोषण की रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताएँ तथा जटिलताएँ क्या हैं? (iii) ‘गंभीर तीव्र कुपोषण’ के चरणबद्ध प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (iv) पुनर्वासन के चरण में आहार प्रबंधन कैसे किया जाता है, व्याख्या कीजिए। (20 अंक) (c) एक माह के एक शिशु के शिरोवल्क के शीर्ष तथा ललाट क्षेत्र में पीत स्नेहिकायुक्त शल्क है। उसके बहिःकर्ण पश्च तथा नासा-ओष्ठ वलि के क्षेत्रों में त्वग्क्षिमा तथा शल्क दिखाई दे रहे हैं। (i) निदान (डायग्नोसिस) क्या है? (ii) इस विकार की हेतुकी क्या है? (iii) इस विकार का प्रबंधन आप कैसे करेंगे? (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) A young adult with fever, dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, weight loss, anorexia and a unilateral pleural effusion - in the Indian setting this is tubercular pleural effusion until proved otherwise. 'Discuss the diagnostic investigations and management' requires a reasoned diagnostic work-up (imaging, pleural fluid analysis with Light's criteria, ADA, molecular tests, pleural biopsy) AND a complete management plan (the NTEP anti-tubercular regimen with doses, therapeutic drainage, monitoring and programmatic measures), with the important differential diagnoses named. (b) Four explicit sub-parts on a 2-year-old boy weighing 8 kg with a length of 72 cm: (i) assess and classify his malnutrition using the correct anthropometric indices, (ii) give the clinical features and complications of malnutrition, (iii) outline the stepwise (WHO 10-step) management of Severe Acute Malnutrition, and (iv) explain the dietary management in the rehabilitation phase. All four must be answered; omitting any one forfeits its marks. (c) Three explicit sub-parts on a 1-month-old infant with greasy yellow scaling of the vertex and frontal scalp plus erythema and scaling of the retroauricular and nasolabial folds: (i) name the diagnosis, (ii) give the aetiology/pathogenesis of the disorder, and (iii) set out the management. All three must be answered.

  • Working diagnosis of tubercular pleural effusion with differentials (parapneumonic, malignancy, SLE, pulmonary embolism)
  • Imaging and diagnostic thoracentesis: exudate by Light's criteria, lymphocytic, ADA above 40 U/L, low-yield smear and CBNAAT, culture
  • Pleural biopsy or medical thoracoscopy for granulomas; HIV test and sputum studies
  • NTEP regimen 2HRZE + 4HRE with weight-band doses, therapeutic drainage, monitoring, Nikshay notification and nutrition support
  • Indices: weight-for-age, length-for-age, weight-for-length, MUAC and oedema; boy is below −3 SD for weight and length, so severely underweight and stunted; weight-for-length about −1 to −2 SD
  • Features of marasmus and kwashiorkor, with complications: hypoglycaemia, hypothermia, dehydration, infection, anaemia, heart failure
  • WHO 10 steps: glucose, warmth, ReSoMal, electrolytes, antibiotics, micronutrients without iron, F-75 cautious feeding
  • Rehabilitation: F-100 or RUTF at 150–220 kcal/kg/day, transition of 2 days, family foods, weight gain target, stimulation and follow-up
  • Diagnosis: infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis (cradle cap)
  • Aetiology: sebaceous gland activity from maternal androgens, Malassezia yeast, skin barrier and immune response
  • Management: reassurance, oil to soften scales, mild shampoo and soft brush
  • Ketoconazole 2% shampoo or cream, short mild steroid for inflammation, follow up for other causes
Q3
50M discuss

