What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: Transforming 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts
PMDDKY marks its first anniversary, leveraging inter-ministerial convergence and district-level planning to uplift agricultural productivity, irrigation, and credit access across 100 lagging districts.
57th meeting of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council decided on sweeping procedural overhauls.
Eliminated arbitrary arrest powers of GST enforcement officers and restricted seizure procedures.
Formed an expert panel to resolve Input Tax Credit (ITC) blockage due to supplier non-filing by April 1.
Adopted an automated faceless assessment mechanism for Central GST assessees modeled on the direct tax system.
Instituted an annual schedule for tariff rate revisions, restricting changes solely to the onset of the fiscal year.
Key terms
Input Tax Credit (ITC)
— A tax mechanism allowing businesses to reduce output tax liability by offsetting the indirect taxes already paid on purchased inputs.
Faceless Assessment
— A digital auditing regime where tax scrutiny occurs via automated allocation and electronic documentation without physical taxpayer-officer interaction.
3. NBA Releases Seed-Sector ABS Funds to States for Grassroots Biodiversity Conservation
The National Biodiversity Authority released ₹2.02 crore in Access and Benefit-Sharing funds collected from seed corporations across 30 States and UTs, bolstering grassroots conservation and equitable revenue distribution.
4. RBI Adopts Forex Risk Reserve to Stem Rupee Depreciation
The RBI introduced macroprudential steps, including a 20% risk reserve on forex derivatives borrowed from China's playbook, to curb dollar demand and defend the rupee.
Under the Foreign Exchange Risk Reserve (FERR), banks must place 20% cash with the RBI for rupee derivative contracts exceeding $2 million.
RBI directly facilitated foreign exchange purchases for state-run oil marketing companies: IOCL, HPCL, and BPCL.
Documentation threshold for verifying underlying assets before hedging was lowered drastically from $100 million to $5 million.
Regulatory restrictions barred the rebooking of cancelled rupee derivative contracts and prohibited double hedging of assets.
Key terms
Foreign Exchange Risk Reserve (FERR)
— A mandatory cash deposit commercial banks must park with the central bank against forward forex derivative contracts to raise the cost of currency hedging.
Hedging
— The practice of using derivative contracts to safeguard against potential financial losses caused by sharp swings in exchange rates.
Surplus Liquidity
— An excess cash balance in the domestic banking system, often triggered when central banks absorb foreign currency inflows by issuing local currency.
5. Government Plans Caps on Oncology Drug Margins to Cut Treatment Costs
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority plans to cap trade margins at 30% across 110 non-scheduled cancer medicines to slash retail prices by up to 70%.
6. Delhi Internet Shutdown: Procedural Mandates Under the 2024 Telecom Rules
The temporary suspension of mobile internet in central Delhi highlights statutory disclosure and oversight mandates prescribed by the Telecommunications Rules, 2024.
Telecommunications (Temporary Suspension of Services) Rules, 2024 replaced the 2017 regulatory framework under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
Section 20(2)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 empowers governments to halt telecom services during public emergencies or for public safety.
Suspension orders must be issued by the Union Home Secretary or State Home Secretary and cannot exceed a duration of 15 days.
A central Review Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary must evaluate any suspension order within five days of issuance.
Key terms
Proportionality test
— A constitutional standard requiring state restrictions on fundamental rights to be appropriate, necessary, and no more burdensome than required to meet a legitimate aim.
Review committee
— A high-level bureaucratic body tasked with assessing the legality and necessity of executive internet suspension orders within a stipulated timeframe.
Public emergency
— An exceptional circumstance threatening public safety or order that statutorily justifies temporary restrictions on communication services.
7. US Investigates EU Carbon Border Tax: Potential Benefits for Indian Industry
The United States has initiated a trade investigation into the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism, potentially helping Indian exporters through a forward-MFN clause.
USTR has launched an inquiry seeking feedback on EU CBAM's impact on domestic businesses.
EU CBAM targets six carbon-intensive sectors: aluminium, cement, electricity, fertiliser, hydrogen, and iron and steel.
GTRI estimates CBAM may impose a 20% to 35% tariff burden on select Indian exports.
