What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. GOBARdhan Scheme Launched for Compressed Biogas Sector
The Union Cabinet approved a ₹23,731 crore ten-year scheme to boost domestic Compressed Biogas production by ten-fold, aiming to reduce gas imports and create rural employment.
Approved on 6 August 2026 with an outlay of ₹23,731 crore for the period FY 2026–27 to FY 2035–36.
Targets a ten-fold increase in domestic CBG production to approximately 5 MMSCMD (Million Standard Cubic Meters per Day).
Introduces an administered CBG price of ₹2,110 per MMBtu to provide revenue certainty to producers.
Mandates City Gas Distribution (CGD) entities to procure 3% CBG in FY 2026–27, rising to 5% from FY 2028–29 onwards.
Offers capital assistance of up to ₹2 crore per TPD for greenfield projects and credit guarantees covering up to 85% of outstanding amounts for MSMEs.
Key terms
Compressed Biogas (CBG)
— Clean domestic energy produced by converting crop residue, cattle dung, and other organic resources, also generating organic manure.
City Gas Distribution (CGD)
— Entities responsible for distributing natural gas to end-users, which are mandated to procure a specific percentage of CBG under the new obligation scheme.
MMSCMD
— Million Standard Cubic Meters per Day, the unit used to measure the targeted increase in domestic CBG production.
2. PM E-DRIVE Scheme: Accelerating India's Electric Mobility Transition
The PM E-DRIVE scheme, with a ₹11,900 crore outlay extended to March 2028, is driving EV adoption through purchase incentives and infrastructure development.
5. Supreme Court flags drug pricing disparities and hospital markups
The Supreme Court criticized the practice of pharmaceutical companies inflating Maximum Retail Prices (MRP) to offer hospitals high margins, leading to excessive patient costs for essential drugs like cancer treatments.
6. Strengthening SC/ST Atrocities Act Implementation via Special Courts
The Centre has intensified support for state-level enforcement of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, by funding special courts, victim rehabilitation, and grievance redressal mechanisms to ensure speedy justice.
217 Exclusive Special Courts have been established across 15 states and UTs specifically for trying cases under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
The Central Government released a total of ₹1,423.30 crore over three years (2022–23 to 2024–25) under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme to assist states in implementation.
Approximately 267,000 victims received financial relief and rehabilitation assistance from the scheme between 2022 and 2024.
The National Helpline Against Atrocities, launched in December 2021, was renamed SAMBAL to provide an accessible toll-free mechanism for registering grievances.
Incentives for inter-caste marriages involving Scheduled Castes increased significantly, rising from 14,225 couples in 2022-23 to 26,050 in 2024-25.
Key terms
SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
— A central legislation aimed at preventing and punishing offenses committed against members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Exclusive Special Courts
— Dedicated judicial bodies established to try specific types of offenses, such as those under the SC/ST Act, to ensure faster disposal of cases.
Centrally Sponsored Scheme
— A type of government funding where the Centre provides financial assistance to States and UTs for implementing specific national policies or programs.
7. WhatsApp Circulation of SC/ST Video Deemed Public View
The Bombay High Court ruled that sharing videos of SC/ST individuals on WhatsApp constitutes 'public view' under the Atrocities Act, dismissing a bail plea.
8. Govt warns trade deals undermining multilateralism may hit growth
Finance Ministry economists caution that bilateral/regional trade deals replacing the WTO system could increase costs and reduce global exports, citing WTO projections.
9. GST revenue hits ₹2.03 lakh crore in September 2026
Gross GST collections grew by 14.7% year-on-year, but the share of revenue from domestic transactions dropped to an all-time low as import-derived tax surged.
10. Green Energy Corridor Phase III: Transmission and Storage Push
India approved the Rs 1.86 lakh crore Green Energy Corridor Phase III to build transmission lines and battery storage, addressing renewable energy evacuation bottlenecks.
11. DBN signs agreement for Amended BharatNet in Maharashtra
Digital Bharat Nidhi and the Government of Maharashtra signed an agreement to implement the Amended BharatNet Program, aiming to upgrade rural broadband infrastructure and provide last-mile connectivity across the state.
Government tightened dealer stock limits to 1,000 quintals for 15 days to curb hoarding and ensure affordable sugar availability during the festive season.
