What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. GST Council Approves Major Compliance Reforms to Curb Litigation and Boost Trust
The 57th GST Council meeting introduced sweeping structural procedural reforms—including single-state registration for small e-commerce sellers, accelerated refunds, and dispute thresholds—to ease compliance and minimize tax harassment.
2. NBA Disburses Rs 1.19 Crore ABS Funds to State Biodiversity Boards
The National Biodiversity Authority released Rs 1.19 crore in Access and Benefit Sharing funds to 30 sub-national bodies, operationalising statutory resource-sharing mechanisms derived from commercial agriculture.
Disbursement of Rs 1.19 crore executed across 29 State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and 1 UT Biodiversity Council.
Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh emerged as the top three recipient States based on cultivation area ratios.
ABS payments originated from agro-companies for research and commercial use of crops like maize, rice, pearl millet, and cotton.
Cumulative NBA disbursements under ABS have crossed Rs 203 crore, including Rs 86 crore generated solely from agricultural bio-resources.
Key terms
Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)
— A statutory mechanism ensuring that benefits derived from using biological resources and traditional knowledge are shared equitably between users and providers.
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
— A statutory autonomous body established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to implement conservation, sustainable use, and fair benefit distribution.
Section 32(2) of Biological Diversity Act
— The legal provision regulating the specific application of State Biodiversity Funds towards local resource conservation, socio-economic welfare, and bio-governance.
3. FRA Title Holders Await Clarity on Extra Work Under Rural Jobs Law
Tribal households with Forest Rights Act titles face ambiguity regarding their extra 50 days of guaranteed wage employment following the rollout of the new VB-G RAM G framework.
4. Government Caps Trade Margins on 137 Anti-Cancer Medicines
The NPPA has imposed a 30% cap on trade margins for 137 non-scheduled cancer drugs to curb inflated retail pricing and lower out-of-pocket healthcare costs.
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) capped trade margins at 30% for 137 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs.
Action taken using extraordinary powers under Paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013.
Drug list recommended by an expert panel convened under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS).
Maximum retail prices (MRP) are projected to decline by up to 70% from November 9.
Builds on a 2019 pilot capping margins across 42 oncology drugs that slashed prices on 526 brands by up to 90%.
Key terms
Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR)
— A regulatory cap on the profit margin intermediaries can add between the manufacturer's price to trade and the maximum retail price.
Non-scheduled drugs
— Medicines that are not explicitly listed in the National List of Essential Medicines and are typically subject to annual price increase caps rather than fixed ceiling prices.
Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013
— An order issued under the Essential Commodities Act empowering the government to regulate and monitor the pricing of essential pharmaceutical formulations.
5. Warming Himalayas Demand a Rethink on Development
Accelerated warming and melting permafrost in the Hindu Kush Himalaya are destabilising mountain ecosystems, requiring an urgent recalibration of infrastructure development and disaster management.
6. US Waiver on Russian Oil Sanctions: Relief for Indian Energy Imports
The US has issued an executive waiver postponing punitive tariffs on major buyers of Russian energy, offering temporary relief to India's crude import strategy.
The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 authorised tariffs up to 100% on top buyers of Russian energy.
US President Donald Trump invoked executive waiver powers citing national interests ahead of domestic midterm elections.
India is the world’s third-largest crude consumer, importing over 88% of its total domestic petroleum requirements.
Russia remains India's primary crude supplier, delivering 1.9 million barrels per day in September (over 35% of monthly imports).
Key terms
Executive Order
— A directive issued by the head of the executive branch of government that manages operations without requiring immediate parliamentary or legislative enactment.
Medium-Sour Crude
— A grade of crude oil characterized by moderate density and a relatively higher sulfur content, requiring specialized refinery processing.
7. FSSAI Proposes Prohibiting Added Sugars in Infant Formula
India's food safety authority has drafted regulations to prohibit sweeteners like sucrose and fructose in formula meant for babies under six months old to combat childhood obesity and promote health.
Draft notification issued by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Proposes a ban on sweeteners like sucrose and fructose in formulas for infants up to 6 months.
Amends the existing Food Safety and Standards (Foods for Infant Nutrition) Regulations, 2019.
Formulas for ages 6 to 24 months may still contain limited permissible levels of sweetening agents.
