What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal said the first tranche of the India-U.S. trade deal is complete, but it will be implemented only after India's competitive edge over peer countries is clearer, while the U.S. tariff position remains unsettled.
The first tranche of the India-U.S. Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) was declared 'finalised' by Piyush Goyal on October 15, 2026; only final contours and legal drafting remain.
Implementation is tied to India getting comparable or competitive advantage over peer countries.
The BTA was originally due by 'Fall 2025'; an interim trade agreement announced in February 2026 was due for implementation by March-April 2026.
The U.S. levies a 10% tariff on Indian imports after a Section 301 probe into goods made with forced labour; a separate Section 301 probe on excess capacity could bring more tariffs.
A September 2026 U.S. law allows tariffs of up to 100% on countries importing large amounts of Russian oil and gas, which could include India.
Key terms
Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA)
— A comprehensive trade pact between two countries covering tariffs and market access, usually negotiated in stages.
Interim agreement
— A limited, provisional trade arrangement signed before the full agreement is concluded.
Section 301 investigation
— A U.S. trade-law probe into a foreign country's unfair practices that can lead to unilateral tariffs.
Competitive advantage
— A country's edge over rivals in price, quality or market access that makes a trade deal worthwhile for it.
2. Wholesale inflation hits 11.4% record under new series in September 2026
Wholesale price inflation rose to 11.4% in September 2026, the highest under the new WPI series and a 49-month high on the old series, driven mainly by food and fuel.
3. Unemployment rate steady at 5% in September, per PLFS data
The Periodic Labour Force Survey shows the national unemployment rate at 5% in September, unchanged from August and down year-on-year, with rural joblessness edging up slightly and urban female unemployment rising.
Overall unemployment rate (UR) was 5% in September, versus August's level, and down 0.2 percentage points from September 2025.
Overall Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for those aged 15 and above was 55.5% in September, against 55.6% in August.
Overall Worker Population Ratio (WPR) was 52.7% in September, against 52.8% in August.
Rural UR was 4.2% and urban UR was 6.9% in September; rural female UR was 3.9%, reported as the lowest for 2026.
Monthly estimates are drawn from a sample of 3,70,513 persons across India, collected under the Periodic Labour Force Survey run by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Key terms
PLFS
— Periodic Labour Force Survey, the primary official source of data on labour force participation, employment and unemployment in India.
LFPR
— Labour Force Participation Rate: the percentage of persons in a given age group (here 15 and above) who are either working or actively seeking work.
WPR
— Worker Population Ratio: the percentage of the population that is actually employed.
UR
— Unemployment Rate: the percentage of the labour force that is available for work but not employed.
NSO
— National Statistical Office, the body under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation that conducts the PLFS.
4. Merchandise exports rise 23% in September as trade deficit narrows
India's merchandise exports grew about 23% in September, helped by petroleum products, electronics and chemicals, while a sharp fall in gold imports narrowed the year-on-year trade deficit even as the monthly gap widened from August.
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has drafted BS-VII emission standards that add real-world testing, brake and tyre particle limits and battery-durability checks, phased in from April 2029 for cars.
6. Kufri Jamunia: A Biofortified Purple Potato Against Hidden Hunger
ICAR-CPRI's purple-fleshed Kufri Jamunia, released in 2024, offers higher vitamin C, anthocyanins, zinc and iron than common potatoes, positioning it as a food-based tool against hidden hunger.
7. Kolkata Durga Puja stampede exposes gaps in crowd regulation
A stampede at a Durga Puja pandal in Kolkata's Girish Park area killed 19 people, and the editorial argues that better crowd management could have prevented it.
8. Iran's seven-day plan to reopen the Strait of Hormuz and the US standoff
Iran says its seven-day proposal to reopen the Strait of Hormuz remains open, tied to US lifting its port blockade and oil sanctions, while Washington presses on Iran's nuclear programme.
The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran and Oman and carried about one-fifth of global oil and LNG trade before the West Asia war.
