What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. RBI hikes repo rate to 5.50%, shifts stance to calibrated tightening
The RBI raised the repo rate by 25 basis points and adopted a hawkish stance, citing global geopolitical risks and rising domestic inflation pressures.
Repo rate increased by 25 bps to 5.50%; SDF at 5.25% and MSF/Bank Rate at 5.75%.
MPC stance shifted from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening', ruling out near-term rate cuts.
Real GDP growth for 2026-27 revised upward to 7.1% (up by 40 bps).
Headline CPI inflation projected to average ~5.8% over the next three quarters; core inflation at 4.4% for FY26.
Decision driven by West Asia conflict impact on crude prices and weak monsoon/El Niño effects.
Key terms
Calibrated Tightening
— A monetary policy stance indicating that rate cuts are off the table, and future moves will be either hikes or pauses depending on evolving economic conditions.
Second-round Effects
— Indirect impacts of initial price rises, such as higher wage demands or adjusted pricing behavior by firms, which perpetuate inflation.
Core Inflation
— Inflation excluding volatile items like food and energy, used to gauge underlying price trends in the economy.
2. Special Intensive Revision: Voter Deletion Controversy
The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls has sparked mass protests due to the removal of 13.4 crore voters, raising concerns about disenfranchisement and procedural irregularities by the Election Commission of India.
3. India urges COP31 to prioritize Paris Agreement implementation
India's Environment Minister emphasized that COP31 should focus on closing knowledge gaps and accelerating the execution of existing climate commitments rather than setting new targets.
Commerce Secretary urged exporters to leverage the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), highlighting its tariff reductions, investment commitments, and the need for strategic action plans to access high-income…
5. NCAHP Notifies Regulations for Allied Health Boards and D.MRIT Curriculum
NCAHP has established a regulatory framework for autonomous boards and a central assessment committee to standardize education and registration in the allied healthcare sector, alongside a new competency-based curriculum for medical…
NCAHP notified the Autonomous Boards and Central Assessment Committee (CAC) Regulations, 2026, under the 2021 Act.
Autonomous Boards under State Councils will consist of 10–20 members to handle education, ethics, and registration.
The Central Assessment Committee (10–30 members) will function in states lacking a functional State Council.
A competency-based curriculum for the Diploma in Medical Radiology and Imaging Technology (D.MRIT) was notified on 30 September 2026.
Institutions must mandatorily adopt the D.MRIT curriculum from the 2027–28 academic year.
Key terms
Autonomous Boards
— Bodies established under State Allied and Healthcare Councils responsible for education standards, institutional assessment, and professional registration.
Central Assessment Committee (CAC)
— A central body under NCAHP supervision that performs assessment functions in states where no functional State Council exists.
D.MRIT
— Diploma in Medical Radiology and Imaging Technology, a two-year competency-based program for Class 12 PCB graduates.
6. Sagarmanthan 2026: India's Vision for Global Maritime Order
The 3rd Sagarmanthan dialogue opened with a focus on India's 'Maritime Amrit Kaal 2047' vision and the launch of the India-EU Green Shipping Corridor coalition.
The 3rd edition of Sagarmanthan was organized by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) in partnership with the Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
PM Modi emphasized a free, open, secure, and rules-based maritime order, linking it to India's civilisational maritime heritage.
Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal positioned India as a 'Vishwaguru' on oceans, aiming to lead through shared knowledge and capacity building.
The India-EU Green Shipping Corridor industry coalition was formally launched to facilitate trade in green ammonia and methanol.
The event featured delegations from 15+ countries and multilateral bodies including the OECD, UNCTAD, AIIB, and the African Union.
Key terms
Sagarmanthan
— The Great Oceans Dialogue, a high-level forum organized by MoPSW and ORF to discuss global maritime issues.
Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047
— India's long-term strategic roadmap for maritime development, aiming to position the nation as a global leader in oceanic affairs by 2047.
