Daily current affairs · Sun, 4 Oct, 2026

Daily set — Sun, 4 Oct, 2026

What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.

  1. 1. India Demonstrates First 5.56 km Free-Space Quantum Key Distribution Link

    QNu Labs, BISAG-N, and IIT Gandhinagar successfully demonstrated India's first long-distance free-space Quantum Key Distribution link, integrating hardware QKD with post-quantum cryptography for secure communication.

    • Demonstrated a 5.56 km free-space Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) link between BISAG-N and IIT Gandhinagar.
    • Achieved a stable Quantum Bit Error Rate (QBER) below 5% with key generation rates of 230–260 bps.
    • Integrated QNu Labs’ hardware-based 'Armos' QKD device with BISAG-N’s software-based 'Vedic Kavach' post-quantum cryptography platform.
    • Conducted by QNu Labs in collaboration with BISAG-N (under MeitY) and IIT Gandhinagar.
    Key terms
    Quantum Key Distribution (QKD)
    — A secure communication method that uses quantum mechanics to enable two parties to produce a shared random secret key known only to them.
    Post-Quantum Cryptography
    — Cryptographic algorithms designed to be secure against attacks by both classical and quantum computers.
    Free-Space Optical Communication
    — Transmission of information via light through open space rather than through an optical fiber cable.
  2. 2. J&K EWS Data Disparity: Poverty Debate in Jammu and Kashmir

    Discrepancy between EWS certificate issuance and ration card data sparks debate on poverty measurement and reservation rationalization in J&K.

    • 92% of EWS certificates are issued in the Jammu region, while only 8% are from Kashmir.
    • Priority Household (PHH) and Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) ration cards show a reversed trend: 37.71 lakh in Kashmir vs 29.81 lakh in Jammu.
    • The Omar Abdullah government formed a Cabinet sub-committee to review reservation policies after protests over increased quotas.
    • The sub-committee recommended restoring a 50:50 split between reserved and open-merit categories by reducing RBA and EWS shares.
    • Current reservation share in government jobs rose to approximately 70%, leaving 30% for open merit.
    Key terms
    Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
    — A category for individuals with annual income below ₹8 lakh, eligible for 10% reservation in education and public employment.
    Priority Household (PHH)
    — Households identified under the National Food Security Act entitled to subsidized food grains through ration cards.
    Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)
    — A scheme targeting the poorest of the poor households for highly subsidized food grain distribution.
  3. 3. First Wild Release of Captive-Bred Great Indian Bustard

    India initiates the rewilding phase of Project GIB by releasing captive-bred bustards into Desert National Park enclosures to boost critically endangered populations.

    Indian Express · India GS1GS3 Biodiversity & ConservationJudiciary
    • Pilot release scheduled for October 4 in Desert National Park, Jaisalmer
    • Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav and Rajasthan CM Bhajan Lal Sharma likely to attend
    • Two radio-tagged male chicks (4-6 months old) to be released in 15-20 sq km enclosures
    • 98 bustards bred in captivity at WII centres; wild population stands at ~140
    • Supreme Court mandates underground power lines outside DNP by December 2027
    Key terms
    Rewilding
    — The process of restoring an ecosystem by reintroducing key species that have been lost or depleted.
    Keystone Species
    — A species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically.
    Jumpstart Method
    — A conservation technique where infertile eggs laid by wild females are replaced with viable eggs from captive breeding centers.
  4. 4. Great Indian Bustard Rewilding Initiated in Rajasthan

    Union and State officials initiated the release of captive-bred Great Indian Bustards into the wild at Desert National Park, marking a decade-long conservation milestone.