Iran's seven-day plan sought an end to hostilities (including in Lebanon), US oil-sanction waivers, release of frozen assets (at least $12 billion) and lifting of the US naval blockade, with the strait opening on day seven.
The plan builds on a June Memorandum of Understanding that extended a ceasefire announced in April by 60 days; the MoU unravelled in early July after alleged violations by both sides.
The MoU reportedly gave Iran and Oman the role of determining how maritime traffic through the Strait is administered.
US midterm elections are on November 3; Republicans currently control both Houses of Congress.
Key terms
Strait of Hormuz
— A narrow waterway between Iran and Oman linking the Persian Gulf to the open ocean, critical for global oil and LNG transit.
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
— A non-binding written agreement setting out the terms and commitments between parties before or alongside a fuller treaty.
Naval blockade
— A military measure in which a state prevents ships from entering or leaving another state's ports or coastline.
Sanctions waiver
— A temporary exemption by a government allowing otherwise restricted transactions, such as oil exports, to proceed.
Uranium enrichment
— Process of increasing the proportion of the fissile isotope U-235 in uranium, central to both nuclear power and weapons programmes.
9. Trump pauses Russia sanctions bill, easing tariff threat on India
A US pause on Russia-related sanctions legislation lowers the threat of 100% tariffs on India, which relies heavily on Russian crude, and may open room for a bilateral trade deal even as global and domestic fuel inflation rises.
10. Government caps trade margin at 30% on 137 anti-cancer drugs
The government has capped trade margins at 30% on 137 cancer medicines, including patented drugs, to curb hefty mark-ups and bring down MRPs, with revised prices effective from 9 November 2026.
11. How SSC's 'Q Vault' has kept its exams leak-free for five years
The Staff Selection Commission has run a digital question bank for five years with no reported paper leaks, offering a model as the NEET-UG leak prompts reform of NTA exams.
SSC falls under the Department of Personnel and Training (Union government) and recruits staff for ministries, departments and subordinate offices
SSC uses a digital question vault where subject-matter experts upload questions; the bank holds roughly 1–2 lakh questions at any time
Question papers are assembled and encrypted shortly before the exam (e.g., 4:45 pm for a 5 pm test) and delivered digitally to about 200 centres
SSC conducts computer-based tests (CBTs), not pen-and-paper OMR exams, so no printed papers exist to leak
Since 2024, following a Supreme Court order, the agency setting questions cannot be the agency conducting the exam (TCS previously ran SSC exams until 2024)
Key terms
Question Vault
— A secure digital repository of pre-vetted questions from which papers are generated at the last minute.
Computer-Based Test (CBT)
— An examination taken on computers, removing the need for printed question papers and OMR sheets.
High-Powered Task Force (HPTF)
— A special body set up to recommend reforms; here, chaired by Nandan Nilekani for NTA exams.
Blueprint
— A predetermined design specifying the difficulty levels and question types for a given test.
12. Special Campaign 6.0: Postal Department's Progress on Grievances, Cleanliness and E-Waste
The Department of Posts reports interim progress in its October 2026 Special Campaign 6.0, covering grievance redressal, appeals, cleanliness drives, scrap and e-waste disposal, and space management, with several targets still well short of…
13. Rajnath Singh to Represent India at SCO Heads of Government Meet
India's Defence Minister will attend the 25th SCO Council of Heads of Government meeting in Dushanbe, focused on trade, investment, connectivity and innovation among member states.
14. DRI seizes 137 kg crystal meth in Nagapattinam, busts coastal smuggling network
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized 137 kg of crystal methamphetamine from a Nagapattinam coastal village, meant for smuggling to Sri Lanka, and arrested four people.
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) carried out the operation, which was reported under the Ministry of Finance.
The seizure was 137 kg gross of crystal methamphetamine, packed in six duffel bags holding 27 silver-foil packets of about 5 kg each.