Steel scrap makes up only about 20% of India's steel feedstock, with domestic supply limited to around 25 million metric tons.
Key terms
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
— An EU regulatory levy requiring importers to purchase certificates matching the carbon price domestic producers pay for embedded industrial emissions.
forward-Most Favoured Nation Clause
— A contractual trade provision ensuring a country automatically inherits more favorable terms or concessions granted to any third party in subsequent agreements.
Electric Arc Furnace
— A steelmaking method that melts recycled scrap using high-power electric currents, generating significantly lower greenhouse emissions than traditional blast furnaces.
8. Madhya Pradesh High Court Strikes Down 27% OBC Quota Law
The Madhya Pradesh High Court nullified the state's 2019 law raising OBC reservations from 14% to 27%, ruling that the administration failed to show extraordinary circumstances to breach the 50% reservation ceiling.
Madhya Pradesh High Court division bench struck down the 2019 legislation enhancing OBC quota from 14% to 27%.
Court reaffirmed adherence to the judicially mandated 50% cap on total reservations.
Data from AISHE and a 2023 study showed OBCs held 28.16% of state government positions and 33.87% of higher education enrolment.
Appointments made under the enhanced quota between March 2019 and September 2022 protected and ordered to be adjusted against future recruitments.
Key terms
50% ceiling on reservations
— The judicial cap established by the Supreme Court restricting total affirmative action quotas to 50% of available seats or vacancies, breachable only under exceptional situations.
Adequacy of representation
— The constitutional benchmark under affirmative action jurisprudence assessing whether a backward class is sufficiently represented in public services and educational institutions.
9. Second Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems Meeting in Delhi
India co-hosted the second UN GI-AI4FS meeting to foster international collaboration, standardisation, and responsible use of AI and IoT technologies in agriculture.
10. Indian Navy Launches Next-Gen Offshore Patrol Vessel Shreyas at GRSE Kolkata
The Indian Navy has launched its indigenous Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel Shreyas at GRSE Kolkata to bolster maritime surveillance and coastal security operations.
Yard 3040, christened 'Shreyas', is a Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
The NGOPV shipbuilding project is concurrently split between two domestic shipyards: GRSE in Kolkata and Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) in Goa.
The vessel is designed for multi-role deployments including offshore asset defense, anti-piracy, search and rescue, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR).
The project forms part of the indigenous defence production push under the Make in India and Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiatives.
Key terms
Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV)
— An advanced, indigenously designed armed naval surface craft intended for coastal surveillance, EEZ security, and maritime interdiction.
HADR
— Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations conducted by armed forces to provide emergency logistical and medical aid during crises.
11. Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 Concludes at Jodhpur Air Force Station
The Indian Air Force hosted its premier multilateral air drill, highlighting technological modernization, interoperability with global partners, and domestic defense manufacturing.
12. Second Regional Review Conference on Forest Rights Act Held in Kolkata
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs reviewed Forest Rights Act implementation across eight eastern and central states to expedite pending claims, digitise land records, and advance community rights.
Nationwide status (as of August 2026): over 54 lakh claims received, about 25 lakh titles distributed, 11 lakh pending, and over 18 lakh rejected.
Convened by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) in Kolkata for eight states: West Bengal, Assam, Tripura, Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
High claim pendency is concentrated heavily in specific districts of Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Assam.
MoTA highlighted digital tools, including a National-level FRA Portal and mobile app, to promote API-based geospatial integration.
Key terms
Community Forest Resource Rights
— Customary rights recognized under the Forest Rights Act that empower Gram Sabhas to protect, manage, and regenerate traditional community forest boundaries.
Habitat Rights
— Special rights under the Forest Rights Act granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups to safeguard their customary territories and socio-cultural habitats.
13. India-U.S. Trade Pact to Reflect Evolving Global Tariff Dynamics
India is recalibrating negotiations for an interim bilateral trade pact with the United States amid shifting tariff landscapes, while accelerating trade dialogues with multiple global partners.
15. Protests Mount in Bengaluru Demanding Cancellation of Bedti–Aghanashini River Diversion Project
Civil society groups and local representatives have demanded the cancellation of the Bedti–Aghanashini river diversion Detailed Project Report, citing severe ecological and local livelihood threats in Uttara Kannada.