(a) An 18-year-old girl presents with episodic breathlessness, cough with sputum, chest tightness and wheezing for the last 4 years. She also complains of recurrent sneezing and nasal blockage. Discuss the evaluation and management of this patient. (25 marks) (b) A 6-day-old newborn presents with cyanosis, respiratory distress, tachycardia and hepatomegaly. (i) Discuss the differential diagnosis of this newborn. (ii) Outline the diagnostic approach. (iii) Discuss the acute and long-term management of this newborn. (15 marks) (c) (i) Describe the clinical and histopathological features of acute, subacute and chronic eczema. (ii) What is Airborne Contact Dermatitis ? Discuss its aetiology and clinical features. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक 18-वर्षीय बालिका विगत 4 वर्षों से समय-समय पर साँस फूलने, कफ के साथ खाँसी होने, छाती भींचने और घरघराहट (व्हीज़िंग) होने के लक्षणों के साथ प्रस्तुत होती है। उसे बार-बार छींके आने और नाक बंद होने की शिकायत भी है। इस रोगी का मूल्यांकन तथा प्रबंधन कैसे किया जाना चाहिए, चर्चा कीजिए। (25 अंक) (b) एक 6-दिन का नवजात जो श्यामता, श्वसन में कष्ट, हृद्क्षिप्रता तथा यकृतवृद्धि के साथ प्रस्तुत होता है। (i) इस नवजात के विभेदक निदान पर चर्चा कीजिए। (ii) निदान (डायग्नोसिस) तक पहुँचने के मार्ग की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (iii) इस नवजात के तीव्र प्रबंधन तथा दीर्घकालीन प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) (i) तीव्र एक्जिमा, अनुतीव्र एक्जिमा तथा चिरकारी एक्जिमा की रोगलाक्षणिक तथा ऊतकविकृति विशिष्टताओं का वर्णन कीजिए। (ii) वायु-वाहित संस्पर्श त्वक्शोथ क्या है ? उसकी हेतुकी तथा रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताओं की चर्चा कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) An 18-year-old with 4 years of episodic breathlessness, cough with sputum, chest tightness and wheeze, plus recurrent sneezing and nasal blockage - bronchial asthma with coexisting allergic rhinitis. 'Discuss the evaluation and management' requires a full diagnostic work-up (history, examination, spirometry with reversibility criteria, PEF variability, allergy and ABPA screen, assessment of control) AND a complete GINA-based management plan that also treats the rhinitis. (b) A 6-day-old neonate with cyanosis, respiratory distress, tachycardia and hepatomegaly - the classic age and picture of a duct-dependent congenital heart disease decompensating as the ductus arteriosus closes. Three sub-parts must all be answered: (i) the differential diagnosis, (ii) the diagnostic approach, and (iii) both acute AND long-term management. (c) Two parts. (i) Describe BOTH the clinical AND the histopathological features of acute, subacute and chronic eczema - all three stages, both sets of features. (ii) Define airborne contact dermatitis and discuss its aetiology and clinical features.

  • Working diagnosis of bronchial asthma with allergic rhinitis, with differentials
  • Evaluation: history and triggers, spirometry with reversibility (FEV1 rise above 12% and 200 mL), PEF variability, allergy tests, ABPA screen, control assessment
  • GINA stepwise treatment with ICS-formoterol reliever and MART, steps up to biologics; SABA-alone not recommended
  • Rhinitis treatment (intranasal steroid, antihistamine, montelukast, immunotherapy), action plan, exacerbation care and follow-up
  • Duct-dependent congenital heart disease as the leading diagnosis, with differentials (TGA, TAPVC, HLHS, pulmonary atresia) and non-cardiac causes (sepsis, PPHN)
  • Approach: pre- and post-ductal saturation, hyperoxia test, blood gas, chest X-ray, ECG, echocardiography
  • Acute care: prostaglandin E1 0.01–0.05 µg/kg/min, oxygen with caution, diuretics and inotropes, correction of acidosis, balloon atrial septostomy
  • Long-term: lesion-specific surgery (arterial switch, Norwood-Glenn-Fontan, shunt), nutrition, endocarditis prevention, follow-up
  • Acute eczema: vesicles and oozing; spongiosis and exocytosis
  • Subacute: scaling and crusting; mild acanthosis with parakeratosis
  • Chronic: lichenification; marked acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, dermal fibrosis
  • Airborne contact dermatitis: definition, Parthenium and other agents, exposed-site distribution with involvement of the folds
Q4
50M discuss