14. National Workshop on PC&PNDT Act Implementation
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare convened a national workshop to enhance digital governance, regulatory compliance, and enforcement of the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994.
The workshop involved representatives from all 36 States and Union Territories, along with officials from the Ministry of Home Affairs' Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Report 2024, India's Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) improved by 20 points, rising from 898 females per 1,000 males in 2014–16 to 918 in 2022–24.
A dedicated session focused on Section 22 of the PC&PNDT Act, addressing the role of states in identifying and restricting prohibited online content related to sex selection.
Discussions emphasized the use of the Sahyog Portal and coordination with digital intermediaries to combat online violations and misuse of technology for gender discrimination.
Live demonstrations from Telangana and Gujarat showcased replicable models for integrating digital modules into state-level PC&PNDT portals to improve regulatory oversight.
Key terms
PC&PNDT Act, 1994
— Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, a law prohibiting the use of prenatal diagnostic techniques for sex selection.
Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB)
— A demographic indicator measuring the number of female births per 1,000 male births, used to assess gender bias in birth outcomes.
Sahyog Portal
— A digital platform utilized for coordinating efforts to address online violations and prevent the misuse of technology for activities prohibited under the PC&PNDT Act.
15. Indore water crisis probe cites systemic infrastructure failure
A judicial commission attributed the preventable deaths in Indore to decades of institutional negligence, specifically the failure to maintain safe clearances between aging sewage and water pipelines.
16. Supreme Court Criticizes Medicine Pricing as 'Daylight Dacoity'
The Supreme Court questioned the massive markup between retail prices and MRP for essential medicines, urging stricter enforcement of price controls under the DPCO.
17. SC quashes NSA detention in Sambhal case, bars police confession use
The Supreme Court quashed the preventive detention of a Sambhal violence accused, ruling that police confessions and undisclosed evidence cannot legally sustain detention under the National Security Act.
Supreme Court bench of Justices Dipankar Datta and Sheel Nagu quashed the NSA detention of Mulla Afroz on September 29.
The Court imposed costs of Rs 10 lakh on the UP government for relying on legally inadmissible material.
The Court held that a confession made to a police officer is presumed tainted and cannot independently justify preventive detention.
The detention order was found to rely on undisclosed CCTV footage and a confession allegedly extracted through torture.
The Court noted that Afroz was kept in custody despite securing bail in all six associated criminal cases.
Key terms
National Security Act (NSA), 1980
— A law permitting preventive detention without trial if the state is satisfied that detention is necessary to prevent acts prejudicial to state security or public order.
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023
— The new evidence law replacing the Indian Evidence Act, which bars the admissibility of confessions made to police officers.
Article 22(5)
— A constitutional provision guaranteeing a detenu the right to be informed of the grounds of detention and to make an effective representation against them.
18. India flags connectivity and trade at SCO meeting in Islamabad
An Indian delegation led by Alok Dimri participated in the SCO National Coordinators' Meeting in Islamabad, emphasizing regional connectivity, transit, and trade amidst Pakistan's presidency.
Alok Dimri, India’s National Coordinator for SCO and Additional Secretary (MEA), led the delegation to the SCO National Coordinators’ Meeting in Islamabad.
This marks the first Indian official visit to Pakistan since Operation Sindoor and the second high-level engagement under the SCO format recently.
Key agenda items included regional connectivity, transit routes, and trade facilitation, addressing issues previously blocked by Pakistan regarding access to Central Asia.
English was adopted as the third official language of the SCO during the Bishkek summit, alongside Russian and Chinese.
Pakistan’s chairmanship theme is 'Turning Vision into Action: Connectivity, Innovation, and Shared Prosperity', guided by the 'Shanghai Spirit'.
Key terms
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
— A permanent intergovernmental international organization founded in 2001, focusing on political, economic, and security cooperation across Eurasia.
National Coordinators’ Meeting
— A preparatory meeting held before major SCO summits where senior officials from member states coordinate agendas and logistics.
Shanghai Spirit
— The guiding principle of the SCO emphasizing mutual trust, mutual benefit, equality, consultation, respect for diversity, and pursuit of common development.
19. MP pauses community forest rights directive after Union intervention
Madhya Pradesh suspended a forest department order that bypassed Gram Sabhas in receiving Forest Rights Act claims, following legal objections from a Union Minister and state task force members.