    • Two captive-bred Great Indian Bustards (GIB) are being released into the wild at Desert National Park, Jaisalmer.
    • The initiative follows ten years of dedicated conservation efforts under the Bustard Recovery Programme.
    • A new Rewilding Aviary measuring 160m x 64m x 14m was inaugurated at Ramdevra with a budget of ₹9.25 crore.
    • Current GIB population in breeding facilities stands at 97 birds, with 29 chicks born in captivity in 2026.
    • The programme involves collaboration between MoEFCC, Rajasthan Forest Department, Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and international partners.
    Key terms
    Rewilding
    — The process of releasing captive-bred animals back into their natural habitats to restore ecological functions and populations.
    Umbrella Species
    — A species whose conservation indirectly protects many other species in the same ecosystem due to its large habitat requirements.
    Jumpstart Approach
    — A conservation technique involving placing captive-laid eggs into wild nests to be incubated by wild females, aiding species recovery.
  5. 5. PM-SETU: One Year of Transforming India’s ITIs

    The PM-SETU scheme marks its first anniversary by upgrading 1,000 government ITIs through a hub-and-spoke model and industry-led governance to enhance vocational training relevance.

    • Launched on October 4, 2025, with a total outlay of ₹60,000 crore (Centre ₹30k cr, States ₹20k cr, Industry ₹10k cr).
    • Component I upgrades 1,000 Government ITIs using a Hub-and-Spoke model (200 Hubs, 800 Spokes).
    • Component II augments capacity at five National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs) via National Centres of Excellence.
    • Governance is managed by Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) where Anchor Industry Partners hold 51% ownership.
    • One-year progress includes the identification of 850 ITIs and approval of 14 ITI clusters.
    Key terms
    Hub-and-Spoke Model
    — A network structure where central 'Hubs' provide advanced resources and expertise to peripheral 'Spokes', enabling shared access to modern infrastructure.
    Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV)
    — A legal entity created for a specific purpose, here used for industry-led governance of ITI clusters with defined ownership stakes.
    Strategic Investment Plan (SIP)
    — A document submitted by prospective industry partners detailing their investment and role in the upgradation of selected ITIs.
    National Centre of Excellence
    — Sector-specific advanced training facilities established within NSTIs to promote high-quality skill development and research.
  6. 6. IAF Chief: MRFA Deal Likely by End of FY27

    The Indian Air Force aims to finalize the 114-aircraft Multi-Role Fighter Aircraft deal by the end of FY2026-27, while highlighting urgent needs for indigenous engine development and AI integration.

    The Hindu · National GS3 Space & Defence Technology
    • MRFA deal (114 aircraft) expected to be finalized by end of current financial year (FY27).
    • Annual requirement of 36–40 fighter aircraft stated to address depleting squadron strength.
    • February clearance granted for 114 Rafale jets via government-to-government framework with France.
    • Su-57 offer from Russia acknowledged but no decision made; AMCA delays could trigger alternative procurement.
    • Emphasis on domestic fighter engine manufacturing and AI-augmented force for future operations.
    Key terms
    Multi-Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA)
    — A proposed acquisition of 114 advanced fighter jets intended to replace older fleets and enhance IAF combat capabilities.
    Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)
    — An indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter program being developed by India to ensure long-term self-reliance in air power.
    Government-to-Government (G2G) Framework
    — A direct inter-state agreement for defense procurement that bypasses commercial intermediaries, often ensuring better pricing and technology transfer.
  7. 7. CAPF Leadership Debate: IPS Deputation vs. Cadre Promotion

    A Supreme Court dispute highlights the conflict between reducing IPS deputation in CAPFs to aid cadre promotions and maintaining institutional links via senior police officers.