(a) A 45-year-old hepatitis-C positive patient presents with icterus, oliguria, abdominal distention and blood in stools. Discuss the investigations and management of this patient. (25 marks) (b) A 12-year-old girl, unvaccinated since the age of 1 year, reports to you for a 'catch-up vaccination'. (i) How would you draw her vaccination plan ? Which vaccines should be administered to the girl and what should be their schedule ? (ii) Describe the possible adverse events that may occur following vaccination (immunization). (iii) Discuss the clinical manifestations of acute anaphylaxis following vaccination and its management. (15 marks) (c) Briefly discuss the management of the microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus. (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) एक 45-वर्षीय रोगी, जो हेपेटाइटिस-C पॉजीटिव है, कामला, अल्पमूत्रता, उदरीय आध्मान तथा मल में रक्त होने के लक्षणों के साथ प्रस्तुत होता है। इस रोगी में किए जाने वाले जाँच-परीक्षणों तथा प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (25 अंक) (b) एक 12-वर्षीय बालिका, जिसे 1 वर्ष की आयु के बाद से कोई टीका नहीं लगा है, छूटे हुए टीकों को पूरा करने के उद्देश्य से आपके पास आती है। (i) आप उसके टीकाकरण की योजना किस प्रकार तैयार करेंगे ? ऐसे कौन-से टीके हैं जो इस बालिका को लगाए जाने चाहिए और उन्हें देने का क्या क्रम (शेड्यूल) होना चाहिए ? (ii) टीकाकरण (प्रतिरक्षण) के पश्चात् कौन-कौन सी प्रतिकूल घटनाएँ घट सकती हैं, उनका वर्णन कीजिए। (iii) टीकाकरण के पश्चात् हुई तीव्र एनाफिलेक्सिस की रोगलाक्षणिक अभिव्यक्तियों तथा उसके प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) डायबिटीज (मधुमेह) मेलिटस की सूक्ष्मवाहिकीय जटिलताओं के प्रबंधन की संक्षेप में चर्चा कीजिए। (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) A 45-year-old hepatitis-C positive patient with icterus, oliguria, abdominal distension and blood in stools - decompensated HCV cirrhosis with jaundice, ascites, variceal gastrointestinal bleeding and acute kidney injury/hepatorenal syndrome. 'Discuss the investigations and management' requires a full diagnostic work-up including a diagnostic ascitic tap and urgent endoscopy, severity scoring, and then a systematic management of EACH decompensation plus antiviral therapy and transplant assessment. (b) Three sub-parts on a 12-year-old girl unimmunised since the age of 1 who wants catch-up vaccination: (i) draw her catch-up plan naming the vaccines and their schedules, (ii) describe the possible adverse events following immunization, and (iii) discuss the clinical manifestations and management of post-vaccination anaphylaxis. Each sub-part carries marks and must be answered. (c) 'Briefly discuss the management of the microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus' asks for the treatment (not merely the pathogenesis) of the three microvascular complications - retinopathy, nephropathy and neuropathy, with the diabetic foot - together with the risk-factor control common to all of them, and with screening intervals.

  • Diagnosis of decompensated HCV cirrhosis with variceal bleed, ascites and hepatorenal syndrome or AKI
  • Investigations: blood count, INR, liver and kidney tests, HCV RNA, diagnostic ascitic tap (PMN 250 and above for SBP, SAAG), ultrasound with Doppler, endoscopy within 12 hours, Child-Pugh and MELD
  • Variceal bleed: vasoactive drug, antibiotic prophylaxis, restrictive transfusion, band ligation, TIPS or balloon tamponade
  • Ascites, SBP and HRS: albumin, terlipressin, stopping diuretics; lactulose for encephalopathy; DAAs after stabilisation and transplant evaluation
  • Catch-up principles: check records, count doses, do not restart, minimum intervals, live vaccines same day or 4 weeks apart
  • Vaccines and schedule: Tdap, MMR two doses, varicella two doses, HPV two doses 6 months apart, typhoid conjugate, hepatitis A and B, IPV, influenza
  • AEFI classification: vaccine product-related, quality defect, immunisation error, anxiety-related, coincidental, with examples of minor and serious events
  • Anaphylaxis: skin, respiratory, circulatory features; adrenaline 0.01 mg/kg IM thigh, oxygen, fluids, adjuncts, observation and reporting
  • Common measures: glycaemic, blood pressure and lipid control, smoking cessation, screening intervals
  • Retinopathy: panretinal laser, intravitreal anti-VEGF for macular oedema, vitrectomy
  • Nephropathy: ACE inhibitor or ARB, SGLT2 inhibitor, finerenone, GLP-1 agonist, avoidance of nephrotoxins, nephrologist referral
  • Neuropathy and foot: pregabalin, duloxetine or amitriptyline, autonomic symptom therapy, foot care, off-loading and antibiotics for ulcers