The drug was intended for Sri Lanka through a mid-sea transfer, so the case concerns maritime smuggling.
Four persons were arrested under the NDPS Act, 1985 and remanded to judicial custody; Rs 10 lakh cash and three vehicles were also seized.
The seized contraband is valued at over Rs 100 crore in the illicit market.
Key terms
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
— An Indian agency that gathers intelligence and investigates smuggling and evasion of customs and revenue laws, including narcotics trafficking cases such as this one.
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985
— Central law that regulates narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and sets penalties for their production, possession, trafficking and financing.
Mid-sea transfer
— Moving illicit cargo from one vessel to another at sea, used to avoid detection by coastal authorities before the goods reach land.
Crystal methamphetamine
— A high-purity synthetic stimulant drug, banned under Indian law, that is manufactured chemically rather than extracted from plants.
15. China's record trade surplus draws global criticism; new China-North Korea bridge opens
Global leaders, including India's Finance Minister, pressed China over its record trade surplus and export-led growth, while a new road-and-rail-style crossing over the Yalu River deepened China's economic ties with North Korea.
16. France's protests expose a fiscal squeeze, rising debt and a political deadlock
Month-long student protests have widened into nationwide unrest over living costs and weak public services, exposing how France's high spending, slow growth and fragmented politics feed each other.
17. Kolkata Durga Puja crowd crush: causes and prevention of crowd disasters
A crowd surge at a Durga Puja pandal in Kolkata killed at least 19 people, raising questions about how large gatherings are managed and how such disasters can be prevented.
18. IAF C-130J Conducts Night Medical Evacuation from Leh to Delhi
An IAF C-130J airlifted a critically ill civilian from Leh to Palam at short notice, flying at night in poor weather, showing the Air Force's humanitarian response capacity.
19. STPI Tech Conclave Explores AI for Healthcare and Assistive Technology at IIT BHU
STPI and IIT BHU's CIIE hosted a Varanasi conclave on applying AI to healthcare access, citizen well-being and assistive technologies, with startups, academia and government in dialogue.
STPI is an S&T organisation under MeitY; the conclave was held at IIT BHU, Varanasi, with its Centre for Innovation, Incubation and Entrepreneurship (CIIE).
Keynote by S. Krishnan, Secretary, MeitY; STPI Director General Arvind Kumar spoke on the sector's growth since 1991.
STPI has 27 Centres of Entrepreneurship, per its Director General.
Examples of AI health applications cited: disease screening, medical diagnostics, remote ICU monitoring and AI-assisted surgical planning.
Support referenced: the IndiaAI Mission and other MeitY initiatives; the conclave had two panel discussions.
Key terms
STPI
— Software Technology Parks of India, an S&T organisation under MeitY supporting IT, startups and export-oriented tech growth.
CIIE
— Centre for Innovation, Incubation and Entrepreneurship, IIT BHU's body nurturing startups among students and faculty.
Translational research
— Research that moves ideas from lab validation toward practical, scalable real-world application.
Assistive technology
— Tools and systems that help persons with disabilities perform everyday tasks and improve their independence.
20. Secretary Visits Munsyari to Review Himalayan Trout Farming Growth
The Union Fisheries Secretary reviewed coldwater aquaculture in Munsyari, Pithoragarh, where rainbow trout farming is shifting local livelihoods toward semi-commercial production and new export and border-supply markets.
Consider the following statements regarding India's crude oil imports from Russia:
1. Russia became India's largest crude supplier after the 2022 invasion of Ukraine, as it offered discounted oil to willing buyers while much of the West shunned its crude.
2. Before the Ukraine war, Russia was India's traditional principal supplier, which it later lost to West Asian suppliers.
3. India imports over 88% of its crude oil requirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Russia, earlier a peripheral supplier, emerged as India's biggest source by offering discounts after February 2022, displacing traditional West Asian suppliers.
India depends on imports for over 88% of its crude needs.