Green Shipping Corridor
— A designated maritime route where vessels use low-carbon or zero-carbon fuels, such as green ammonia and methanol, to reduce emissions.
India advocated for a balance between national sovereignty and global solidarity in the WHO Pandemic Agreement, aiming to secure equitable vaccine access and strengthen its position as a global health leader.
The WHO Pandemic Agreement (PA) was adopted by 124 member-states in 2025, with 11 abstentions and no votes against.
The agreement is not yet open for ratification pending finalization of the Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) annex.
India emphasized that global solidarity must be demonstrated through action, specifically equitable access to vaccines and therapeutics.
The United States rejected the Political Declaration, citing challenges to its national interests regarding PABS and WHO's role.
India's stance focuses on respecting national sovereignty while ensuring international coordination for pandemic management.
Key terms
Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS)
— A system under negotiation to ensure fair distribution of vaccines, medicines, and therapeutics to low- and middle-income countries during pandemics.
One Health
— An approach that recognizes the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health, particularly in monitoring pandemic outbreaks at the human-animal-environment interface.
Global Public Goods
— Resources such as digital health infrastructure and laboratory networks that benefit the entire global community and are advocated for equitable access.
8. RBI Governor on US Trade Deal Risks and FTA Buffers
RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra stated that while a failed India-US trade deal could negatively impact the economy, recent FTAs and export diversification will help cushion potential tariff shocks.
9. India-U.S. Trade Deal Stalled Over Sovereignty and Tariffs
Negotiations for an interim India-U.S. trade agreement have hit a plateau due to U.S. demands on Russian oil imports and new legislative sanctions, clashing with India's energy security needs.
The RBI raised the repo rate by 25 bps to 5.5% and revised its FY27 CPI inflation projection upward to 5.2%, citing persistent pressure from high crude oil prices and food costs.
11. SC to hear Centre's plea against Jharkhand DGP appointments
The Supreme Court has agreed to urgently hear the Union government's challenge to Jharkhand's recent DGP appointments, which the Centre claims violate the 2006 Prakash Singh guidelines on police autonomy.
Chief Justice Surya Kant agreed to hear the Union government's plea on October 7, 2026.
The Centre seeks a declaration that Jharkhand's 2025 Regulation for DGP selection is ultra vires the 2006 Prakash Singh judgment.
The 2006 judgment mandates transparent appointment of DGPs from senior-most empanelled officers and a minimum two-year tenure.
The Union alleges that the appointments of Anurag Gupta and Tadasha Mishra as Jharkhand DGPs were made under this illegal regulation.
The Home Ministry argues the State's actions are legally infirm and contrary to specific Supreme Court directions.
Key terms
Ultra vires
— A legal term meaning 'beyond powers'; it refers to actions taken by a public authority that are invalid because they exceed the scope of its legal authority.
Prakash Singh Judgment
— A landmark 2006 Supreme Court ruling that laid down guidelines for the appointment, transfer, and tenure of police officers to ensure transparency and reduce political influence.
12. RBI enables Account Aggregator interoperability for unified asset statements
RBI has permitted interoperability between NBFC Account Aggregators to merge banking and investment data into a single consolidated statement, simplifying financial tracking and aiding credit assessment for MSMEs.
13. Bihar MLA conviction: Disqualification and seat vacancy rules
The article explains the constitutional and legal framework for disqualifying legislators upon conviction, highlighting that a stay on sentence does not halt disqualification, only a stay on conviction does.
Article 190(3)(a) mandates that a legislator's seat automatically becomes vacant upon incurring a disqualification under Article 191.
Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, disqualifies anyone convicted of an offence and sentenced to two years or more imprisonment.
The Supreme Court in Lily Thomas v UOI (2013) struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, ruling that Parliament cannot postpone the automatic vacancy caused by disqualification.
A stay on the execution of a sentence (under BNSS Section 430) does not remove disqualification; only a stay on the conviction itself halts the loss of membership.