B

Q5
50M Compulsory enumerate

(a) Enumerate the causes of lower gastrointestinal bleeding in an adult. Discuss the management of actively bleeding haemorrhoids. (10 marks) (b) Briefly discuss the life cycle of the hydatid cyst. How will you manage a large hydatid cyst of the liver ? (10 marks) (c) (i) Discuss the differences between 'abruptio placentae' and 'placenta praevia'. (ii) Outline the management of a 30-year-old G3P2L2 woman at 36 weeks of gestation with bleeding per vaginum due to abruptio placentae along with absent foetal heart sounds. (10 marks) (d) (i) Briefly discuss the differential diagnosis of "primary amenorrhea". (ii) How do you manage a 15-year-old girl presenting with abdominal pain and primary amenorrhea due to an imperforate hymen ? (10 marks) (e) In the context of treatment and disposal technologies for healthcare waste, comment upon the following : (i) The ‘Process of Inertization’ with its advantages and disadvantages (ii) Wet and dry thermal treatment (10 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) किसी वयस्क में अध: जठरांत्र रक्तस्रावण के कारणों को गिनाइए। अर्श, जिससे सक्रिय रक्तस्रावण हो रहा है, उसके प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (10 अंक) (b) हाइडेटिड पुटी के जीवन चक्र की संक्षेप में चर्चा कीजिए। यकृत् में उपस्थित बृहत् हाइडेटिड पुटी का प्रबंधन आप कैसे करेंगे ? (10 अंक) (c) (i) 'अपरा-पृथक्भवन' तथा 'सम्मुखी अपरा' के बीच की भिन्नताओं की चर्चा कीजिए। (ii) एक 30-वर्षीय महिला G3P2L2, जो सगर्भता के 36वें सप्ताह में है, अपरा-पृथक्भवन के कारण योनि से हो रहे रक्तस्राव के साथ प्रस्तुत होती है। उसके गर्भ की हृद् ध्वनियाँ अनुपस्थित हैं। इस महिला के प्रबंधन की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (10 अंक) (d) (i) "प्राथमिक अनार्तव" के विभेदक निदानों की संक्षेप में चर्चा कीजिए। (ii) एक 15-वर्षीय बालिका, जिसे अछिद्री योनिच्छद होने के कारण उदरीय वेदना हो रही है तथा प्राथमिक अनार्तव है, उसका प्रबंधन आप कैसे करेंगे ? (10 अंक) (e) स्वास्थ्य सेवा उच्छिष्ट की उपचार तथा निस्तारण प्रौद्योगिकियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित पर टिप्पणी कीजिए : (i) ‘निष्क्रियकरण की प्रक्रिया’ तथा उसके लाभ व हानियाँ (ii) आर्द्र तथा शुष्क ताप उपचार (10 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Two directives. 'Enumerate' requires a listed, reasonably complete set of causes of lower gastrointestinal bleeding in an adult - a list, not a discussion. 'Discuss the management of actively bleeding haemorrhoids' then requires resuscitation, confirmation of the source, grading, and the graded ladder of conservative, office-based and operative treatment. (b) Two parts. 'Briefly discuss the life cycle of the hydatid cyst' requires the Echinococcus granulosus cycle naming the definitive host, the intermediate host and man's dead-end role, with the route of dissemination. 'How will you manage a large hydatid cyst of the liver' requires the full therapeutic ladder - peri-interventional albendazole, PAIR, surgery with its precautions - with an indication of which is chosen for a LARGE cyst. (c) Two parts. (i) A point-by-point comparison of abruptio placentae with placenta praevia. (ii) The management of a specific case - 30-year-old G3P2L2 at 36 weeks with vaginal bleeding from abruption and ABSENT foetal heart sounds, i.e. a severe (Page Grade 3) abruption with intrauterine foetal death, where the plan must centre on maternal resuscitation, coagulopathy and prompt vaginal delivery. (d) Two parts. (i) A brief differential diagnosis of primary amenorrhoea, which is best organised by the presence or absence of breast development and of the uterus. (ii) The management of a 15-year-old presenting with abdominal pain and primary amenorrhoea due to an imperforate hymen, i.e. the diagnosis of cryptomenorrhoea with haematocolpos and its surgical correction. (e) 'Comment upon' two named healthcare-waste treatment and disposal technologies: (i) the process of inertization, with its advantages AND disadvantages explicitly required, and (ii) wet and dry thermal treatment - both, described and contrasted. The answer must be technical and specific (materials, proportions, temperatures, times), not generic waste-management prose.