    • Supreme Court directed progressive reduction of IPS deputation posts up to Senior Administrative Grade (DIG/IG) within two years.
    • Five major CAPFs involved: CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB.
    • Pre-2026 rules reserved 20% of DIG and 50% of IG posts for deputation.
    • CAPF Group A officers were granted Organised Group A Service (OGAS) status and Non-Functional Financial Upgradation (NFFU).
    • MHA argues IPS deputation provides essential institutional links between Centre and State police.
    Key terms
    Organised Group A Service (OGAS)
    — A status granted to certain services allowing for structured career progression and financial benefits akin to organized civil services.
    Non-Functional Financial Upgradation (NFFU)
    — A scheme providing higher pay scales to officers stuck at lower ranks due to lack of vacancies, without changing their functional designation.
    Deputation
    — Temporary transfer of an officer from one organization or service to another, often used to fill senior posts in CAPFs by IPS officers.
  8. 8. IAF Needs 36-40 Jets Annually; Pakistan's Fifth-Gen Jet Plan Worrying

    The Air Chief Marshal highlights the urgent need for increased fighter jet induction to restore squadron strength and counters concerns over Pakistan's potential acquisition of fifth-generation stealth fighters.

    • IAF requires 36–40 aircraft inductions annually to prevent squadrons from dropping below 30 and reach the sanctioned strength of 42.
    • Current induction plans involve HAL's LCA Mk1A (up to 24/year), MRFA Rafale jets (~12/year), and additional Su-30s.
    • Pakistan’s reported interest in China’s J-35 stealth fighter is a concern, though IAF believes system integration can counter it.
    • Beyond-Visual-Range (BVR) capability is being augmented via indigenous ASTRA missiles (Mk1, Mk2, Mk3) and foreign procurements like Meteor and R-37M.
    • ASTRA Mk2 range has been enhanced to 200 km, while ASTRA Mk3 aims for over 350 km using SFDR technology.
    Key terms
    Sanctioned Strength
    — The authorized number of fighter squadrons the Indian Air Force is permitted to maintain for optimal operational capability.
    Beyond-Visual-Range (BVR)
    — Combat capability allowing pilots to engage enemy aircraft at distances beyond the line of sight, typically using radar-guided missiles.
    AMCA
    — Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft, an indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter project under development by India.
    SFDR
    — Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet, a propulsion technology used in advanced missiles like ASTRA Mk3 to achieve higher speeds and ranges.
  9. 9. Chhattisgarh Tiger Reserve Faces Mass Tree Girdling

    Satellite imagery and field inspections reveal over 2,500 trees girdled in Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve due to alleged encroachment by relocated villagers.

    • Over 2,500 trees (Sal, Bija, Tendu) found girdled in Karka area of Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve.
    • Encroachment expanded from 22 hectares in 2016 to over 30 hectares by 2026.
    • Villagers claim lack of compensation; Forest Department cites ISRO images showing crop fields since 2006.
    • Community Forest Resource Rights (CFRR) granted in 2020 for 2,208 hectares, but protection duties allegedly ignored.
    • Forest density dropped from >1,500 trees/hectare in adjacent areas to 50-100 trees/hectare in encroached zones.
    Key terms
    Girdling
    — Removing a strip of bark around a tree trunk to cut off nutrient supply, leading to its eventual death.
    Community Forest Resource Rights (CFRR)
    — A right under the Forest Rights Act allowing communities to protect, regenerate, conserve, or manage common forest lands they traditionally use.
    Preliminary Offence Report (POR)
    — An initial report registered by forest authorities upon detecting illegal activities like encroachment or poaching.
  10. 10. Uttarakhand Voter List Revision: ECI Orders Re-enrolment Drive

    Following significant voter deletions during the Special Intensive Revision, the Election Commission has ordered a fresh drive in Uttarakhand to re-enroll eligible voters who were inadvertently removed from the final electoral roll.