Under Article 192, questions regarding disqualification are referred to the Governor, who acts on the opinion of the Election Commission.
Key terms
Article 190(3)(a)
— Constitutional provision stating that a member's seat becomes vacant immediately if they are subjected to a disqualification.
Lily Thomas v UOI
— 2013 Supreme Court judgment that invalidated the provision allowing convicted legislators to continue in office pending appeal, affirming automatic vacancy.
Representation of the People Act, 1951
— Parliamentary law that prescribes specific grounds for disqualification, including conviction with a sentence of two years or more.
14. India-Ghana MoU on Agricultural Research and Technology Transfer
ICAR and Ghana's CSIR-CRI signed a five-year MoU to enhance agricultural cooperation, focusing on tomato research, value chains, and technology transfer.
15. JOSH Teams Launched for Community TB Mobilization
The government launched JOSH (Joint Squad for Health) teams to leverage youth networks and administrative leadership for grassroots tuberculosis elimination.
16. Metal-Free Catalyst for Affordable Clean Energy
Indian scientists developed a metal-free porous material that rivals platinum in efficiency, potentially lowering costs for zinc-air batteries and clean energy technologies.
17. Hamas calculus and Israel's regional gamble three years on
An analysis of the strategic logic behind the October 7, 2023 attack and its subsequent impact on Israeli security, regional conflicts, and domestic politics.
The October 7, 2023 attack resulted in approximately 1,200 deaths and 251 hostages being taken by Hamas.
Israel's military response has killed over 70,000 Palestinians, with actions characterized as genocide by several states and UN bodies.
All Hamas-held hostages were released following a US-induced ceasefire in January 2025.
Prior to the attack, Israel maintained a 'quiet for quiet' approach with Hamas, allowing conditional aid through Egypt.
Hamas integrated into Iran's Axis of Resistance but acted independently, forcing other actors like Hezbollah into a reactive posture.
Key terms
Quiet for Quiet
— An unwritten understanding between Israel and Hamas where both sides refrained from major escalations in exchange for limited concessions like aid or prisoner releases.
Axis of Resistance
— A network of pro-Iranian groups across the Middle East, including Hamas and Hezbollah, united by a strategic objective to counter Israel.
Abraham Accords
— A series of normalization agreements between Israel and several Arab states in 2020 that sidelined the Palestinian issue in regional diplomacy.
18. Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2026: What this year’s winners have done, why it matters
Henri Kagan and Kenso Soai won the 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for elucidating non-linear effects and autocatalysis, solving the mystery of how life developed a preference for one molecular mirror image over the other.
Francis Halzen won the 2026 Nobel Prize in Physics for designing the IceCube observatory, which detected high-energy extragalactic neutrinos, enabling a new dimension of multi-messenger astronomy.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent legal challenge by the Union Government against Jharkhand's DGP appointments:
1. The Union Home Ministry sought a judicial declaration that Jharkhand's 2025 Regulation on police appointments was ultra vires the Prakash Singh judgment.
2. The Chief Justice of India agreed to urgently hear the plea, citing defiance of judicial orders passed over the past 20 years.
3. The Centre specifically challenged the appointments of Anurag Gupta and Tadasha Mishra as being made under legally infirm regulations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The text confirms the Union government, through the Home Ministry, sought a declaration that the 'Regulation of 2025' be declared ultra vires the Prakash Singh judgment.
Statement 2 is correct: The text states CJI Surya Kant agreed to urgently hear the plea because Jharkhand was appointing DGPs 'in defiance of a series of judicial orders passed by the Supreme Court since the past 20 years'.
Statement 3 is correct: The text mentions the Centre pointed to the appointments of Anurag Gupta and Tadasha Mishra as violations based on the 'ultra vires Regulations'.
a Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all supported by the text.
In the context of the 'Sagarmanthan: The Great Oceans Dialogue', which of the following best describes the positioning of India as a 'Vishwaguru' on the oceans, as articulated by the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways?