Key terms
FSSAI
— India's apex statutory authority responsible for protecting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
Added sugars
— Sweetening agents and syrups incorporated during the industrial processing or preparation of foods, distinct from intrinsic sugars naturally found in milk or whole fruits.
Exclusive breastfeeding
— The feeding practice where an infant receives only breast milk without any additional foods, liquids, or water during the first six months of life.
8. India Outpaces China in Global Greenfield Inflows Over 2020–25: UNCTAD
UNCTAD’s Trade and Development Report shows India captured 5.7% of global greenfield investments over 2020–25, doubling China’s share amidst a global shift toward strategic sectors.
Released in UNCTAD's Trade and Development Report.
India captured 5.7% of global greenfield investments during 2020–25, exceeding China's 2.8%, Malaysia's 4%, and Indonesia's 3.8%.
Share of strategic sectors in total global greenfield inflows expanded from 16% to 44% during the 2020–25 period.
Artificial intelligence infrastructure secured the largest chunk of strategic outlays at 12.4%, followed by semiconductors (8.1%) and energy transition (7.8%).
India rolled out 707 industrial policy interventions between 2022 and 2025, after enacting 1,416 measures between 2008 and 2021.
Key terms
Greenfield investments
— Foreign direct investments where a company builds new operational facilities and ventures from the ground up in another country.
Strategic sectors
— Critical technology and infrastructure areas, such as artificial intelligence, semiconductors, and clean energy, considered vital for national competitiveness.
9. India Targets $40–45 Billion Space Economy in 7–8 Years
India's space sector is projected to expand from $9 billion to $45 billion within eight years by leveraging private sector commercialization, predictable demand, and regulatory facilitation.
India’s space market size is presently estimated at $9 billion, targeting $40–45 billion over 7–8 years.
Private sector participation was structurally opened up during 2019–2020 reforms.
IN-SPACe serves as the critical regulatory and promotional agency for non-government entities.
India extends regional disaster management space support to neighbors like Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and Myanmar.
Key terms
IN-SPACe
— An autonomous single-window nodal agency under the Department of Space to promote, authorize, and supervise private sector space activities.
Anchor government customers
— Public entities committing to early procurement of new technologies to de-risk investment and spur commercial development.
Downstream services
— Commercial space applications that process satellite signals and imagery for terrestrial uses like agriculture, disaster monitoring, and communications.
10. Bilateral Maritime Exercise Konkan-26 Concludes off Plymouth, UK
The Indian Navy and UK's Royal Navy completed the bilateral maritime exercise Konkan-26 to boost tactical interoperability and operational cooperation.
11. Project Seabird Phase IIA Infrastructure Inaugurated at Karwar Naval Base
Key civilian accommodation, healthcare, and civic utility facilities under Project Seabird Phase IIA were operationalised to bolster India's primary naval stronghold on the western seaboard.
12. IITM Pune Convenes First Stakeholder Consultation for Climate Services Forum
IITM Pune hosted the inaugural Climate Science into Services for India Forum to bridge the gap between academic climate modelling and sector-specific policy decisions.
13. FSSAI Proposes Science-Based Pesticide Residue Limits for Tea
FSSAI has issued draft amendments establishing specific residue thresholds for two common pesticides in tea to balance consumer safety with agricultural protection needs.
14. FSSAI Proposes Barring Sucrose and Fructose in Infant Foods Under Six Months
FSSAI has issued draft regulations to ban added sucrose and fructose in nutritional formulations meant for babies under six months to curb childhood obesity and enforce age-appropriate diet standards.
15. Kerala's Pioneering Legislation on Senior Citizens Care and Rights Protection
Kerala proposes a landmark bill shifting elderly care from charitable welfare to a rights-based entitlement framework focused on community living and institutional regulation.
The proposed law is titled The Keralam Senior Citizens (Care and Protection of Rights) Bill, 2026.
First state-level legislation in India moving towards a legally codified entitlements-based framework for geriatric care.
Prioritises 'ageing in place', designating institutional living facilities strictly as a measure of last resort.
Establishes district-level administrative setups for dispute handling, accountability, and convergence across departments.
Introduces formal certification, registration standards, and penal provisions including imprisonment and fines for elder rights violations.