16. Indigenous communities oppose joint Assam-Meghalaya Kulsi River hydropower project
Border communities and traditional chiefs in Assam and Meghalaya united against a planned 55-megawatt dam on the Kulsi River, citing ecological risks and tribal displacement.
17. US Procures Russian Diesel Amid Sanctions Pressure on India
Washington's temporary waiver permitting Russian diesel imports exposes contradictions in its unilateral sanctions regime, strengthening India's stance on strategic autonomy and national energy security.
US Treasury's OFAC issued a general licence authorising Russian-origin diesel transactions until April 7.
The agreement outlines Russian supplies starting at 300,000 tonnes, scaling up to an additional three million tonnes.
US domestic diesel costs touched nearly $6.5 per gallon due to Strait of Hormuz chokepoints and refinery disruptions.
G7 partners previously decided to disburse 100 million barrels of petroleum products from emergency buffers.
Key terms
Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)
— An agency of the US Department of the Treasury that administers and enforces economic and trade sanctions.
General Licence
— A regulatory exemption issued by an enforcement body that permits certain categories of otherwise prohibited transactions without requiring individual approvals.
18. Why India’s Economic Growth Consistently Exceeds Professional Forecasts
India's actual economic growth has repeatedly outpaced official and professional projections post-pandemic, driven by conservative forecasting amid global geopolitical and climatic uncertainties.
RBI raised its current fiscal year GDP growth projection by 40 basis points to 7.1%.
RBI has conducted the bi-monthly Survey of Professional Forecasters since September 2007, polling 46 economists in the latest round.
Prior to FY22, actual Gross Value Added (GVA) frequently lagged behind median forecasts, but post-FY22 actual performance has regularly outperformed projections.
GVA serves as an analytical benchmark rather than GDP to strip out discretionary net indirect taxes (taxes minus subsidies).
Key terms
Gross Domestic Product
— The total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders, calculated as GVA plus taxes minus subsidies.
Gross Value Added
— A metric measuring the value of total output produced in an economy after subtracting intermediate consumption.
El Niño
— A cyclical climate pattern characterized by unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, impacting monsoons and temperatures.
19. Indian Parliamentary Delegation Concludes Participation in 153rd IPU Assembly in Tanzania
India participated in the 153rd Inter-Parliamentary Union Assembly in Arusha, casting votes in the presidential election and endorsing resolutions on disability inclusion and Himalayan climate resilience.
The 153rd Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) Assembly was convened in Arusha, Tanzania.
Milton Dick, Speaker of the Australian House of Representatives, was elected as the new IPU President via secret ballot.
India exercised its three allotted votes through a delegation headed by Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh.
The Assembly adopted the Arusha Communiqué, a resolution on disability rights, and an emergency resolution on climate resilience in the Himalayan region.
Key terms
Inter-Parliamentary Union
— An international organization of national parliaments dedicated to promoting democratic governance, dialogue, and worldwide parliamentary cooperation.
Governing Council
— The main policy-making and administrative organ of the Inter-Parliamentary Union that oversees agendas and elects its leadership.
20. UN Human Rights Office Flags Delhi Detentions; India Rebuts Criticism
The UN Human Rights Office urged India to release individuals detained during demonstrations in Delhi, drawing a firm diplomatic pushback regarding sovereign internal affairs.
With reference to the Bedti and Aghanashini rivers, consider the following statements:
1. They are rivers flowing through the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka.
2. A river diversion project involving these rivers has faced local opposition demanding the cancellation of its Detailed Project Report (DPR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Both the Bedti and Aghanashini rivers are located in the Uttara Kannada district.
A proposed river diversion project on these rivers has faced strong protests, with local communities and leaders demanding the scrapping of the project and cancellation of its Detailed Project Report (DPR).
a Statement 1 is also correct as Bedti and Aghanashini are rivers located in Uttara Kannada district.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are factual and correct based on the text.
d Statement 2 is also correct as protests specifically demanded cancellation of the DPR process for the river diversion project.