  • Causes: haemorrhoids, fissure, diverticular disease, colorectal cancer and polyps, angiodysplasia, colitis, Meckel's diverticulum
  • Assessment and resuscitation; proctoscopy and colonoscopy to exclude other lesions
  • Goligher grading with conservative measures: fibre, laxatives, flavonoids
  • Rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, haemorrhoidectomy, stapled or Doppler-guided procedures, and suture ligation for active bleeding
  • Life cycle: Echinococcus granulosus, dog as definitive host, sheep as intermediate host, man as accidental dead-end host, egg ingestion
  • Cyst spread by portal vein to the liver (60–70%) and lungs; structure of pericyst, ectocyst and germinal layer
  • Albendazole 10–15 mg/kg/day before and after any intervention
  • Surgery for large cyst with scolicidal precautions, or PAIR for selected cysts, with anaphylaxis precautions
  • Differences: painful concealed versus painless revealed bleeding, hard tender versus soft uterus, foetal state, risk factors, DIC
  • Resuscitation with blood and coagulation factors and monitoring of urine output
  • Prompt vaginal delivery with amniotomy and oxytocin; caesarean only for maternal indication
  • Prevention and treatment of postpartum haemorrhage, anti-D, and counselling
  • Differential organised by breasts and uterus: outflow obstruction, Turner syndrome, MRKH, androgen insensitivity, hypothalamic and pituitary causes
  • Diagnosis of cryptomenorrhoea with haematocolpos: bulging bluish hymen, suprapubic mass, ultrasound
  • Hymenotomy with a cruciate incision and drainage under anaesthesia
  • Avoid needle aspiration; excise flaps and suture edges; follow-up and exclusion of transverse vaginal septum
  • Inertization: mixing with cement, lime and water (about 65:15:15:5) to solid blocks for pharmaceutical waste and ash
  • Advantages and disadvantages of inertization stated
  • Wet thermal: steam autoclave at 121 °C, 15 psi, 60 minutes (or 135 °C, 31 psi, 45 minutes), microwave and hydroclave, followed by shredding
  • Dry thermal: incineration at 800 and 1050 °C, plasma pyrolysis and dry-heat sterilisation, with merits and demerits
Q6
50M enumerate