Key terms
Ageing in place
— A care philosophy supporting older individuals to reside safely and comfortably within their own homes and local environments rather than moving to institutional care.
Intrinsic capacity
— The composite of all physical and mental reserves and abilities an individual can draw upon throughout their life course.
Functional dependency
— The degree to which an individual relies on external personal or medical assistance to perform routine daily activities.
16. Neelakurinji Blooming Concludes in Munnar's Chokramudi and Moves to Meesapulimala
The periodical flowering of Neelakurinji concluded in Munnar's lower ranges following successful conservation against illegal encroachment, shifting now toward the higher peaks of Meesapulimala.
Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana) follows an approximately 12-year flowering cycle, with the next major bloom at Chokramudi predicted for 2038.
Bloom pattern progresses chronologically from lower altitudes to higher elevations, moving from Chokramudi and Korandakkad up to Meesapulimala.
Seeds fall by January and germinate by June following the completion of the flowering season.
Chokramudi hills witnessed an ecological rebound after community-driven protests against illegal construction pushed authorities to repossess encroached revenue land.
Key terms
Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana)
— A montane shrub endemic to the Western Ghats known for its synchronized, periodic flowering every twelve years.
Ecological revival
— The natural restoration and regeneration of native species and habitat functionality after suffering disturbance or degradation.
17. The History, Settlement, and Heritage of Kerala's Cochin Jews
Recent fires around heritage sites in Kochi highlight the rich historical trajectory and dwindling population of the ancient Jewish diaspora in Kerala.
18. Nilekani Task Force Proposes Question Vaults to Curb Exam Paper Leaks
A high-level task force led by Nandan Nilekani is considering digital question vaults and just-in-time paper assembly to systematically prevent examination leaks.
19. Allahabad HC Orders UP Panchayat Polls in 3 Months with Existing Quota
The Allahabad High Court directed Uttar Pradesh to conduct overdue rural local body elections within three months using the prevailing reservation structure while an OBC inquiry continues.
Allahabad HC directed completion of UP panchayat polls within three months from October 14.
Polls to be held under current quota rules, preserving the 27% reservation for OBCs.
The 5-member UP State Rural Local Bodies Dedicated Backward Classes Commission is led by Justice Ram Autar Singh.
Petitioners challenged the state's invocation of Section 12(3-A) of the UP Panchayati Raj Act appointing outgoing pradhans as administrators.
Key terms
Triple Test
— A mandatory judicial framework requiring an empirical inquiry by a dedicated commission to determine proportional OBC reservation in local bodies without exceeding aggregate caps.
State Election Commission (SEC)
— A constitutional body responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to rural and urban local bodies.
20. Ladakh Talks Stall Over Statehood Demands and Governance Structure
Negotiations between the Ministry of Home Affairs and Ladakh representatives hit an impasse as the Centre rejected demands for full statehood, a legislative assembly, or Sixth Schedule status, proposing instead a unique governance model…
21. Indonesian Delegation to Inspect Rescued Orangutans at Odisha Zoo
India has agreed in principle to allow Indonesian wildlife officials to inspect five rescued infant orangutans at Nandankanan Zoological Park to verify their origin and facilitate potential repatriation.
Five infant orangutans were intercepted in Bichitrapur forest, Balasore, and shifted to Nandankanan Zoological Park.
Indonesia's Ministry of Forestry reached out via its CITES Management Authority to assess health and verify provenance.
All three orangutan species (Bornean, Sumatran, and Tapanuli) are categorized as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) is tasked with testing DNA samples to determine the exact species.
Key terms
CITES
— An international multilateral treaty regulating cross-border commercial and non-commercial trade in wild flora and fauna to prevent species endangerment.
IUCN Red List
— A globally recognized conservation inventory assessing the extinction risk of biological species based on scientific criteria.
Consider the following statements regarding guidelines on added sugars and infant health:
Statement-I: The World Health Organization (WHO) advises against the introduction of added sugars in children's diets before the age of two years.
Statement-II: Excessive consumption of added sugars during infancy is linked to dietary risk factors such as childhood obesity, Type 2 diabetes, and tooth decay.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
Statement-I is correct: The World Health Organization advises against the introduction of added sugars before two years of age.