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems (GI-AI4FS):
1. It aims to advance global cooperation on the application of Internet of Things (IoT) and Artificial Intelligence (AI) in agriculture and food systems.
2. It focuses exclusively on developing intellectual property frameworks for proprietary agricultural technologies, excluding open standards and interoperability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
GI-AI4FS brings together international organisations, research institutions, and industry to foster cooperation on AI and IoT applications across agri-food systems.
It promotes trustworthy and interoperable farmer-centric AI solutions along with global standards, rather than focusing exclusively on proprietary intellectual property frameworks.
a Statement 1 is correct, making option d invalid.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the initiative focuses on interoperable, farmer-centric solutions, standards development, and responsible AI governance.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, making option c invalid.
Consider the following statements regarding the vessel 'Shreyas' recently launched for the Indian Navy:
1. It is a Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) built at GRSE, Kolkata.
2. The vessel has been imported under a direct government-to-government procurement agreement to meet immediate operational requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Yard 3040 (Shreyas) is a Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) launched at GRSE, Kolkata.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the ship is indigenously designed and built in India, supporting the 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' and 'Make in India' initiatives, rather than being an imported platform.
a Statement 1 is factual and correct regarding the vessel's type and shipyard.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the vessel was built domestically at GRSE under indigenous shipbuilding programs.
d Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect because Shreyas is indigenously designed and built, not imported.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Kulsi multipurpose project:
1. It is a joint initiative undertaken by the governments of Assam and Meghalaya.
2. In Meghalaya, projects involving land use require no-objection certificates from traditional chiefs (Syiem) acting as custodians of their respective areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The 55-MW hydropower-cum-irrigation project was planned jointly by the state governments of Assam and Meghalaya.
Under the traditional governance structures in Meghalaya, projects involving land require consent/no-objection certificates from traditional chiefs (such as the Syiems) who serve as custodians of their areas.
a Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
b Statement 2 is also correct as projects involving land in Meghalaya require no-objection certificates from traditional chiefs.
c Statement 1 is also correct as the project is pursued jointly by Assam and Meghalaya.
With reference to the multinational exercise 'Tarang Shakti', consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral maritime exercise hosted by the Indian Navy.
2. It aims to enhance interoperability, exchange operational knowledge, and understand diverse doctrines and mission planning approaches among friendly foreign nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Exercise Tarang Shakti is a multinational air exercise hosted by the Indian Air Force (IAF), not a maritime exercise hosted by the Indian Navy.
Statement 2 is correct: The exercise provides participating air forces an opportunity to operate alongside one another, exchange operational knowledge, assess procedures, and understand different platforms, doctrines, and mission planning approaches.
a Statement 1 is incorrect because Tarang Shakti is hosted by the Indian Air Force, not the Indian Navy.
b Statement 1 is incorrect, making 'Both 1 and 2' wrong.
d Statement 2 is correct, so 'Neither 1 nor 2' is incorrect.
Consider the following statements regarding the governance and administration of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006:
1. Gram Sabhas receive financial and capacity-building assistance under Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DA-JGUA) for preparing Community Forest Resource Management Plans.
2. Recognized forest rights are mandated to be incorporated into both revenue and forest department records with accurate maps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Assistance is provided under DA-JGUA for capacity building of Gram Sabhas to prepare and execute Community Forest Resource (CFR) management plans.
Statement 2 is correct: A key operational priority highlighted by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the integration and incorporation of recognized FRA titles into both revenue and forest records using accurate maps.
a Statement 1 is also correct; capacity-building support is extended under the DA-JGUA scheme.
c Statement 2 is also correct; incorporation of recognized rights into revenue and forest records is an explicit requirement.
d Both statements are correct facts regarding FRA administrative guidelines.
Consider the following statements regarding the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) data centres into the power grid:
1. Sudden collective bulk electricity purchases and sharp demand ramping by data centres can destabilise slow-ramping generators.
2. Rapid switching of data centres to backup power supplies poses a risk of abrupt load rejection to regional load despatch centres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Bulk collective purchases and high ramping characteristics of AI data centres create fluctuations that slow-ramping generators struggle to meet, exposing them to grid penalties.