The Madhya Pradesh Forest Department placed an August 6, 2024, directive in abeyance on September 30, 2024.
The original order instructed forest officers to receive Community Forest Resource (CFR) claims, violating the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
Under the FRA, the Gram Sabha is the sole competent authority to receive, verify, and consolidate forest rights claims.
Union Minister of State for Tribal Affairs Durgadas Uikey intervened, citing that the directive was not in consonance with FRA provisions.
The directive was criticized for narrowing the scope of claimable areas and ignoring the statutory role of village assemblies.
Key terms
Community Forest Resource (CFR)
— Customary community forest land within traditional boundaries, including reserved forests and protected areas, to which communities have traditional access.
Gram Sabha
— The village assembly that acts as the competent authority to initiate, receive, verify, and pass resolutions on forest rights claims under the FRA.
Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006
— Central legislation recognizing and vesting forest rights in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
30-year US Treasury yield reached its highest level in approximately 25 years.
US annual interest payments ballooned from ~$600 billion pre-pandemic to $1.2 trillion in 2025.
Total US government debt has exceeded $40 trillion due to persistent budget deficits.
Bond yields rise inversely to bond prices in the secondary market as investors demand higher returns against inflation.
Key terms
Bond Yield
— The return an investor realizes on a bond if held until maturity, calculated based on the bond's current market price and coupon rate.
Coupon
— The fixed interest payment that the bond issuer promises to pay the bondholder at regular intervals.
Secondary Market
— The financial market where previously issued securities, such as bonds, are traded among investors rather than being bought directly from the issuer.
Consider the following statements regarding the political developments in Jammu and Kashmir mentioned in the context of the 2024 Assembly elections and subsequent resolutions:
1. The 2024 elections recorded a voter turnout of approximately 63.88%.
2. Chief Minister Omar Abdullah moved a resolution demanding immediate restoration of full Statehood, which was supported by all members of the 90-member House.
3. The resolution referenced past demands including the greater autonomy resolution of June 26, 2000.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text cites the 2024 voting percentage as 63.88%.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states that 'Other than the 29 BJP legislators', the members broadly supported the resolution. Therefore, it was not supported by all members.
Statement 3 is correct: The text explicitly mentions the resolution cited the greater autonomy resolution of June 26, 2000.
a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct, making 'Only one' inaccurate.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the BJP legislators (29 members) did not support the resolution.
d Statements 1 and 3 are clearly supported by the text.
Consider the following statements regarding the financial assistance provided under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the implementation of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989:
1. The Centre released ₹495.29 crore to States and Union Territories in the financial year 2024–25.
2. Financial assistance under the scheme is exclusively provided for the establishment of Exclusive Special Courts.
3. The total amount released over the three financial years from 2022–23 to 2024–25 amounted to ₹1,423.30 crore.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states that the Centre released ₹495.29 crore in 2024–25.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme provides assistance for multiple purposes including strengthening Protection Cells, judicial machinery, relief and rehabilitation, incentives for inter-caste marriages, and awareness generation, not exclusively for establishing Special Courts.
Statement 3 is correct: The text confirms that the total amount released over the three financial years (2022–23 to 2024–25) amounted to ₹1,423.30 crore.
a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct, so 'Only one' is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme's assistance is not exclusively for establishing Special Courts; it covers multiple areas.
d Statements 1 and 3 are correct, so 'None' is incorrect.
With reference to the procurement and financial outlays for Rabi crops, consider the following pairs:
| Crop/Category | Period 2014-15 to 2025-26 | Period 2004-05 to 2013-14 |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 1. Wheat Procurement | 3,715 LMT | 2,254 LMT |
| 2. Six Rabi Crops Procurement | 3,921 LMT | 2,302 LMT |
| 3. MSP Paid to Wheat Farmers | ₹7.31 lakh crore | ₹2.56 lakh crore |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched according to the government data provided?
Answer: (a)
Pair 1 is correct: The text states wheat procurement increased to 3,715 LMT in the later period compared to 2,254 LMT in the earlier period.
Pair 2 is correct: The text states procurement of six Rabi crops increased to 3,921 LMT in the later period compared to 2,302 LMT in the earlier period.