Statement-II is correct: Early exposure to added sugars promotes addictive sweet preferences and increases risks of chronic ailments like childhood obesity, Type 2 diabetes, tooth decay, and heart disease.
Statement-II directly explains the rationale behind the WHO's advisory guideline.
b Statement-II provides the direct medical and public health reasoning behind the WHO's recommendation stated in Statement-I.
c Statement-II is correct; excessive sugar consumption in infancy is linked to obesity, diabetes, and dental issues.
d Statement-I is correct as WHO specifically recommends against added sugars prior to two years of age.
With reference to the bilateral maritime exercise 'KONKAN-26', consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint maritime exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the French Navy.
2. The Indian Navy was represented in the exercise by the stealth frigate INS Trishul.
3. The exercise involved tactical drills focusing on anti-submarine warfare and anti-surface asymmetric warfare.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: KONKAN is a bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the United Kingdom, not France.
Statement 2 is correct: INS Trishul, a stealth frigate, represented the Indian Navy during the exercise.
Statement 3 is correct: The Sea Phase encompassed tactical exercises including anti-surface asymmetric warfare, anti-submarine warfare, and weapon firings.
b Statement 3 is correct, and Statement 1 is incorrect because the exercise is conducted with the UK Royal Navy.
c Statement 1 is incorrect as the exercise is bilateral between India and the UK.
d Statement 1 is incorrect as the exercise is bilateral between India and the UK.
Consider the following statements regarding the infrastructure under Project Seabird Phase IIA at Karwar:
1. The expansion augments the capacity of the naval hospital, INHS Patanjali.
2. The project aligns with 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' by sourcing more than 90% of materials and equipment domestically.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Under Project Seabird Phase IIA, residential and healthcare facilities include augmenting the existing naval hospital, INHS Patanjali, to 409 beds.
In alignment with Aatmanirbhar Bharat, over 90% of the materials and equipment for the project are being sourced domestically.
a Both statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the release facts.
b Statement 2 is also correct as over 90% of materials and equipment are sourced domestically.
d Statement 1 is also correct as INHS Patanjali is being augmented under the project.
Consider the following locations in the Western Ghats:
1. Chokramudi
2. Korandakkad
3. Meesapulimala
How many of the above locations are known habitats associated with the periodic blooming of Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana)?
Answer: (c)
All three locations (Chokramudi hills, Korandakkad, and Meesapulimala) in the Munnar landscape are prominent sites where the Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana) blooms.
a Incorrect because all three listed sites, not just one, are associated with the bloom.
b Incorrect because all three sites witnessed or are scheduled for the Neelakurinji bloom.
d Incorrect because all three sites are prominent blooming destinations.
Consider the following statements:
1. Acetamiprid and Imidacloprid are commonly used pesticides for which Maximum Residue Limits in tea have been formulated under Indian food safety regulations.
2. India's national average pesticide consumption per hectare is substantially higher than the global average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Acetamiprid and Imidacloprid are two specific pesticides for which draft Maximum Residue Limits (MRLs) in tea were proposed under the Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Amendment Regulations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India's average pesticide consumption is comparatively low (less than 0.5 kg per hectare), which is significantly below the estimated global average of 2.38 kg per hectare.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because India's average pesticide use per hectare is far below the global average.
c Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
Regarding the regulatory and institutional framework under the Keralam Senior Citizens (Care and Protection of Rights) Bill, consider the following provisions:
1. Registration and regulation of care institutions.
2. Mandatory caregiver training and certification.
3. Penalties, including fines and imprisonment, for specified violations.
4. District-level institutional mechanisms for grievance redressal and coordination.
How many of the above provisions are envisaged under the Bill?
Answer: (d)
All four provisions are included in the legislation.
The Bill addresses critical gaps through registration and regulation of care institutions, caregiver training and certification, and minimum service standards.
It establishes district-level institutional mechanisms to enhance accountability, grievance redressal, and coordination.
It also introduces penalties including fines and imprisonment for specified violations to protect elderly rights.
a Incorrect because all four listed measures are explicit components of the Bill.
b Incorrect because all four listed measures are explicit components of the Bill.
c Incorrect because all four listed measures are explicit components of the Bill.
The 'Trade and Development Report', which periodically tracks global capital flows, greenfield investments, and industrial policies, is published by which of the following organizations?