Statement 2 is correct: Regional grid operators have warned that when large data centres abruptly switch to on-site backup power systems, it creates a credible operational risk of sudden, severe load rejection on the grid.
Consider the following statements regarding the 153rd Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) Assembly:
1. It adopted the Arusha Communiqué along with a resolution submitted by the Standing Committee on Democracy and Human Rights focusing on persons with disabilities.
2. An emergency item resolution on addressing climate-related disasters and strengthening resilience in the Himalayan region and other vulnerable regions was adopted during the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Assembly held sittings to adopt the Arusha Communiqué as well as the resolution submitted by the Standing Committee on Democracy and Human Rights concerning parliamentary strategies to promote the rights and empowerment of persons with disabilities.
It also adopted a resolution on an emergency item titled 'Urgent parliamentary action to address climate-related disasters and strengthen resilience in the Himalayan region and other vulnerable regions'.
a Statement 1 is also correct as the Arusha Communiqué and the resolution on persons with disabilities were adopted.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the proceedings of the Assembly.
d Statement 2 is also correct as the emergency item on climate-related disasters in the Himalayan region and other vulnerable regions was adopted.
With reference to the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), consider the following statements:
1. It focuses on transforming agriculture across 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts, ensuring at least one district from every State.
2. The identification of districts is based on low productivity, low cropping intensity, and less agricultural credit disbursement.
3. The scheme is executed exclusively through a dedicated, newly created central budget pool without merging any existing schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
PMDDKY targets 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts with at least one selected district in each State.
Districts are identified using three key criteria: low productivity, low cropping intensity, and less agricultural credit disbursement.
The scheme does not rely solely on an independent fund; it is implemented through the convergence of 36 Central schemes across 11 Ministries and Departments, along with State schemes and private sector participation.
a Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme relies on the convergence of existing Central and State schemes rather than operating in complete budgetary isolation.
b Statement 1 is correct; the scheme covers 100 districts with at least one in every State.
c Statement 2 is correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme operates via the convergence of 36 existing Central schemes across 11 Ministries.
With reference to the procedural and administrative reforms recommended by the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:
1. A faceless assessment system has been introduced for Central GST registered companies on the lines of the income tax assessment system.
2. GST rate reviews are to be conducted on a quarterly basis, with rate modifications implemented immediately after each Council meeting.
3. Powers of arrest vested with GST officers have been removed to curb operational harassment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Centre introduced a faceless assessment system for Central GST registered companies patterned after the income tax framework.
The Council decided that tax rates will be reviewed only once a year, with changes taking effect at the beginning of financial years, eliminating recurring uncertainty.
Arrest powers of GST officers have been removed, alongside tighter norms for inspection, search, and seizure.
a Statement 2 is incorrect; rate reviews are to be conducted once a year, not quarterly, and implemented at the start of financial years.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, while Statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Foreign Exchange Risk Reserve (FERR) framework introduced by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. Banks entering into specified rupee-involved forex derivative contracts are required to set aside a cash reserve with the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The requirement aims to decrease the cost of hedging against rupee depreciation to encourage market participants to protect foreign currency exposures.
3. The measure is designed to limit downward pressure on the domestic currency by curbing speculative and hedging demand for dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Under the FERR, banks must set aside a cash reserve (initially 20%) with the RBI on forex derivative contracts involving the rupee above a specified threshold, making statement 1 correct.
Imposing this cash reserve increases the cost of purchasing foreign currency protection (hedging against rupee weakness), rather than decreasing it, making statement 2 incorrect.
The intention behind increasing this cost is to curb excessive demand for foreign currency (dollars), thereby curbing downward pressure on the rupee, making statement 3 correct.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the reserve requirement raises hedging costs to discourage excessive demand for dollars.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as the tool is meant to increase the cost of hedging against currency weakness.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because FERR makes protection from rupee depreciation more expensive, not cheaper.
With reference to the Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) mechanism in India, consider the following statements:
1. Where individual benefit claimers cannot be identified, ABS shares can be apportioned among State Biodiversity Boards based on cultivation area statistics.
2. Funds disbursed under the ABS mechanism can be utilised to strengthen Biodiversity Management Committees and update People’s Biodiversity Registers.