Statement 2 reverses the position: West Asia was the traditional supplier and Russia was peripheral.
b Statement 2 is wrong because Russia was a peripheral supplier before the war, not the traditional one.
c Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it is wrong; statement 2 is also false.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent seizure of crystal methamphetamine in Nagapattinam district, Tamil Nadu:
1. The seizure was made by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, which functions under the Ministry of Finance.
2. The contraband was seized under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
3. The consignment was intended to be smuggled to Sri Lanka through mid-sea transfer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
DRI is the Ministry of Finance's enforcement agency and made the Nagapattinam seizure of 137 kg (gross) crystal methamphetamine.
The contraband was seized and the four accused arrested under the NDPS Act, 1985.
The consignment was meant to reach Sri Lanka through mid-sea transfer, so all three statements are correct.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct: the mid-sea transfer to Sri Lanka was the intended route.
c Omits statement 2, which is correct: the NDPS Act, 1985 was invoked.
d Omits statement 1, which is correct: DRI works under the Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding wholesale and retail inflation in India as of September 2026:
Statement-I: Wholesale inflation in September 2026 rose to its highest level under the new WPI series, with food and fuel being the main drivers.
Statement-II: The West Asia war and the blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, through which the majority of India's crude oil is imported, raised global crude and fertiliser costs, with spillover effects on food and commodity prices.
Which one of the following is correct in the context of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
Wholesale inflation hit a series-high 11.4% in September 2026 under the new WPI, driven by food and fuel.
The Hormuz blockade pushed up global crude and fertiliser costs, spilling over to food and commodity prices, which directly explains the rise in food and fuel inflation.
b Statement-II gives the causal mechanism behind the food and fuel-driven rise, so it does explain Statement-I.
c Statement-II is correct: the West Asia war and Hormuz blockade raised crude and fertiliser costs.
d Statement-I is correct: 11.4% was the highest under the new series.
Statement-I: The editorial argues that the Kolkata pandal stampede could have been avoided with better organisation and crowd regulation.
Statement-II: Packed crowds can remain incident-free only if sudden surges of movement, often triggered by panic, are avoided throughout, and the crowd should have been weaned away in a regulated manner.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
The editorial says both the police and organisers failed to anticipate the surge, so the stampede was avoidable.
It reasons that dense crowds stay safe only if panic-driven surges are avoided, and that the crowd should have been dispersed in a regulated manner.
Statement-II gives the crowd-management principle that explains why better regulation could have prevented the deaths.
b Statement-II directly supplies the reasoning for Statement-I, so it does explain it.
c Statement-II is stated in the editorial and is correct.
d Statement-I is correct; the editorial says the stampede could have been avoided.
With reference to Software Technology Parks of India (STPI), consider the following statements:
1. It is an S&T organization under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. It has facilitated the growth of India's IT/ITeS industry since 1991.
3. It connects startups with investors, venture capital networks and market opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
STPI is a premier S&T organization under MeitY.
It has facilitated growth of India's IT/ITeS industry since 1991.
Its role includes linking startups with investors, venture capital networks and markets.
With reference to the fiscal situation described in France, consider the following statements:
1. The budget deficit is the accumulated amount the government owes, while public debt is the annual shortfall between revenue and spending.
2. Because France is a member of the euro area, it cannot independently create euros to meet its obligations.
3. Investors who fear that a government's debt is growing too quickly may demand higher interest rates, making new borrowing more expensive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Deficit is the annual shortfall between revenue and spending; debt is the accumulated amount owed. Statement 1 reverses them.
Euro membership means France cannot print its own currency, unlike a country with its own currency.
With reference to crowd disasters in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex body for formulating disaster-management policies in the country.
2. According to the NDMA, compressive asphyxia has historically been the most common cause of death in crowd disasters.
3. The NDMA report notes that a majority of crowd disasters in India and developing countries have occurred at sports stadiums.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster-management policy, so statement 1 is correct.