Answer: (d)
The Trade and Development Report is a flagship publication released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
The report monitors macroeconomic trends, trade dynamics, and global greenfield and strategic investments.
a The World Bank publishes reports such as the World Development Report and Global Economic Prospects.
b The OECD publishes the OECD Economic Outlook and FDI in Figures, not the Trade and Development Report.
c The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and Global Risks Report.
In the context of modern examination security mechanisms, what does the concept of a 'Question Vault' primarily entail?
Answer: (b)
A question vault mechanism involves maintaining a large bank of vetted, verified, and translated questions prepared year-round by experts without them knowing the specific test paper.
The final examination paper is randomly assembled from this digital vault based on a blueprint and encrypted shortly before the examination commences, eliminating economic incentives for paper leaks.
a This describes conventional physical storage methods, whereas the vault is a digital, software-backed repository for last-minute compilation.
c The vault specifically deals with question curation, storage, and automated paper assembly, not biometric credential verification.
d The vault is meant for confidential question generation and leak prevention, not candidate study material.
With reference to the Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements:
1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) can receive ABS contributions from commercial entities for the utilisation of agricultural biological resources.
2. When biological resources are procured through open markets and individual benefit claimers cannot be identified, funds can be distributed to State Biodiversity Boards in proportion to estimated cultivation areas.
3. Funds disbursed to State Biodiversity Boards under ABS must be utilized exclusively for community livelihood schemes and cannot be used for biodiversity documentation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The NBA receives ABS contributions from companies conducting research or commercial utilisation of agricultural biological resources (such as maize, rice, and cotton hybrids).
Statement 2 is correct: When individual benefit claimers cannot be readily identified because resources were procured via markets/traders, allocations to State Biodiversity Boards can be determined in proportion to estimated cultivation areas based on official agricultural statistics.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Section 32(2) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the funds can be utilised for biodiversity documentation, conservation, sustainable use, strengthening governance, research, capacity building, as well as community livelihood enhancement.
a Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because biodiversity documentation is explicitly an allowed activity under Section 32(2).
c Statement 3 is incorrect as the Act explicitly permits spending on biodiversity documentation and research.
d Statement 2 is also correct regarding the proportional allocation mechanism based on cultivation areas.
With reference to the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, consider the following statements:
1. It replaces the older MGNREGA framework and provides a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment per rural household in a financial year.
2. The Act statutorily reserves a mandatory additional 50 days of guaranteed wage employment specifically for Forest Rights Act (FRA) title holders.
3. The Central Government, on a State's recommendation, is empowered to grant enhanced wage-employment provisioning during natural calamities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
The VB-G RAM G Act provides a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment per rural household in a financial year, replacing the MGNREGA model.
The Act does not contain a separate mandatory tier for FRA title holders; Section 5(4) is discretionary and mentions no specific group.
Under Section 7 of the Act, the Centre is empowered, on a State's recommendation, to grant relaxations during natural calamities, including enhanced wage-employment provisioning.
b Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act does not statutorily provide a dedicated tier of extra work for FRA title holders.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act has no separate tier or mandatory statutory provision for FRA title holders.
d Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
With reference to India's energy imports and crude oil consumption profile, consider the following statements:
1. India depends on imports to meet more than 85% of its total crude oil requirements.
2. Most Indian refineries are technically attuned to processing the medium-sour grade crude imported from Russia.
3. Historically, prior to the geopolitical disruptions in West Asia, about 40% of India's crude imports typically transited through the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
India depends on imports to meet over 88% of its crude oil needs, making statement 1 correct.
Most Indian refiners are technically attuned to the medium-sour Russian crude that India primarily imports, making statement 2 correct.
Prior to disruptions linked to the West Asia crisis, approximately 40% of India's crude imports typically came through the Strait of Hormuz, making statement 3 correct.
a Statement 1 is also correct because India imports over 88% of its crude requirements.
b Statement 3 is also correct as approximately 40% of India's crude oil imports historically transited via the Strait of Hormuz.
d Statement 2 is also correct as Indian refiners are technically suited to medium-sour Russian oil.
With reference to the development and commercialisation of India's space sector, consider the following statements:
1. The opening of the domestic space sector to private sector participation was formally initiated in 2019–2020.
2. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is exclusively mandated to develop launch vehicles and manufacture satellites for government defence agencies.