3. The mechanism directly aligns with Target 13 of the Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework on the fair and equitable sharing of benefits.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: When resources are procured via markets/traders and individual benefit claimers cannot be identified, the NBA apportions the share among SBBs/UTBCs based on cultivation area statistics published by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Statement 2 is correct: ABS disbursements to SBBs and UTBCs support strengthening Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) and updating People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
Statement 3 is correct: India's ABS framework supports Target 13 (fair and equitable benefit-sharing) and Target 19 (resource mobilisation) of the Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
a Statement 3 is also correct as it supports Target 13 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
b Statement 1 is also correct as apportionment based on cultivation area is a recognized modality when individual claimers cannot be identified.
d Statement 2 is also correct as ABS funds directly support BMCs and updating PBRs.
With reference to pharmaceutical pricing mechanisms in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) fixes ceiling prices for scheduled drugs included in the National List of Essential Medicines.
2. Non-scheduled drugs are permitted an annual increase of up to 20% in their Maximum Retail Price (MRP).
3. Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR) caps the percentage markup between the price to the stockist and the retail price rather than setting a uniform ceiling price for every formulation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Scheduled drugs on the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) have their ceiling prices fixed by the NPPA based on the average market price of commonly selling brands.
Non-scheduled drugs are restricted to an annual Maximum Retail Price (MRP) increase of no more than 10%, not 20%.
Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR) regulates the percentage gap (markup) between the price sold to stockists and the consumer MRP, instead of prescribing a fixed price cap for each formulation and dose.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, while Statement 1 is correct.
b Statement 2 is incorrect; non-scheduled drugs cannot raise their MRP by more than 10% annually.
d Statement 2 is incorrect as the permitted annual price increase for non-scheduled medicines is capped at 10%.
With reference to India's bilateral and regional trade negotiations, consider the following statements:
1. India is engaged in trade pact negotiations with the Russia-led Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) and the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
2. India and the United Kingdom implemented a bilateral trade agreement recently and hold institutional engagements under the Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO).
3. Trade agreement negotiations with the South African Customs Union (SACU) have been formally concluded and entered into force.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
India is currently negotiating trade pacts with several regional groups and countries, including the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) and the GCC.
India implemented a trade agreement with the U.K. in July, and both sides engage via the Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO).
Talks for an agreement with the South Africa-led SACU group have not concluded; negotiations are slated to start soon.
a Statement 1 is correct (negotiations are active with EAEU and GCC); Statement 3 is incorrect as negotiations with SACU are yet to start.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because the agreement with SACU has not been concluded or implemented.
d Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the Telecommunications (Temporary Suspension of Services) Rules, 2024, consider the following statements:
1. In the case of the Central Government, the competent authority to issue a suspension order is the Union Home Secretary.
2. In unavoidable circumstances, an officer not below the rank of Under Secretary may issue the suspension order without requiring subsequent confirmation.
3. A suspension order issued under the rules cannot specify a duration exceeding 15 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Under Rule 3(1) of the 2024 Rules, the competent authority for the Central Government is the Union Home Secretary, and for a state government, it is the state Home Secretary.
In unavoidable circumstances, an authorised officer of at least Joint Secretary rank (not Under Secretary) may issue the order, and it must be confirmed by the competent authority within 24 hours.
The rules stipulate that any suspension order must specify a duration not exceeding 15 days.
a Statement 3 is also correct as the maximum prescribed duration for a suspension order is 15 days.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the officer must be of at least Joint Secretary rank and the order requires confirmation within 24 hours.
c Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect regarding the minimum rank (Joint Secretary) and the requirement of 24-hour confirmation.
With reference to the European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
1. It applies to covered products including aluminium, cement, electricity, fertiliser, hydrogen, and iron and steel.
2. Importers submitting company-level emissions data must have it verified by an EU-accredited third-party verifier.
3. In cases where default emission values are used, the EU provides a discount mark-down to incentivize developing country exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
CBAM covers products in the aluminium, cement, electricity, fertiliser, hydrogen, and iron and steel sectors.