Answer: (d)
The text quotes the Minister stating that India is a 'Vishwaguru' that 'shares its knowledge, capacity and talent to help shape a more collaborative global ocean agenda.'
The Minister explicitly contrasts this with historical conquerors, stating Indian sailors acted 'as partners, never as conquerors.'
The vision is rooted in 'trust, shared prosperity and partnership,' not dominance or exclusive control.
a The text emphasizes partnership and shared prosperity, not naval dominance or exclusive energy security control.
b The text explicitly states that Indian sailors acted 'never as conquerors' and that the model is rooted in 'mutual benefit' and 'partnership'.
c The text mentions green shipping corridors as a contribution to the world, not as a tool for exclusive control or monopoly.
A field-based study commissioned by the Federation of Seed Industry of India (FSII) and the National Seed Association of India (NSAI) estimated the extent of unauthorised GM cotton cultivation in India for the 2025-26 season. Which of the following statements regarding the findings of this study is correct?
Answer: (a)
The text states that out of the 114.8 lakh hectares sown, an estimated 26.2-29 lakh hectares (i.e., 24-30%) were of hybrids containing unauthorised HT or Bt genes.
Option b is incorrect as the percentage is significantly lower than 50-60%.
Option c is incorrect; while Telangana had a high prevalence of the HT gene (88.64% of samples), it was not 100% of the area, and the study did not claim 100% area coverage.
Option d is incorrect; the study covered 16 districts in Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan, not all states, and Punjab was not mentioned as a study site.
b The study was limited to 16 districts in four specific states (Maharashtra, Telangana, AP, Rajasthan), not all states, and Punjab was not included.
c The study found the HT gene in 88.64% of field samples in Telangana, not 100% of the area.
d The estimated percentage of unauthorised GM cotton area is 24-30%, not 50-60%.
Regarding the Reserve Bank of India's monetary policy stance and its transmission mechanism, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The RBI increased the repo rate by 25 basis points.
2. The RBI Governor indicated that this rate increase would likely have an immediate impact on bank credit growth within the same quarter.
3. Monetary policy transmission typically takes several quarters for the impact on credit growth to emerge.
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct; the text confirms the RBI’s 25-basis-point repo rate increase.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the Governor stated the impact on bank credit growth was 'unlikely' to be immediate.
Statement 3 is correct; the text explains that monetary policy transmission typically takes several quarters.
b Statement 2 is incorrect as the Governor stated the impact would not be immediate.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as the Governor stated the impact would not be immediate.
d Statement 3 is also correct, so option A is incomplete.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India, consider the following statements:
1. The MPC is responsible for determining the policy repo rate and maintaining inflation within a specified range.
2. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the MPC.
3. Decisions regarding changes in the policy repo rate require a unanimous vote from all members of the MPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The primary mandate of the MPC is to decide the policy repo rate and ensure CPI inflation remains within the target range (4% +/- 2%).
Statement 2 is correct: The RBI Governor acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the MPC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states the MPC voted 'unanimously' in this specific instance, but legally, decisions are taken by majority vote (at least 4 out of 6 members). Unanimity is not a procedural requirement.
b Statement 3 is incorrect because MPC decisions are made by majority vote, not necessarily unanimity.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because MPC decisions are made by majority vote, not necessarily unanimity.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because MPC decisions are made by majority vote, not necessarily unanimity.
Why are neutrinos described as 'ghost particles' or the 'shyest particle', making them extremely difficult to detect?
Answer: (c)
The text explicitly states neutrinos are difficult to detect because they have an "extremely low propensity to interact with matter" and are "electrically neutral", meaning they do not respond to electromagnetic fields.
They pass through dense matter without disturbance, which is why large, isolated facilities are needed to catch the rare interactions.
a The text states they are produced mainly in nuclear reactions in stars but also mentions extra-galactic sources, so they are not limited to the Sun.
b Neutrinos do not travel faster than the speed of light in vacuum; the Cherenkov radiation occurs when charged particles travel faster than light in ice.
d The text states that unlike electromagnetic radiation, neutrinos flow through dense regions rather than being absorbed by them.