(a) (i) Describe the causes of occipito-posterior position and different modes of delivery in the occipito-posterior position. (ii) Define ‘Deep Transverse Arrest’ and enumerate the maternal and foetal complications associated with it. (20 marks) (b) Describe the clinical features, investigations and treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease in a 40-year-old male. (15 marks) (c) In the context of HIV/AIDS Control and the National AIDS Control Programme in India, answer the following questions : (i) Define Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP). (ii) How will you establish eligibility for Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) based on exposure and HIV source codes ? (iii) What are the Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) drug regimens for healthcare personnel ? (15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) पश्चकपाल-पश्च स्थिति के कारणों तथा पश्चकपाल-पश्च स्थिति में प्रसव हेतु अपनाई जाने वाली विभिन्न प्रणालियों का वर्णन कीजिए। (ii) ‘गहन अनुप्रस्थ संरोध’ को परिभाषित कीजिए तथा उससे सम्बन्धित मातृ तथा गर्भ जटिलताओं को गिनाइए। (20 अंक) (b) एक 40-वर्षीय पुरुष में जठर-ग्रासनली प्रतिवाह रोग की रोगलाक्षणिक विशिष्टताओं, जाँच-परीक्षणों एवं उपचार का वर्णन कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) एचआईवी/एड्स नियंत्रण तथा भारत के राष्ट्रीय एड्स (AIDS) नियंत्रण कार्यक्रम के सदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए : (i) अनावरणोत्तर (पोस्ट-एक्सपोजर) रोगनिरोध (PEP) को परिभाषित कीजिए। (ii) अनावरण तथा एचआईवी स्रोत कोडों के आधार पर अनावरणोत्तर रोगनिरोध (PEP) की पात्रता आप कैसे स्थापित करेंगे ? (iii) स्वास्थ्य सेवा कार्मिकों के अनावरणोत्तर रोगनिरोध (PEP) हेतु कौन-कौन से औषधीय विधान हैं ? (15 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Two parts. (i) Describe the CAUSES of occipito-posterior position AND the different MODES OF DELIVERY in that position - both the natural mechanisms (long anterior rotation, short posterior rotation/face-to-pubis, non-rotation) and the operative options. (ii) DEFINE deep transverse arrest precisely and ENUMERATE its maternal and foetal complications - both sets are required. (b) Three clearly signalled components for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease in a 40-year-old man: the CLINICAL FEATURES (typical, atypical and alarm), the INVESTIGATIONS (endoscopy with its grading, pH/impedance monitoring, manometry) and the TREATMENT (lifestyle, drugs, endoscopic and surgical). All three must be covered in proportion. (c) Three explicit sub-parts set in the context of the National AIDS Control Programme: (i) define post-exposure prophylaxis, (ii) establish ELIGIBILITY using the exposure code and the HIV source (status) code, which requires the actual coding system to be reproduced, and (iii) give the PEP drug regimens for healthcare personnel. Part (ii) carries the most weight because it asks for a specific algorithm.

  • Causes: android or anthropoid pelvis, deflexed head, anterior placenta, pendulous abdomen, epidural
  • Modes: long anterior rotation (135°, about 90%), short posterior rotation with face-to-pubis delivery, and non-rotation
  • Operative options: manual rotation, Kielland's forceps, ventouse, direct forceps with episiotomy, caesarean section
  • Definition of deep transverse arrest at the ischial spines with the sagittal suture transverse, with maternal (prolonged labour, sepsis, PPH, tears, fistula) and foetal (hypoxia, injury, death) complications
  • Clinical features: heartburn, regurgitation, atypical symptoms, alarm features, complications
  • Investigations: PPI trial, endoscopy with Los Angeles grading, 24-hour pH or impedance monitoring, manometry
  • Treatment: lifestyle, PPI with doses, H2 blockers, prokinetics
  • Endoscopic and surgical treatment: fundoplication with indications; Barrett's surveillance
  • Definition: comprehensive management including antiretroviral drugs after potential exposure, started within 72 hours for 28 days
  • Exposure codes EC 1, 2, 3 defined by site, volume and severity
  • HIV source codes SC 1, SC 2 and unknown; decision by combination (PEP recommended or not warranted; HIV-negative source needs none)
  • Regimens: TDF + 3TC + DTG for 28 days as the current preferred regimen, as the single three-drug regimen replacing the older basic and expanded regimens; first aid and follow-up testing
Q7
50M describe