    • Over 10% of Uttarakhand's electorate (approx. 8 lakh voters) was deleted during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR).
    • Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are mandated to conduct house-to-house visits to identify and re-enroll missing voters using Form 6.
    • The final electoral roll stands at 71.59 lakh electors, down from 79.60 lakh before the SIR began.
    • Dehradun, Udham Singh Nagar, and Haridwar recorded the highest number of 'uncollectable' voters classified as ASDD.
    Key terms
    Special Intensive Revision (SIR)
    — A comprehensive review of electoral rolls conducted by the Election Commission to update voter lists, often involving door-to-door verification and removal of ineligible entries.
    Form 6
    — The application form prescribed under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, used for enrolling new voters or correcting details in the electoral roll.
    Booth Level Officer (BLO)
    — An official appointed by the Election Commission responsible for maintaining the electoral roll of a specific polling booth, including verifying voter eligibility and facilitating enrolments.
    ASDD
    — Classification code for voters deemed 'Absent, Shifted, Dead, or Duplicate' during electoral revisions, leading to their potential deletion from the roll.
  11. 11. Tiger Reintroduction in Buxa: Ecological Triumph or Bureaucratic Rescue?

    The reintroduction of tigers in West Bengal's Buxa Tiger Reserve highlights the tension between reactive conservation measures and long-term ecological sustainability, raising concerns about habitat quality and community rights.

    • First tiger (a tigress from Bihar) released in Buxa as part of a plan to relocate seven tigers over two years.
    • National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) initiated the programme after finding no tigers in Buxa, Dampa, and Palamau reserves by 2018.
    • Buxa faces challenges like dense canopy cover reducing grasslands, low chital density, and fragmentation by tea estates and settlements.
    • Pre-reintroduction efforts included releasing chitals, opening canopies, and relocating villagers from the core zone.
    • Critics argue this reflects a 'reactive' tradition similar to Sariska and Panna, contrasting with India's earlier 'preventive' conservation model.
    Key terms
    Reactive Conservation
    — Interventions taken only after a species population has crashed or gone extinct in a specific area, often involving reintroduction.
    Preventive Conservation
    — Proactive strategies focused on protecting existing source populations, habitats, prey bases, and corridors to avoid decline.
    Closed Canopy
    — A dense tree cover that blocks sunlight, inhibiting the growth of understory vegetation like grasses essential for herbivores.
    Migration Corridors
    — Connectivity areas between fragmented habitats that allow wildlife to move, disperse, and maintain genetic diversity.
  12. 12. Five New Centres of Excellence for Classical Languages Approved

    The Ministry of Education has approved five new Centres of Excellence dedicated to the research, preservation, and digitisation of Assamese, Bengali, Marathi, Pali, and Prakrit.

    • Approved by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education.
    • Covers five classical languages: Assamese, Bengali, Marathi, Pali, and Prakrit.
    • Host institutions include Tezpur University, Visva-Bharati, Deccan College, Central University of Odisha, and Central University of Gujarat.
    • Key focus areas are academic research, digitisation of heritage, dissemination, and strengthening regional ecosystems.
    • Located across five states: Assam, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Gujarat.
    Key terms
    Centres of Excellence (CoEs)
    — Institutional platforms designated for advanced research, preservation, and dissemination in specific fields, here applied to classical languages.
    Classical Languages
    — Languages recognized by the Government of India for their antiquity, independent literary tradition, and distinct cultural heritage.
    Digitisation
    — The process of converting physical documents, manuscripts, and audio-visual materials into digital formats for preservation and access.
  13. 13. Jal Arpan: Community Handover of Rural Water Schemes

    Over 1,850 Gram Panchayats formally received rural water supply schemes under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 on Gandhi Jayanti, marking a shift to community-led management.