The regulation mandates that any company-level emissions data submitted must be verified by an EU-accredited third-party verifier.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the EU adds a punitive mark-up (rather than a discount mark-down) to default emission values to encourage the use of verified company-level data.
a Statement 2 is also correct regarding third-party verification requirements.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as the EU adds a punitive mark-up, not a discount.
d Statement 1 is correct regarding the sectors covered under CBAM, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the Permanent Labour Certification Programme in the United States, consider the following statements:
1. It is a mechanism that allows companies to apply for green cards for foreign workers holding H-1B visas.
2. The programme is administered and enforced by the U.S. Department of Labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Permanent Labour Certification Programme allows companies to sponsor and apply for permanent residency (green cards) for H-1B visa workers.
Statement 2 is correct: Decisions and enforcement regarding the programme—including suspension of companies and non-acceptance of pending applications—fall directly under the authority of the U.S. Department of Labour.
a Statement 2 is also correct because the programme is administered by the Department of Labour.
b Statement 1 is also correct as the programme enables firms to apply for green cards for H-1B workers.
d Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate based on the context of the programme.
With reference to the legal and constitutional principles regarding reservations in public employment and education, consider the following statements:
1. Breach of the 50% ceiling on reservations mandated by the Supreme Court requires the state to establish exceptional circumstances.
2. In assessing adequacy of representation, constitutional courts examine data relating to higher education enrolment and public employment.
3. The concept of equality in the Indian Constitution is treated as completely independent of administrative efficiency under modern governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has mandated a 50% ceiling on reservations, which can only be breached if the state establishes exceptional circumstances.
Statement 2 is correct: Courts examine empirical data such as higher education enrolment (e.g., AISHE) and public employment figures to evaluate adequacy of representation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitutional interpretation links equality and reservation principles with the requirements of administrative efficiency in modern governance rather than treating them as completely independent.
a Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as constitutional jurisprudence links administrative efficiency to governance and equality considerations.
d Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because administrative efficiency is linked to the principle of equality.
With reference to the global energy market and recent geopolitical developments, consider the following statements:
1. A general licence authorising transactions for the import of Russian-origin diesel was issued by the US Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC).
2. The Group of Seven (G7) countries agreed to release emergency reserves of crude oil and petroleum products to address global supply constraints.
3. The US administration strictly prohibited the release of European emergency diesel stockpiles to prevent global price destabilisation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The US Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) issued a general licence temporarily authorising transactions involving Russian-origin diesel.
Statement 2 is correct: The G7 countries agreed to release 100 million barrels of crude oil and petroleum products, including diesel, from emergency reserves.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The US administration had been pressuring Europe to release its diesel stockpiles rather than prohibiting them.
a Statement 1 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect as the US pressured Europe to release, not restrict, stockpiles.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, and statement 2 is valid based on the G7 agreement to release emergency reserves.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because the US actively sought the release of European stockpiles.
With reference to the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) and international human rights principles, consider the following statements:
1. The OHCHR is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
2. According to international human rights standards reiterated by the OHCHR, any restrictions imposed on peaceful protests must meet the test of necessity and proportionality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The OHCHR is based in Geneva, Switzerland, where India's Permanent Mission responded to its statement.
Statement 2 is correct: The OHCHR underscored that any restrictions placed on peaceful protests should satisfy the test of 'necessity and proportionality'.
b Statement 2 is also correct as OHCHR explicitly requires restrictions on peaceful protests to meet the standards of necessity and proportionality.
c Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate based on the text.
d Statement 1 is also correct because the UN body (OHCHR) is based in Geneva.
With reference to the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA), consider the following statements:
1. GDP is derived by adding net product taxes (taxes minus subsidies) to the GVA.
2. GVA provides a measure of economic output that isolates the direct distortive effects of government discretionary fiscal measures on production.
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: GDP is calculated by taking GVA, adding indirect taxes earned by the government, and subtracting subsidies.
Statement 2 is correct: Because taxes and subsidies are subject to government discretion, comparing GVA directly reflects production value without distortion from these fiscal variations.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are conceptually and factually correct.
c Statement 1 is also correct as GDP equals GVA plus taxes minus subsidies.
d Statement 2 is also correct because GVA strips away taxes and subsidies.
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