Pair 3 is correct: The text states MSP paid to wheat-growing farmers increased to ₹7.31 lakh crore in the later period compared to ₹2.56 lakh crore in the earlier period.
b All three pairs are correctly matched, not none.
c All three pairs are correctly matched as per the source text.
d All three pairs are correctly matched, not just two.
Consider the following statements regarding the financial and operational scope of the Amended BharatNet Program in Maharashtra:
1. The Government of India has approved financial support of ₹10,520 crore for the implementation of the Program in Maharashtra.
2. The total scope of the Program in the state includes the upgradation of over 15,000 Phase I Gram Panchayats and the coverage of nearly 13,000 Phase II Gram Panchayats.
3. The initiative is expected to facilitate more than nine lakh rural home fibre connections with financial support from the Government of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states the Government of India approved financial support of ₹10,520 crore for the Program in Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is correct: The scope includes upgradation of 15,171 Phase I Gram Panchayats (over 15,000) and coverage of 12,740 Phase II Gram Panchayats (nearly 13,000).
Statement 3 is correct: The release notes the initiative is expected to facilitate more than nine lakh rural home fibre connections.
a All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
b All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
d All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
With reference to the impact of rising US Treasury yields on the US federal budget, consider the following statements:
1. Rising yields force the US government to match higher rates when refinancing maturing debt or issuing new bonds.
2. Increased interest payments due to high yields have led to a reduction in the total annual outgo towards interest from pre-pandemic levels.
3. A larger portion of the budget spent on interest payments leaves less fiscal space for priorities like social security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text notes that if yields on existing bonds rise, the government must match them when borrowing again to meet expenditure or repay old debt.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text explicitly states that total annual outgo towards interest payments has ballooned from around $600 billion before the pandemic to $1.2 trillion in 2025, not reduced.
Statement 3 is correct: The text explains that higher interest costs leave 'less money available for other priorities — say providing social security.'
a Statements 1 and 3 are also correct.
c Statement 2 is factually opposite to the source text.
Consider the following statements regarding the procedural mechanism for determining forest rights under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006:
1. The Gram Sabha initiates the process by receiving claims, consolidating them, verifying them, preparing a map, and passing a resolution.
2. The resolution passed by the Gram Sabha is directly referred to the District Level Committee for final approval.
3. The Sub-Divisional Level Committee acts as an intermediate body between the Gram Sabha and the District Level Committee.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text details that the Gram Sabha initiates the process, receives claims, consolidates and verifies them, prepares a map, and passes a resolution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states the resolution is referred to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee first, and subsequently to the District Level Committee. It is not referred directly to the District Level Committee.
Statement 3 is correct: The sequence described in the text confirms the Sub-Divisional Level Committee's role before the matter reaches the District Level Committee.
a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct, making 'Only one' inaccurate.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because it skips the mandatory referral to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Judicial Commission on the Bhagirathpura water crisis in Indore:
1. The Commission linked all reported deaths during the period to the water contamination incident based on hospital records.
2. The report cited the non-production of historical records related to sewage and water pipeline projects from the 1990s and early 2000s as evidence of gross administrative negligence.
3. The Madhya Pradesh Pollution Control Board's testing confirmed that a majority of water samples were contaminated with E. Coli.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The report linked only 22 deaths to the tragedy citing hospital records, despite more than 30 lives being claimed overall.
Statement 2 is correct: The report flagged the failure of IMC and IDA to produce records for projects between 1990-1995 and 1999-2004, terming it 'gross failure and administrative negligence'.
Statement 3 is correct: Of 52 samples tested by MPPCB, 40 were positive for E. Coli, confirming bacterial contamination.
a Statements 2 and 3 are both correct.
c Statement 1 is incorrect because not all deaths were linked; only 22 were officially attributed in the report.
With reference to the GOBARdhan Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
2. The procurement obligation for Compressed Biogas (CBG) rests with City Gas Distribution (CGD) entities under the CBG Obligation framework.
3. The scheme provides capital assistance exclusively for greenfield projects and does not support pipeline infrastructure development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text identifies GOBARdhan as a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the CBG Obligation (CBO), the obligation to procure CBG rests with City Gas Distribution (CGD) entities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme explicitly includes 'Development of Pipeline Infrastructure' as one of its six key interventions, providing up to 80% support for eligible capital expenditure on pipelines.
a Statement 3 is incorrect because pipeline infrastructure is supported.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because pipeline infrastructure is supported.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because pipeline infrastructure is supported.