3. Space technology in India is utilised beyond space exploration for terrestrial governance, including geotagging development works and monitoring project timelines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The opening of India's space sector to private participation was undertaken in 2019–2020 to build commercial capabilities alongside public institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) promotes and authorises private space activities rather than functioning exclusively as a manufacturer of launch vehicles and satellites for defence agencies.
Statement 3 is correct: India's space programme extensively uses space applications on Earth, including project clearances, infrastructure monitoring, and geotagging of development works.
a Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect; IN-SPACe facilitates and promotes private sector participation in the space sector rather than being an exclusive manufacturer for defence.
With reference to Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR) of anti-cancer medicines in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) implemented trade margin rationalisation for identified non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs.
2. The trade margin cap on these non-scheduled formulations has been fixed at 30% under the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013.
3. The selection of the medicines for this rationalisation was based on the recommendations of an Expert Committee under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
The NPPA has undertaken trade margin rationalisation (TMR) of identified non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs to make cancer care more affordable.
NPPA capped the trade margin at 30% of the MRP in accordance with paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013.
The list of 137 anti-cancer drugs was recommended by an Expert Committee constituted under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS).
a Statement 2 is also correct as the trade margin was capped at 30% under paragraph 19 of DPCO, 2013.
c Statement 1 is also correct as NPPA is the implementing authority for the TMR exercise.
d Statement 3 is also correct as the list was finalized following recommendations from an Expert Committee under the DGHS.
With reference to the impacts of climate change on high-altitude glacial dynamics, consider the following statements:
1. Moulins are vertical shafts carved through glacial ice that transport surface meltwater down to the bedrock.
2. Subglacial water acts as a lubricant between the bedrock and the glacier, accelerating downslope movement.
3. Permafrost in high-altitude environments acts as geological cement by filling rock fractures with solid ice.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Meltwater carves vertical shafts called moulins, which plunge through the ice to reach the bedrock.
Statement 2 is correct: Meltwater forming a pressurised liquid layer between rock and ice lubricates the glacier, enabling faster downslope movement.
Statement 3 is correct: Permafrost functions as geological cement in steep rock walls by filling fractures, joints, and pores with solid ice.
a Incorrect because all three statements are accurate descriptions of high-altitude glacial and permafrost dynamics.
b Incorrect because all three statements are correct.
d Incorrect because all three statements are correct.
With reference to the history and settlement of Cochin Jews in Kerala, consider the following statements:
1. The famous copper plates dated around 1000 CE were issued to Joseph Rabban by King Bhaskara Ravi Varma of Cranganore.
2. The ancient Jewish settlement of Anjuvannam was relocated to Cochin following the floods of 1341 and internal disputes.
3. The Paradesi Jews intermarried extensively with the native population upon their arrival, unlike the Malabari Jews.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The copper plates of c. 1000 CE granted by King Bhaskara Ravi Varma conferred 72 royal privileges and land at Anjuvannam to Joseph Rabban. The devastating floods of 1341 altered the Periyar river course and silted Kodungallur port, coupled with internal fighting, forcing the community to move to Cochin.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was the Malabari Jews who intermarried with the local population, whereas the Paradesi ('foreigner') Jews refused to mix with native peoples or Malabari Jews, strictly marrying within their own community to preserve perceived purity.
a Statement 3 is incorrect because Paradesi Jews maintained strict endogamy and avoided intermarriage with locals.
b Statement 3 is incorrect.
c Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the compliance reforms approved by the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:
1. Small taxpayers supplying goods through e-commerce platforms are permitted to obtain registration in a single State instead of registering in each State where they sell.
2. Input services are made eligible for refunds under the inverted duty structure.
3. GST rate revisions are mandated to be taken up by the Council twice a year and implemented semi-annually.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
The GST Council approved a simplified registration mechanism allowing small e-commerce sellers to register in a single State rather than in every State of operation.
Input services have been made eligible for refunds under the inverted duty structure.