    • More than 1,850 Gram Panchayats observed 'Jal Arpan', the formal handover of completed rural water supply schemes to local bodies and Village Water & Sanitation Committees (VWSCs).
    • 346 Har Ghar Jal Certificates were generated in regional languages for eligible villages, enhancing accessibility and citizen-centric certification.
    • The Jal Arpan module supports certificate generation in Hindi, English, and 17 other regional languages including Assamese, Bengali, and Tamil.
    • Under the Sujalam Bharat initiative, 2,691 water supply assets and approximately 700 sources were geotagged to create a digital inventory.
    • As of the report date, over 15.96 crore rural households (more than 82% of total) have drinking water tap connections.
    Key terms
    Jal Arpan
    — A key reform under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 involving the formal handover of completed rural water supply schemes to Gram Panchayats and Village Water & Sanitation Committees.
    Har Ghar Jal Certificate
    — An official certification issued to eligible Gram Panchayats and villages confirming that all households have functional drinking water tap connections.
    Sujalam Bharat
    — A digital governance initiative under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 focused on geotagging water supply assets and piped sources to create a comprehensive inventory.
    Village Water & Sanitation Committee (VWSC)
    — A community-based body responsible for the operation, maintenance, and management of rural drinking water supply schemes after handover.
  14. 14. INS Sahyadri and Kulish Conclude AIME 2026 in Philippines

    Indian Naval Ships participated in the ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise 2026, enhancing interoperability under India's Act East Policy.

    • Exercise conducted in the Philippines with theme 'Anchored in Trust, United at Sea'.
    • Participating Indian ships were INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish.
    • Sea Phase drills included VBSS, Underway Replenishment, and HADR operations.
    • Aligns with India’s Act East Policy and MAHASAGAR vision.
    Key terms
    VBSS
    — Visit, Board, Search, and Seizure; a tactical procedure used by naval forces to inspect vessels suspected of illegal activities.
    HADR
    — Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief; operations involving aid delivery and rescue efforts during natural or man-made disasters.
    MAHASAGAR
    — India’s vision for mutual and holistic advancement for security and growth across regions, particularly in the Indian Ocean.
  15. 15. Leprosy Child Cases Exceed Targets as India Aims for Transmission Interruption

    India reported 3,832 new child leprosy cases in 2025-26, significantly surpassing the National Leprosy Eradication Programme's target, raising concerns about delayed detection and ongoing transmission despite the goal to interrupt…

    • 3,832 new child leprosy cases recorded in 2025-26, which is 91.6% higher than the NLEP target of 2,000.
    • 37 children were diagnosed with Grade-2 disability (G2D), indicating delayed detection.
    • India accounted for the world's largest number of new leprosy cases (91,783) and child cases in 2025.
    • The National Strategic Plan aims to interrupt transmission at the district level by 2027.
    • High-burden districts are concentrated in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Madhya Pradesh.
    Key terms
    National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP)
    — A government initiative aimed at eliminating leprosy through active case detection, treatment, and prevention of disabilities.
    Grade-2 Disability (G2D)
    — Visible deformity or loss of sensation in hands/feet/eyes at the time of diagnosis, indicating late detection.
    Interruption of Transmission
    — Defined by WHO/NLEP as reporting zero new indigenous child cases for five consecutive years in a district.
  16. 16. Allahabad HC Bans Hookah Service in Designated Smoking Areas

    The Allahabad High Court ruled that the 2017 amendment to smoking rules imposes an absolute ban on providing hookah services, even within designated smoking areas.

    Indian Express · Explained GS2 JudiciaryGovernment Schemes & Policies
    • Bench of Justices Shekhar B. Saraf and Abdesh Kumar Chaudhary dismissed petitions by restaurant owners.
    • Ruling relies on the 2017 amendment to Rule 4(3) of Prohibition of Smoking in Public Places Rules, 2008.
    • Court held that FSSA licenses do not authorize hookah operations as tobacco is not food for human consumption.
    • Ban applies to both tobacco-based and herbal hookahs because the apparatus setup constitutes 'service'.
    • Supreme Court's 2014 interpretation allowing hookah facilities was overruled due to the stricter 2017 wording.
    Key terms
    COTPA
    — The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003, which prohibits smoking in public places but allows designated smoking areas.
    Designated Smoking Area
    — Specific segregated zones in hotels, restaurants, and airports where smoking is permitted under strict conditions defined by law.
    Absolute Prohibition
    — A legal restriction that allows no exceptions, here applied to all forms of service within smoking areas post-2017 amendment.
  17. 17. NABKISAN Lists India’s First WASH-Focused Social Bond

    NABKISAN Finance Limited listed India's first social bond dedicated to the Water, Sanitation and Hygiene (WASH) sector on the NSE, raising ₹180 crore.