With reference to the Bombay High Court's ruling on the circulation of videos via WhatsApp, consider the following statements:
1. The Court held that sending a video to specific family members and relatives via WhatsApp constitutes an act within 'public view' under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
2. The accused was charged under Sections 77 and 78 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in addition to provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
3. The Court granted bail to the appellant because the offence did not involve physical violence against the victim.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Bombay High Court ruled that circulating videos on WhatsApp falls within 'public view', attracting the SC/ST Act.
Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly lists charges under Sections 77 and 78 of BNS 2023, alongside IT Act sections.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Court dismissed the bail plea, noting the appellant had been absconding since the FIR registration.
a Statement 3 is incorrect; the court dismissed the bail plea.
b Statement 3 is incorrect as bail was denied due to absconding.
With reference to the Green Energy Corridor (GEC) Phase III, consider the following statements:
1. It is the first phase of the GEC programme to include a dedicated battery energy storage component.
2. The scheme mandates that all projects, both greenfield and brownfield, be implemented through the Tariff-Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB) route.
3. State transmission utilities serve as the overall implementing agencies for the intra-state transmission systems under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states that 'For the first time, the GEC includes a dedicated battery energy storage component' in Phase III.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text specifies that while greenfield projects use TBCB, 'brownfield upgrades and network-strengthening works will be undertaken on a cost-plus basis (CPB).'
Statement 3 is correct: The release notes that 'State transmission utilities will serve as the overall implementing agencies.'
a Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect due to the distinction between greenfield (TBCB) and brownfield (CPB) implementation modes.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because brownfield projects use the Cost-Plus Basis (CPB), not TBCB.
c Statement 2 is incorrect; the scheme does not mandate TBCB for all projects.
With reference to the PM E-DRIVE Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and provides upfront purchase incentives for various categories of electric vehicles.
2. The incentive amount for registered e-2 Wheelers is reimbursed directly to the buyer by the government after the vehicle purchase.
3. The scheme covers e-Ambulances and e-Trucks in addition to two-wheelers, three-wheelers, and buses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The text identifies the Ministry of Heavy Industries as the implementing body and notes that the scheme supports faster EV adoption through upfront purchase incentives.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states that e-vouchers enable buyers to receive the incentive as an upfront reduction in price, with the amount subsequently reimbursed to the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM), not directly to the buyer.
Statement 3 is correct: The list of covered categories explicitly includes e-Ambulances and e-Trucks alongside e-2Ws, e-3Ws, and e-Buses.
a Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the mechanism of reimbursement.
b Statement 1 is correct, so options excluding it are wrong; Statement 2 is also incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because reimbursement goes to the OEM, not the buyer.
With reference to the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013, and the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), consider the following statements:
1. The NPPA is an autonomous body established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals to fix and revise ceiling prices of scheduled formulations.
2. The ceiling price for a scheduled formulation is calculated by taking the average of the Price to Retailer (PTR) of all brands and generic versions, regardless of their market share.
3. For non-scheduled formulations, manufacturers are free to set the initial MRP, but any subsequent price increase is capped at 10% in 12 months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states NPPA was set up in 1997 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals to fix and revise ceiling prices.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NPPA removes brands or generic formulations that account for less than 1% of total domestic market sales from the calculation before averaging PTRs.
Statement 3 is correct: The text confirms that for non-scheduled medicines, the only restriction is that the MRP cannot be increased by more than 10% in 12 months.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because formulations with less than 1% market share are excluded from the average calculation.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because formulations with less than 1% market share are excluded from the average calculation.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because formulations with less than 1% market share are excluded from the average calculation.
With reference to the G20 Trade Ministers' Meeting held in Milwaukee, consider the following statements:
1. The meeting was hosted under the United States G20 Presidency.
2. The Ministers reached a consensus on the outcome document titled 'G20 Statement on the Weaponization of Food through Coercive Trade Actions'.
3. The United States Trade Representative and the Secretary of State for Business, Innovation, Science and Trade of the United Kingdom were among the officials who attended the welcome dinner hosted at the Milwaukee Art Museum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states the meeting was hosted under the United States G20 Presidency.