(a) Describe the various complications of acute pancreatitis. Discuss the role of surgery in acute pancreatitis. (20 marks) (b) Under the National Rural Health Mission, explain the concept of Comprehensive Primary Health Care and outline the key strategic areas essential for its effective operationalization. (15 marks) (c) (i) Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, diagnosis and management of Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS). (ii) Write briefly on the ovulation induction protocol in a Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) patient. (15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) तीव्र अग्न्याशयशोथ के विभिन्न जटिलताओं का वर्णन कीजिए। तीव्र अग्न्याशयशोथ में सर्जरी की भूमिका की चर्चा कीजिए। (20 अंक) (b) राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण स्वास्थ्य मिशन के अंतर्गत, व्यापक प्राथमिक स्वास्थ्य देखभाल के सिद्धांत की व्याख्या कीजिए तथा उसके प्रभावी परिचालन हेतु अनिवार्य मुख्य रणनीतिक क्षेत्रों की रूपरेखा प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) (i) बहुपुटी डिम्बग्रंथि संलक्षण (PCOS) के हेतुकीविकृतिजनन, निदान तथा प्रबंधन की चर्चा कीजिए। (ii) बहुपुटी डिम्बग्रंथि संलक्षण (PCOS) के रोगी में डिम्बक्षरण प्रेरण प्रोटोकॉल के विषय में संक्षेप में लिखिए। (15 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Two directives. 'Describe the various complications of acute pancreatitis' requires the Revised Atlanta framework of local (fluid collections and necrosis) and systemic complications with their time course. 'Discuss the role of surgery' requires a reasoned account of WHEN and HOW to operate - the principle of delay, infected necrosis as the main indication, the step-up approach, and the management of gallstone disease and pseudocysts. (b) Two directives. 'Explain the concept of Comprehensive Primary Health Care' requires the shift from selective to comprehensive primary care, its principles and its expanded service package. 'Outline the key strategic areas essential for its effective operationalization' requires the named implementation pillars - human resources, service package, drugs and diagnostics, infrastructure, community mobilisation, referral continuum, IT, financing and quality assurance. (c) Two parts. (i) Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, the diagnosis (which means the Rotterdam criteria with their thresholds and the exclusions) and the general management of polycystic ovarian syndrome. (ii) Write briefly but specifically on the ovulation induction protocol in PCOS, i.e. the stepwise first-, second- and third-line treatments with drugs and doses.

  • Local complications by Revised Atlanta: acute fluid collection, acute necrotic collection, pseudocyst, walled-off necrosis, infected necrosis, vascular and other complications
  • Systemic complications: organ failure (transient versus persistent), sepsis, DIC, hypocalcaemia, compartment syndrome
  • Principle of delay with conservative treatment of sterile necrosis; ERCP and cholecystectomy timing in gallstone pancreatitis
  • Step-up approach for infected necrosis (drainage then minimally invasive necrosectomy); pseudocyst drainage; surgery for compartment syndrome and haemorrhage
  • Concept: shift from selective to comprehensive, universal, free, continuous care near the community; Health and Wellness Centres
  • Expanded package of 12 services including NCD screening, mental health, oral health, elderly and palliative care
  • Strategic areas: human resources (Community Health Officer, team incentives), drugs and diagnostics, infrastructure
  • Community mobilisation, referral continuum, IT (e-Sanjeevani, ABDM), financing and quality assurance (NQAS)
  • Aetiopathogenesis: insulin resistance and hyperinsulinaemia, raised LH and androgens, low SHBG, anovulation
  • Rotterdam criteria: two of oligo-anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries (20 follicles or volume above 10 mL) after exclusion of other causes
  • General management: lifestyle, combined pill, anti-androgens, metformin, endometrial protection, screening
  • Ovulation induction: letrozole 2.5–7.5 mg days 3–7 (or clomiphene 50–150 mg), then gonadotropins or ovarian drilling, then IVF; monitoring and hCG trigger
Q8
50M explain

(a) (i) What are the main objectives and key strategies of the National Strategic Plan (NSP) for Tuberculosis Elimination in India ? (ii) Explain the significance of the “Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan” (PMTBMBA) in eliminating tuberculosis. (20 marks) (b) (i) Discuss the indications and methods of second-trimester termination of pregnancy. (ii) Describe the medico-legal issues of mid-trimester medical termination of pregnancy in modern practice. (15 marks) (c) (i) Describe the aetiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon. (ii) Briefly mention the management of carcinoma of descending colon in a 65-year-old male who has presented with intestinal obstruction. (15 marks)