The NDMA notes compressive asphyxia, where tight packing exerts chest pressure that prevents breathing, as the most common cause of death, not literal trampling, so statement 2 is correct.
The NDMA report says most crowd disasters have occurred at religious places, not sports stadiums, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct.
b Statement 3 wrongly names sports stadiums.
d Statement 3 is wrong because religious places, not stadiums, are the main sites.
With reference to biofortification and the coloured potato varieties developed by ICAR-CPRI, consider the following statements:
1. Biofortification improves the nutrient content of a crop through plant breeding, whereas conventional food fortification adds nutrients during processing.
2. Kufri Neelkanth was the first purple-skinned specialty potato variety developed by ICAR-CPRI.
3. Kufri Manik has purple flesh and the highest anthocyanin content among the three coloured varieties Kufri Neelkanth, Kufri Manik and Kufri Jamunia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Biofortification builds nutrition into the crop through breeding; fortification adds nutrients during processing, so statement 1 is correct.
Kufri Neelkanth was the first purple-skinned specialty potato from ICAR-CPRI (released 2018), so statement 2 is correct.
Kufri Manik has deep red tubers with yellow flesh, and Kufri Jamunia has higher anthocyanin than Manik and Neelkanth, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
c Statement 3 is wrong: Manik has yellow flesh and Jamunia, not Manik, has the higher anthocyanin.
Statement-I: In the PLFS, a rise in the Labour Force Participation Rate does not necessarily mean a fall in the Unemployment Rate.
Statement-II: The Labour Force Participation Rate measures the share of the population aged 15 and above that is either working or seeking work, whereas the Unemployment Rate measures the share of the labour force that is without work.
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer: (a)
LFPR counts both employed and job-seekers in the population. UR counts the unemployed as a share of the labour force only.
The two have different denominators and numerators, so they can move independently. For example, urban LFPR rose from 50.4% to 50.7% while urban UR also rose, from 6.8% to 6.9%.
Statement-II therefore explains Statement-I.
b Statement-II gives the definitional difference that is the reason for Statement-I, so it does explain it.
c Statement-II is a correct definition of the two measures.
d Statement-I is correct, as the urban figures show.
With reference to the Strait of Hormuz and Iran's proposal to the United States to reopen it, consider the following statements:
1. The Strait lies between Iran and Oman and carried about a fifth of global oil and LNG trade before the war.
2. Under Iran's seven-day plan, the Strait would be reopened on the first day, as soon as the US agrees to the plan.
3. The plan includes the US waiving sanctions on Iranian oil, releasing frozen assets and lifting its naval blockade on Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Strait of Hormuz is the narrow waterway between Iran and Oman that carried about a fifth of global oil and LNG trade before the war, so statement 1 is correct.
The plan includes oil sanctions waivers, release of frozen assets and lifting of the US naval blockade, so statement 3 is correct.
Statement 2 is wrong: hostilities would end and the US measures would be taken during the seven days, and the Strait would open only on day seven.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct as the plan includes the sanctions waiver, frozen assets release and lifting of the blockade.
c Includes statement 2, which is wrong because the Strait opens on day seven, not on day one.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, since the reopening is scheduled for day seven.
Statement-I: DigiPost, a 'phygital' mail service of the Department of Posts, has been used to transmit digitally generated traffic e-challans for physical delivery to citizens.
Statement-II: The postal network's extensive physical reach allows it to facilitate delivery of digitally generated citizen services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
DigiPost is a phygital service by which e-challans issued by Gujarat Police are digitally sent and physically delivered.
This demonstrates the potential of the postal network's physical reach for delivering digital citizen services.
Statement-II is therefore the underlying rationale explaining Statement-I.
b Statement-II does explain why the postal network suits such a hybrid service.
c Statement-II is correct; the release stresses the postal network's physical reach.
d Statement-I is correct; DigiPost carries traffic e-challans issued by Gujarat Police.
With reference to India's merchandise trade data for September 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The year-on-year narrowing of the trade deficit was driven mainly by a fall in imports of precious metals such as gold and silver.