Statement 2 is correct: The text confirms the consensus on the 'G20 Statement on the Weaponization of Food through Coercive Trade Actions'.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The welcome dinner was hosted by Ambassador Greer and Secretary Rollins of the United States Department of Agriculture. The UK Secretary of State attended bilateral meetings, not the specific dinner mentioned in the text.
b Statement 3 is incorrect as the UK official did not host or attend the specific dinner mentioned; the dinner was hosted by US officials.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as the UK official did not host or attend the specific dinner mentioned; the dinner was hosted by US officials.
d Statement 3 is incorrect as the UK official did not host or attend the specific dinner mentioned; the dinner was hosted by US officials.
With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:
1. English has been adopted as the third official language of the SCO, alongside Russian and Chinese.
2. The SCO presidency follows a rotational pattern among member states, with Pakistan currently holding the chairmanship.
3. India is not a permanent member of the SCO but participates only in observer capacity meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly mentions that English was adopted as the third official language at the Bishkek summit, after Russian and Chinese.
Statement 2 is correct: The text describes the 'rotational presidency' moving from Tianjin to Bishkek and now to Islamabad (Pakistan).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The text lists India as one of the SCO member states (along with Russia, Iran, China, etc.), confirming it is a full member, not an observer.
b Statement 3 is incorrect because India is a full member state.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because India is a full member state.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because India is a full member state, not an observer.
With reference to the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) 'World Trade Report 2026' scenarios for the global economy by 2050, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Geo-fragmented world' scenario predicts a decline in global GDP of 5.1% and global exports of 18.6% relative to the baseline.
2. The 'FTA world' scenario, where the multilateral system is replaced by non-cooperative bilateral agreements, projects the most severe negative impact on global trade metrics among the three scenarios.
3. The 'Enhanced cooperation world' scenario suggests that reinforcing multilateral cooperation would lead to a decrease in global exports due to increased competition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly cites the WTO report stating that in a 'geo-fragmented world', global GDP declines by 5.1% and exports by 18.6%.
Statement 2 is correct: The text identifies the 'FTA world' as the 'worst of the scenarios', with higher reductions in GDP (6.9%) and exports (26.9%) compared to the geo-fragmented scenario.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states that in an 'enhanced cooperation world', global exports are projected to increase by 17.9%, not decrease.
b Statement 3 is incorrect.
c Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the direction of export changes.
d Statement 2 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong; Statement 3 is also incorrect.
With reference to the stock holding norms for sugar dealers implemented by the Government of India for the festive season, consider the following statements:
1. The stock holding period for sugar dealers has been reduced to 15 days, and the limit is fixed at 1,000 quintals for the entire country without any regional exceptions.
2. A higher stock holding limit of 2,000 quintals has been provided for Kolkata and its extended metropolitan areas and the State of Assam due to specific market requirements and geographical constraints.
3. The primary objective of these revised norms is to encourage speculative trading to ensure higher profits for sugar mills during the festive season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1,000 quintal limit applies to the country except for Kolkata and Assam, where the limit is higher.
Statement 2 is correct as the text explicitly mentions the 2,000 quintal limit for Kolkata and Assam due to their specific market and logistical roles.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the norms are aimed at curbing hoarding and discouraging speculative trading, not encouraging it.
b Statement 1 is wrong because there are regional exceptions for Kolkata and Assam.
c Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
d Statement 3 is wrong because the policy aims to discourage, not encourage, speculative trading.
With reference to the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 (PC&PNDT Act), consider the following statements:
1. The Act was enacted in 1994 to regulate pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic techniques and prohibit sex selection.
2. Section 22 of the Act specifically mandates the central government to identify and restrict prohibited digital content related to sex determination.
3. The Act's implementation involves coordination with the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to address online violations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct as the Act is explicitly named the 'Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994'.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the text states that Section 22 highlights the role of 'States and Union Territories' in identifying, flagging, and restricting prohibited digital content, not the central government.
Statement 3 is correct as the workshop brought together officials from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to address emerging challenges in the digital ecosystem.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 22 assigns the responsibility of identifying and restricting digital content to States and UTs, not the central government.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 22 assigns the responsibility of identifying and restricting digital content to States and UTs, not the central government.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 22 assigns the responsibility of identifying and restricting digital content to States and UTs, not the central government.