Rate decisions will come up before the GST Council only once a year (not twice a year) and will be implemented from the start of the subsequent financial year.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, so all three cannot be correct.
b Statement 1 is correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect because rate revisions will occur only once a year.
c Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the 'triple test' framework mandated by the Supreme Court for providing reservation to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in local body elections, consider the following statements:
1. It mandates the establishment of a dedicated commission to conduct an empirical inquiry into the nature and implications of backwardness in local bodies.
2. It requires specifying the proportion of reservation required to be provisioned local body-wise in accordance with constitutional requirements.
3. It permits local body elections to be conducted by converting OBC-reserved seats into open category seats automatically if the dedicated commission's inquiry is delayed beyond statutory limits.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 2 correctly reflect the triple test requirements: setting up a dedicated commission to conduct an empirical inquiry into backwardness among OBCs in local bodies and determining the proportion of reservation required.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the High Court ruled that OBC-reserved seats cannot be treated as open seats pending the dedicated commission's inquiry.
b Statement 3 is incorrect.
c Statement 1 is correct while Statement 3 is incorrect; the court affirmed that OBC-reserved seats cannot be treated as open seats pending the inquiry.
d Statement 2 is correct while Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the Climate Science into Services for India Forum (CSSIF), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to connect climate science with actionable services to support policy-relevant decision-making across sectors.
2. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, operates under the administrative purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
3. The initiative advocates establishing a Climate Services Information System (CSIS) to meet national climate information needs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The CSSIF initiative is designed to bridge climate science and practical services for policy-relevant information and informed decision-making across various sectors.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, is an autonomous institute functioning under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
Statement 3 is correct: A primary technical objective discussed under the forum is addressing the need for a Climate Services Information System (CSIS) for the nation.
a Incorrect because all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
b Incorrect because all three statements are correct, not just two.
d Incorrect because none of the statements are false.
With reference to the governance and constitutional framework proposed for the Union Territory of Ladakh, consider the following statements:
1. The proposed framework envisions conferring full statehood alongside the creation of a legislative assembly.
2. The draft proposal suggests introducing Article 371K in the Constitution to establish an elected Union Territory-level body and safeguard land and culture.
3. Supplementary governance provisions outside the constitutional amendment are proposed to be enacted via regulations under Article 240.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The proposal specifically decided that Ladakh would neither become a state nor a Union Territory with a legislature; instead, a sui generis model is being developed.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 371K was suggested to be incorporated into the Constitution to provide for an elected Union Territory-level body and protect land, natural resources, and culture.
Statement 3 is correct: Provisions not incorporated into the constitutional amendment are planned to be separately enacted through regulations under Article 240 of the Constitution.
a Statement 1 is incorrect, whereas Statement 2 is correct.
b Statement 1 is incorrect, making the all-inclusive option incorrect.
c Statement 1 is incorrect because statehood and a legislative assembly were explicitly ruled out in favour of a unique, non-legislative elected body.
With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and international wildlife trade, consider the following statements:
1. Cross-border trade in orangutans is strictly restricted under CITES and is permitted only for research purposes.
2. In member countries, designated national CITES management authorities are responsible for issuing trade permits and implementing the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Under CITES, cross-border trade in orangutans is strictly restricted and is permissible only for research purposes.
Statement 2 is correct: Each party/country designated a CITES management authority that implements the treaty's provisions and issues relevant trade permits.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are correct based on CITES operational mechanisms and trade rules.
c Statement 2 is also correct as designated CITES management authorities in each country are responsible for treaty implementation and issuing permits.
d Statement 1 is also correct because trade in orangutans under CITES is restricted exclusively to research purposes.
With reference to the draft Food Safety and Standards (Foods for Infant Nutrition) Amendment Regulations, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The draft regulations propose a complete prohibition on the addition of sucrose and fructose in food products intended for infants up to six months of age.
2. Under the existing regulations, lactose and glucose polymers are recognized as the preferred sources of carbohydrates for infant nutrition products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The draft amendment proposes that sucrose and fructose shall not be added in products intended for infants up to six months of age.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the existing Food Safety and Standards (Foods for Infant Nutrition) Regulations, lactose and glucose polymers are the preferred sources of carbohydrates.
a Statement 1 is also correct as the draft amendment explicitly bans adding sucrose and fructose for infants up to six months.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate based on the regulatory provisions.
c Statement 2 is also correct as current norms specify lactose and glucose polymers as preferred carbohydrate sources.
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