With reference to the investment commitments under the India-European Free Trade Association (EFTA) Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), consider the following statements:
1. The EFTA States have committed to increasing foreign direct investment from their investors into India by $50 billion within 10 years of the agreement's entry into force.
2. The agreement mandates the generation of 1 million jobs in India within 15 years as a binding legal obligation on the EFTA States.
3. The TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025, with its first anniversary marked during the 2nd India-EFTA Prosperity Summit 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Article 7.1 states the EFTA States shall aim to increase FDI into India by $50 billion within 10 years of entry into force.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text specifies that the EFTA States 'shall aim to facilitate' the generation of 1 million jobs, not that it is a binding mandate or legal obligation.
Statement 3 is correct: The release confirms TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025 and the event was part of the 2nd India-EFTA Prosperity Summit 2026 marking the first year.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because the job creation target is an aim to be facilitated, not a binding mandate.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the job creation target is an aim to be facilitated, not a binding mandate.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the job creation target is an aim to be facilitated, not a binding mandate.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. The MPC shifted its stance from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening', signalling that rate cuts are off the table in the near term.
2. The policy repo rate was raised by 25 basis points to 5.50%, resulting in a corresponding adjustment where the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate stands at 5.25%.
3. The decision to hike rates was primarily driven by a projected deceleration in global growth and rising domestic inflation pressures linked to supply-side factors like El Niño conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states the MPC shifted its stance to 'calibrated tightening' from neutral, signalling rate cuts are off the table.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the repo rate was hiked to 5.50%, the MSF rate and bank rate were adjusted to 5.75%. It is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate that stands at 5.25%.
Statement 3 is correct: The Governor cited global economic sentiment souring due to geopolitical conflicts and crude price volatility, alongside domestic inflation pressures from deficient monsoon and El Niño conditions as key rationales.
b Statement 2 is factually incorrect regarding the MSF rate level.
c Statement 2 is factually incorrect regarding the MSF rate level.
d Statement 2 is factually incorrect regarding the MSF rate level.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic outlook and RBI's monetary policy decisions mentioned in the report:
1. Analysts expect the RBI to implement back-to-back rate hikes in consecutive meetings rather than a staggered approach.
2. ICRA’s baseline GDP growth projection for FY2027 is lower than the MPC’s forecast due to risks from deficient monsoon rainfall.
3. UBS economists predict that real policy rates will likely turn negative as headline inflation remains significantly above the RBI's medium-term target.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: HDFC Bank economists expect back-to-back increases in consecutive meetings instead of a staggered approach.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states ICRA’s baseline GDP growth projection (+7.1 per cent) for FY2027 is in line with the MPC, not lower.
Statement 3 is correct: UBS Chief India Economist Tanvee Gupta Jain noted that headline inflation remaining above 5.5% (vs 4% target) means real policy rates are likely to turn negative.
a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because ICRA's projection is in line with MPC, not lower.
With reference to the UNFCCC Pre-COP31 meeting and the priorities outlined for the upcoming COP31, consider the following statements:
1. The Pre-COP31 meeting was co-hosted by Australia, Fiji, and Tuvalu.
2. The Indian delegation emphasized that success at COP31 should be measured primarily by the establishment of new global temperature targets rather than the acceleration of implementation.
3. The Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change highlighted the need to close gaps between science and traditional knowledge, as well as between available resources and felt needs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states the Pre-COP31 meeting is being co-hosted by Australia, Fiji, and Tuvalu.
Statement 3 is correct: The Minister specifically mentioned the need to identify and develop consensus on gaps between science and traditional knowledge, and between available resources and felt needs.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Minister argued that success should NOT be measured simply by new targets or declarations, but by whether implementation is accelerated and support reaches those who need it.
b Statement 2 is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as the release explicitly argues against measuring success by new targets alone.
d Statement 1 is also correct, so '3 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the Autonomous Boards and Central Assessment Committee (Establishment, Constitution, Functions and Powers) Regulations, 2026 notified by the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP), consider the following statements:
1. The Autonomous Boards are established under the State Allied and Healthcare Councils and are responsible for institutional assessment, professional ethics, and registration.