2. Exports of petroleum products, electronic goods and chemicals all registered growth, helped in the case of petroleum products by high crude prices.
3. Crude oil imports declined during the month because of the West Asia crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: the deficit narrowed year-on-year due to a dip in precious metal imports (gold down 81.27%, silver down 49.11%).
Statement 2 is correct: petroleum products, electronic goods and chemicals grew, and high crude prices improved realisations from petroleum product exports.
Statement 3 is wrong: crude oil imports rose by 30.76% to $18.34 billion.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, since crude imports rose rather than fell.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since crude imports rose.
With reference to the India-U.S. trade negotiations, consider the following statements:
1. Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal has said the first tranche of the bilateral trade agreement is finalised, with legal drafting and final contours pending, and that it would be operationalised once India gets a competitive advantage over peer countries.
2. The U.S. has levied a 10% tariff on imports from India under a Section 301 investigation concerning goods made using forced labour.
3. The U.S. Trade Representative has said that the conclusion of negotiations is imminent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 2 match the report: Goyal said the first tranche is finalised but operationalisation awaits competitive advantage over peers, and the U.S. levied a 10% tariff under Section 301 over forced-labour goods.
Statement 3 is wrong: USTR Jamieson Greer said the sides are nearing the end but he did not think anything was imminent.
b Statement 3 reverses Greer's remark.
c Omits statement 2, which is correct.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since Greer said nothing was imminent.
Statement-I: The Indian Air Force's night casualty evacuation from Leh to Palam using a C-130J is cited as an example of its ability to respond to critical humanitarian requirements under challenging conditions.
Statement-II: The mission was carried out in darkness and challenging weather, requiring a high degree of operational preparedness, professional coordination and timely execution.
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer: (a)
The mission was flown in darkness and challenging weather, needing high preparedness, coordination and timely execution.
These demands are why it reflects IAF operational readiness and humanitarian response capability.
Consider the following statements:
1. The IMF Managing Director has advised surplus countries, including China, to shift from an export-led growth model towards greater domestic consumption.
2. China recorded a trade surplus of about $1 trillion in 2025, a level no country had registered before.
3. India's Finance Minister said that India is denied market access in China even for goods such as pharmaceuticals and bovine meat, where export opportunities exist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Georgieva said surplus countries must raise domestic consumption, which clearly applies to China's growth model.
China hit a record $1 trillion trade surplus in 2025, unprecedented for any country.
Sitharaman said India is denied market access for goods with immense opportunity, naming pharmaceuticals and bovine meat.
All three statements are correct.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct: the 2025 surplus was a record $1 trillion.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct: Sitharaman named pharmaceuticals and bovine meat.
d Omits statement 1, which is correct: the IMF MD urged a shift to domestic consumption.
Statement-I: The close approach of Cosmos-2612 to ICEYE-X36 about 550 km above Earth has drawn attention to the satellite confrontation linked to the Russia-Ukraine war.
Statement-II: ICEYE-X36 is a commercial radar-imaging satellite whose operator currently supplies radar data to Ukraine.
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer: (a)
ICEYE-X36 is a U.S.-registered commercial radar-imaging satellite whose operator supplies radar data to Ukraine.
That link to Ukraine is why the Russian satellite's approach is seen as part of a confrontation parallel to the ground war.
So Statement-II explains Statement-I.
b Statement-II does explain why the approach is seen as war-linked.
c Statement-II is correct as reported.
d Statement-I is correct; the satellites were around 550 km above Earth and in a close approach.
With reference to coldwater aquaculture in India, consider the following statements:
1. Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand has been notified as a Cold Water Fisheries Cluster under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
2. Uttarakhand supplies trout to the Indo-Tibetan Border Police under an MoU with the Government of Uttarakhand, providing assured institutional market linkages to farmers in border villages.