हिंदी में पढ़ें

(a) (i) भारत में ट्यूबरकुलोसिस उन्मूलन की राष्ट्रीय रणनीतिक योजना (NSP) के मुख्य लक्ष्य तथा मुख्य रणनीतियाँ क्या हैं ? (ii) ट्यूबरकुलोसिस उन्मूलन में “प्रधान मंत्री टीबी मुक्त भारत अभियान” (PMTBMBA) के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए। (20 अंक) (b) (i) द्वितीय-त्रिमास गर्भ समापन के संकेतों तथा विधियों की चर्चा कीजिए। (ii) आधुनिक प्रैक्टिस में मध्य-त्रिमास में चिकित्सीय गर्भ समापन के मेडिको-लीगल मुद्दों का वर्णन कीजिए। (15 अंक) (c) (i) बृहदांत्र कार्सिनोमा के हेतुकीविकृतिजनन का वर्णन कीजिए। (ii) एक 65-वर्षीय पुरुष जो आंत्र अवरोध के साथ प्रस्तुत हुआ है, उसमें अवरोही बृहदांत्र कार्सिनोमा के प्रबंधन को संक्षेप में उल्लिखित कीजिए। (15 अंक)

Answer approach & key points

(a) Two parts. (i) The main objectives (goal, targets and timeline) AND the key strategies of the National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination in India - the four strategic pillars must be named and described. (ii) Explain the SIGNIFICANCE of the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, i.e. what it does, why nutrition and community adoption matter, and how it helps achieve elimination. (b) Two parts. (i) The indications AND the methods of second-trimester termination of pregnancy - the legal grounds and gestational limits under the MTP Act as amended in 2021, the clinical indications, and the medical and surgical techniques with drugs and doses. (ii) The medico-legal issues of mid-trimester MTP in modern practice - consent, provider and place, confidentiality, POCSO, PCPNDT, the Medical Board and the problem of live birth. (c) Two parts. (i) Describe the aetiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon - risk factors, hereditary syndromes and the molecular pathways including the adenoma-carcinoma sequence. (ii) Briefly outline the management of a carcinoma of the DESCENDING (left) colon presenting with INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION in a 65-year-old man, which requires resuscitation, staging, and a reasoned choice between Hartmann's procedure, primary resection with anastomosis, subtotal colectomy and a self-expanding metallic stent as a bridge to surgery.

  • Goal of ending TB by 2025 with targets of incidence 44, prevalence 65 and mortality 3 per lakh, and zero catastrophic costs
  • Four pillars Detect, Treat, Prevent, Build, each described with specifics (private-sector notification, universal DST, daily FDC, TPT, Nikshay)
  • PMTBMBA: launched 2022, Ni-kshay Mitra community adoption with nutritional, diagnostic and vocational support
  • Significance: undernutrition as risk factor (RATIONS), community ownership, adherence, reduced catastrophic costs, contribution to elimination
  • Legal grounds and gestational limits under MTP Act 2021: 20 weeks one RMP, 20–24 weeks two RMPs for special categories, Medical Board beyond 24 weeks for foetal abnormality
  • Clinical indications: foetal anomaly, maternal disease, rape and minors
  • Methods with doses: mifepristone 200 mg then misoprostol 400 µg 3-hourly, D&E with cervical priming, feticide beyond 22 weeks
  • Medico-legal: woman's own consent, approved facility and trained RMP, confidentiality (section 5A), POCSO reporting, PCPNDT, live birth and illegal abortion under the BNS
  • Risk factors: age, diet, obesity, polyps, ulcerative colitis, family history
  • Hereditary syndromes FAP (APC) and Lynch (mismatch-repair genes)
  • Molecular pathways: adenoma-carcinoma sequence (APC, KRAS, SMAD4, TP53), microsatellite instability, serrated (BRAF, CIMP)
  • Management: resuscitation and CT, and choice among stent as bridge to surgery, Hartmann's, primary anastomosis and subtotal colectomy, with oncological principles and adjuvant chemotherapy

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