2. The Central Assessment Committee (CAC) is constituted for all States and Union Territories to replace the functions of State Councils, regardless of whether a functional State Council exists.
3. The Assessment and Rating Board is mandated to make assessment and rating information available in the public domain through the State Council website.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states that Autonomous Boards are established under State Allied and Healthcare Councils with responsibilities for education, institutional assessment, professional ethics, and registration.
Statement 3 is correct: The Assessment and Rating Board assesses and rates institutions and makes this information available in the public domain via the State Council website.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The CAC is provided specifically for States where a functional State Council does not exist, not for all States to replace them.
a Statement 2 is incorrect as the CAC is only for states without a functional State Council.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as the CAC is only for states without a functional State Council.
d Statement 2 is incorrect as the CAC is only for states without a functional State Council.
With reference to the disqualification of Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) upon conviction, consider the following statements:
1. Under Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted of an offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years is disqualified from the date of such conviction.
2. The Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas case (2013) held that Section 8(4) of the Act, which allowed convicted legislators to continue in office for three months or until appeal disposal, was ultra vires the Constitution.
3. The Speaker of the State Assembly has the sole discretion to declare a seat vacant when an MLA is convicted and the conviction is not disputed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Section 8(3) mandates disqualification from the date of conviction if the sentence is two years or more.
Statement 2 is correct: The Lily Thomas ruling struck down Section 8(4), establishing that seats fall vacant automatically upon disqualification without waiting for appeals.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Neither Article 190 nor Article 192 names the Speaker as the authority for this specific type of disqualification; the matter typically goes to the Governor on the Election Commission's opinion, or the vacancy occurs by operation of law.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct.
c Statement 3 is incorrect.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because the Speaker does not have sole discretion in non-defection disqualification cases.
With reference to the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and Ghana on agricultural research, consider the following statements:
1. The MoU is signed between the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and the Crops Research Institute (CSIR-CRI).
2. The first phase of cooperation focuses primarily on cereal crop research with an emphasis on wheat.
3. Arima Farms Ltd., Ghana, has been recognized as the commercial partner for specific research and commercialisation activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states the MoU is between ICAR, New Delhi, and CSIR-CRI, Accra.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text specifies that the first phase focuses on vegetable crop research, particularly tomato, not cereal crops like wheat.
Statement 3 is correct: The release identifies Arima Farms Ltd. as the commercial partner facilitating the collaboration.
a Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the crop type.
c Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong; also Statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the focus is on vegetables/tomatoes, not cereals/wheat.
With reference to the strategic conditions preceding the October 7, 2023 attack, consider the following statements:
1. Israel’s security approach towards Hamas had settled into a 'quiet for quiet' framework, where Hamas prioritised sub-strategic goals such as lifting the economic blockade and releasing prisoners.
2. The Abraham Accords of 2020 and subsequent Arab de-prioritisation of the Palestinian issue reinforced Hamas’ logic that a multi-front war was necessary before Israeli settlers in the West Bank reached two million.
3. Iran’s Axis of Resistance was primarily built on a sectarian strategic logic aimed at immediate total war against Israel, which Hamas successfully compelled its allies to adopt immediately after October 7.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states Israel's calculus settled into 'quiet for quiet' and Hamas focused on sub-strategic goals like lifting the blockade and prisoner release.