With reference to the Multi-Lane Free Flow (MLFF) tolling system implemented by NHAI, consider the following statements:
1. It utilizes Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) technology in conjunction with FASTag for electronic toll collection.
2. The primary objective of MLFF is to eliminate physical toll plazas entirely from all National Highways across India immediately upon rollout.
3. Users are required to maintain a functional FASTag with sufficient balance to avoid receiving an Electronic Notice (E-Notice).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The source text explicitly states that the system uses ANPR along with FASTag-based Electronic Toll Collection.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text mentions implementation in a 'phased manner' at specific locations (e.g., Paranur, Chorayasi, Mundka), not the immediate elimination of all physical plazas nationwide.
Statement 3 is correct: The NHAI statement quoted in the text advises users to maintain functional FASTags with sufficient balance to avoid E-Notices.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because the implementation is described as phased and limited to specific sites, not an immediate nationwide removal of all physical infrastructure.
b Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong; also Statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect as the rollout is phased and location-specific, not an immediate total elimination of physical plazas.
With reference to the Supreme Court's observations on drug pricing disparities, consider the following statements:
Statement I: Private hospitals often force patients to purchase drugs from on-premise pharmacies, which undermines normal price competition.
Statement II: This practice allows pharmaceutical companies to compete for the hospitals’ business rather than the patients’, leading to potential adherence issues for chronic disease patients.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
Both statements are factually correct based on the text: Hospitals control brand selection via on-premise pharmacies (Statement I), and manufacturers target hospitals with inflated MRPs/low PTRs, causing patients to pay more and potentially reduce treatment adherence (Statement II).
However, Statement II does not explain Statement I. Statement I describes the mechanism of market failure (forced on-premise buying). Statement II describes the strategic behavior of manufacturers and the consequence for patients. While related, the manufacturer's strategy (II) is not the cause/explanation for why hospitals force on-premise purchases (I); rather, both are manifestations of the same regulatory gap and market structure.
a Statement II describes manufacturer strategy and patient consequences, it does not causally explain why hospitals enforce on-premise pharmacy rules.
In the context of the Supreme Court's ruling on the NSA detention of Mulla Afroz, how many of the following statements are correct?
1. Section 3(2) of the National Security Act, 1980 permits detention without trial if the state is satisfied that such detention would prevent the person from acting in a manner prejudicial to the security of the State or public order.
2. The Allahabad High Court quashed the detention order in June 2026, citing the lack of independent material to support the detaining authority's satisfaction.
3. The Supreme Court noted that the 54-day gap between the violence and Afroz's arrest defied reason, especially since CCTV footage allegedly identified him as the principal architect but was not disclosed to him.
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes the provision of Section 3(2) of the NSA mentioned in the text.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Allahabad High Court upheld the detention order in June 2026, rather than quashing it.
Statement 3 is correct as the SC specifically highlighted the 54-day delay and the non-disclosure of CCTV footage as key issues.
a Statements 1 and 3 are correct, so 'only one' is inaccurate.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as the HC upheld, not quashed, the order.
Consider the following statements regarding the structural shift in India's GST revenue sources:
1. The rise in the share of GST revenue from imports indicates that the absolute volume of domestic transactions has decreased significantly.
2. The data suggests a changing trend where the proportion of revenue generated from cross-border trade (imports) has increased relative to internal trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect because a fall in the share of domestic revenue does not necessarily mean a decrease in the absolute volume or value of domestic transactions; it could simply mean imports grew faster.
Statement 2 is correct as the text explicitly mentions a 'changing trend' where the share from imports has risen to its highest level and the share from domestic transactions has fallen to its lowest.
a Statement 1 is incorrect as a change in share does not equate to an absolute decline in domestic transaction values.
b Statement 1 is incorrect as a change in share does not equate to an absolute decline in domestic transaction values.
d Statement 2 is correct as it accurately reflects the trend described in the release.
Items are summarised in our own words from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express; nothing is reproduced from the articles, and each item links to the original. Questions are generated from those releases and re-checked against the source text by a second model before publishing. If one looks wrong, use Feedback — every report is read.
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