3. India's coldwater fisheries are concentrated in six hilly States and UTs, which include Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, but not Ladakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Pithoragarh is notified as a Cold Water Fisheries Cluster under PMMSY, so statement 1 is correct.
Trout is supplied to ITBP under an MoU with the Uttarakhand Government, giving assured institutional market linkage, so statement 2 is correct.
The six coldwater regions are Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, so Ladakh is included and statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
c Statement 3 wrongly excludes Ladakh, and statement 1 is correct but left out.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because Ladakh is one of the six coldwater regions.
With reference to the proposed Bharat Stage VII (BS-VII) vehicle emission norms in India, consider the following statements:
1. The draft is issued by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and proposes a phased rollout starting with passenger cars.
2. The draft extends regulation beyond tailpipe exhaust to cover particles from brakes and tyres and the durability of electric-vehicle batteries.
3. The draft drops the limits on carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides and particulate matter for cars and relies only on laboratory testing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has proposed a gradual rollout: cars first, then light commercial vehicles, then buses and heavy trucks.
The draft addresses brake and tyre particles and EV battery durability, going beyond exhaust.
Statement 3 is wrong: the draft retains the principal limits on CO, NOx and PM for cars and strengthens on-road (real-driving) testing rather than relying only on laboratory tests.
a Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
c Statement 3 is false, as the principal limits are retained and real-world testing is stressed.
Statement-I: The SSC says a leak of its question papers is practically impossible, as it does not print question papers and conducts computer-based tests.
Statement-II: Under a Supreme Court direction of 2024, an agency that conducts an examination should not also be responsible for setting its questions, and the SSC's examination-conducting agency only administers the tests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
Statement-I is correct: the SSC does not print papers; questions are delivered digitally in CBTs from the vault.
Statement-II is correct: the Supreme Court in 2024 directed that the conducting agency should not set the questions, so the SSC's examination agency only administers the tests.
The separation of setting from conducting is a safeguard against insider risk, but it does not explain why leaks are impossible without printing. The reason for that is digital, encrypted delivery from the vault. So II does not explain I.
a The non-printing and digital delivery explain Statement-I, not the separation of roles.
c Statement-II is correct, as the Supreme Court did give this direction in 2024.
d Statement-I is correct, as the SSC does not print question papers.
Statement-I: At the SCO Council of Heads of Government meeting, member states are expected to consider decisions relating to the Organisation's financial and institutional functioning.
Statement-II: The Council of Heads of Government of the SCO deals with the Organisation's economic and sectoral cooperation agenda, including trade, investment and connectivity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
Both statements are correct: the CHG meeting covers trade, economy, investment, connectivity and innovation, and also considers financial and institutional matters.
Statement-II describes the economic agenda, which does not explain why financial and institutional decisions are taken; they are separate items on the agenda.
a The economic agenda does not causally explain the financial and institutional decisions; they are parallel agenda items.
c Statement-II is correct, since the meeting focuses on trade, investment and connectivity.
d Statement-I is correct, since the meeting is expected to consider financial and institutional functioning.
Statement-I: In the calculation of the price to stockist for the revised MRP of anti-cancer drugs, drugs given free to patients under patient assistance programmes can be excluded, provided the companies furnish details of the patients.
Statement-II: Critics argue that excluding such free quantities removes a large share of the drug's volume from the calculation and can lead to an inflated MRP for patented drugs such as pembrolizumab.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
The price to stockist is net sales divided by quantity sold; free drugs under patient assistance programmes are excluded if companies furnish patient details, so Statement-I is correct.
Gopakumar noted that for pembrolizumab, over half the quantity would be left out, inflating the MRP, so Statement-II is correct.
Statement-II is a criticism of the exemption, not the reason the exemption was provided, so it does not explain Statement-I.
a Statement-II is a criticism of the exemption, not the reason for it, so it does not explain Statement-I.
c Statement-II is correct; it records a stated concern about inflated MRP.
d Statement-I is correct; the exemption exists, subject to furnishing patient details.
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