Statement 2 is correct: The text notes that the Abraham Accords and Arab signaling brought back the logic of resistance, with Saleh al-Arouri declaring a need for war before settlers hit two million.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The text explicitly states Iran's Axis was built on a 'non-sectarian strategic logic' with deterrence (not war) as the principal objective, and most allies remained hesitant rather than being compelled to act immediately.
a Statement 3 is factually wrong regarding the non-sectarian nature and deterrence focus of the Axis.
c Statement 3 is factually wrong regarding the non-sectarian nature and deterrence focus of the Axis.
d Statement 3 is factually wrong regarding the non-sectarian nature and deterrence focus of the Axis.
With reference to the JOSH (Joint Squad for Health) Teams initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative is a collaboration between the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, and the Ministry of Defence.
2. The teams are composed exclusively of MY Bharat Volunteers and NCC Cadets to ensure a purely youth-led approach without administrative oversight.
3. In the first phase, the initiative is planned for rollout across 55 districts in 11 States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The release explicitly states the collaboration between the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, and Ministry of Defence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states that JOSH Teams bring together Class-I Officers, MY Bharat Volunteers, and NCC Cadets, combining administrative leadership with youth networks, not exclusively youth.
Statement 3 is correct: The release confirms the first phase rollout across 55 districts in 11 States.
a Statement 2 is incorrect as Class-I Officers are also part of the teams.
b Statement 2 is incorrect as Class-I Officers are also part of the teams.
d Statement 2 is incorrect as Class-I Officers are also part of the teams.
With reference to the India-U.S. trade negotiations and recent developments, consider the following statements:
1. The U.S. imposed a 10% tariff on imports from India following an investigation into whether Indian goods were produced using forced labour.
2. The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 allows the U.S. to levy tariffs of up to 50% on countries that are the biggest importers of Russian oil and gas.
3. In July 2026, India amended its Foreign Trade Policy to prohibit the import of goods produced using forced labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text states the U.S. completed an investigation into forced labour and imposed a 10% tariff on imports from India as a result.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 allows for tariffs of up to 100% (not 50%) on countries importing Russian oil/gas. The 50% figure refers to earlier reciprocal tariffs imposed by executive order.
Statement 3 is correct: The text explicitly mentions that in July 2026, India amended its Foreign Trade Policy to prohibit the import of goods produced using forced labour.
a Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong; also Statement 2 is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the cap under the new Act is 100%, not 50%.
d Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the percentage of tariffs allowed under the specific Act.
With reference to the development of asymmetric organic synthesis and the 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry, consider the following statements:
1. Henri B. Kagan’s discovery of non-linear effects demonstrated that the relationship between the handedness of the catalyst and the final product is linear when the catalyst contains equal amounts of two mirror-image forms.
2. Kenso Soai’s reaction, known as Soai’s reaction, is an example of autocatalysis where the product of the reaction acts as the catalyst for its own formation.
3. Charles Frank’s theoretical model for homochirality required the presence of a chiral catalyst, an asymmetric reaction, and the suppression of one enantiomer without the production of the catalyst itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect because Kagan discovered that the relationship is non-linear; the mixed catalyst behaves differently (slower), breaking the linear assumption.
Statement 2 is correct as Soai’s reaction is defined by the product (5-pyrimidyl alkanol) acting as the catalyst, fulfilling the autocatalysis condition.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Frank’s model explicitly required the third condition: the reaction had to produce the catalyst itself (autocatalysis).
a Statement 1 is false; Kagan proved the relationship is non-linear, not linear.
c Statement 3 is false; Frank’s model required the reaction to produce the catalyst itself.
With reference to the integration of bank deposit information into Consolidated Account Statements (CAS), which of the following best describes the regulatory mechanism adopted by the RBI?
Answer: (b)
The text quotes Governor Sanjay Malhotra stating that the RBI is facilitating SEBI-regulated depositories to include information related to deposit accounts in their CAS.
It clarifies the division of labor: 'I [RBI] will handle the aggregators from the banking end, you [SEBI] handle them from the depositories end.'
This indicates a cooperative framework where RBI enables the data flow via its regulated AAs, allowing SEBI-regulated entities to display it, rather than transferring regulatory control or bypassing AAs.
a The RBI does not directly regulate depositories; it facilitates SEBI-regulated depositories to include the data.
c There is no mention of transferring licenses from RBI to SEBI; the AAs remain under RBI's NBFC-AA categorization.
d The mechanism relies on Account Aggregators for consent-based data fetching, not bypassing them.
Regarding the procedural changes and outcomes of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Form 6 was amended through a formal rule change to include questions about whether parents or grandparents appeared on previous rolls.
B. In West Bengal, judicial officers filed over 16 lakh requests to remove electors who had already been cleared by the Election Commission.
C. Deleted electors can return to the rolls during the claims phase as fresh applicants if they discover they have been struck off.
D. The Supreme Court verdict upholding the constitutional validity of the SIR mandated that all deletions must be verified before any removal from the draft rolls.
Answer: (b)
Option C is correct: The ECI stated that deleted electors can return during the claims phase, but only as fresh applicants provided they find that they have been struck off.
Option A is incorrect: Form 6 was altered without any amendment to the rules.
Option B is incorrect: It was not judicial officers who filed the requests; rather, 16.1 lakh requests were filed to remove electors whom judicial officers had already cleared.
Option D is incorrect: The Supreme Court upheld the validity, but the text highlights the flaw where deletions happened before verification, not after.
a The text describes a flawed method where electors were deleted first and verified later, contradicting the claim that verification preceded removal.
c The requests were made to remove electors whom judicial officers had already cleared, not filed by the judicial officers themselves.
d Form 6 was altered without any amendment to the rules, contrary to the statement.
Consider the following statements regarding India's stance on the Political Declaration on Pandemic Prevention Preparedness and Response (PPPR):
1. India emphasized that international coordination must be balanced with respect for national sovereignty.
2. India advocated for binding global targets on technology transfer without linking them to funding guarantees.
3. India identified equitable access to drugs and vaccines as a core component of effective pandemic management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The text notes that India succeeded in enshrining multilateral components within the principle of national sovereignty and stressed the primacy of member-states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The text indicates that Global North countries did not want binding targets on technology transfer, and African countries refused commitments on One Health monitoring without guaranteed funding. India acknowledged these concerns but did not advocate for binding targets without funding links; rather, it highlighted the tension between sovereignty and cooperation.
Statement 3 is correct: The text states India reiterated that effective pandemic management requires equitable access to drugs, vaccines, and therapeutics.
a Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong. Additionally, Statement 2 is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as India did not advocate for binding targets without funding guarantees; the text highlights the resistance to such binding measures from various blocs.
In the context of Zinc–Air (Zn–air) batteries and the oxygen reduction reaction (ORR), consider the following statements:
Statement I: Zn–air batteries offer higher theoretical energy density and lower material costs compared to conventional lithium-ion batteries, but they face challenges related to rechargeability and ORR kinetics.
Statement II: The efficiency of Zn–air batteries is determined by the oxygen reduction reaction (ORR), and the development of efficient platinum-free ORR catalysts is crucial for realizing the cost and scalability advantages of these batteries.
Which one of the following is correct in light of the statements and their interrelation?
Answer: (a)
Statement-I is correct: The text notes Zn–air batteries have higher theoretical energy density and lower costs than Li-ion but face challenges in rechargeability and ORR kinetics.
Statement-II is correct: The text states battery efficiency is determined by ORR and that platinum-free catalysts are crucial for cost/scalability.
Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: Statement-II discusses the mechanism (ORR) and the need for catalysts, whereas Statement-I discusses the comparative advantages and specific technical challenges (rechargeability/cycle life). The need for catalysts (II) is a solution to the kinetics challenge mentioned in I, but II does not explain the existence of the advantages or the full scope of challenges (like rechargeability) listed in I.
b Statement-I is correct as per the text.
c Statement-II is correct as per the text.
d Statement-II does not fully explain Statement-I; it addresses the ORR kinetics aspect but not the comparative advantages or the rechargeability challenge directly.
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