    • India's first WASH-focused social bond listed on NSE by NABKISAN Finance Ltd.
    • Raised ₹180 crore with an oversubscription of 1.8 times.
    • Five-year bond with a coupon rate of 8.10%, maturing in September 2031.
    • Assigned highest domestic credit ratings: CRISIL AAA (Stable) and CARE AAA (Stable).
    • Proceeds allocated for expanding safe water, sanitation, and hygiene access in rural areas.
    Key terms
    Social Bond
    — A fixed-income instrument where proceeds are used exclusively for projects with positive social benefits, such as healthcare, education, or basic infrastructure.
    WASH Sector
    — An acronym for Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene, referring to the integrated approach to managing these three components for public health.
    Oversubscription
    — A situation where demand for a security issue exceeds the number of units offered, indicating strong investor interest.
  18. 18. Kerala Renames IT Department to Include AI and Future Technologies

    Kerala has rebranded its Electronics & IT department to include Artificial Intelligence and Future Technologies, signaling a strategic shift towards deep-tech innovation and knowledge-based economic growth.

    • Department renamed from 'Electronics & Information Technology' to 'Information Technology, Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Future Technologies'.
    • Change aligns with the Governor’s policy address for 2026 regarding technology governance.
    • Mandate expanded to cover start-ups, deep-tech ventures, and technology-led innovation.
    • Part of a broader strategy to leverage Kerala's knowledge capital for economic mainstay.
    • Linked to institutional reforms like Kerala State Digital Technology Mission and Semicon Keralam.
    Key terms
    Deep-tech
    — Startups based on substantial scientific advances and engineering innovations, often requiring significant R&D time and capital.
    Knowledge Industries
    — Economic sectors that rely primarily on intellectual capital and information creation rather than physical resources or labor-intensive manufacturing.
    Semiconductor Ecosystem
    — The network of companies involved in designing, fabricating, packaging, and testing semiconductor chips, crucial for modern electronics.
  19. 19. India-Pakistan Diplomatic Tensions Over BSF Border Incident

    India and Pakistan exchanged diplomatic protests after the BSF killed two men on the Punjab border, with each side accusing the other of infiltration or excessive force.

    • BSF shot dead two Pakistani nationals in Tarn Taran district, Punjab, on October 2, 2026.
    • Pakistan identified the deceased as Azmat Shah (20) and Mohsin Habibullah (22), calling them unarmed civilians.
    • Both nations summoned their respective Charges d'Affaires to protest the incident and reject the other's narrative.
    • Diplomatic missions remain downgraded since 2019, with Charges d'Affaires being the highest-ranking diplomats present.
    Key terms
    Charge d'Affaires
    — A diplomat who heads an embassy in the absence of an ambassador or high commissioner, often used during diplomatic downgrades.
    International Border
    — The legally defined boundary between two sovereign states, here referring to the India-Pakistan border in Punjab.

The 21 questions

Answers are shown below. Want to attempt them first?

Consider the following statements regarding the threats to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB): 1. Habitat loss, poaching, and predation of eggs are cited as historical threats to the species. 2. Mortality due to collisions with power lines erected for renewable energy projects is a recent significant threat. 3. The species has a high reproduction rate, laying eggs multiple times a year, which aids in its rapid recovery. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text lists habitat loss, poaching, and depredation by predators as threats faced by the GIB.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly mentions mortality due to collisions with power lines from renewable energy projects as a more recent threat.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states that the GIB has a slow reproduction rate, laying eggs once every one-two years, not multiple times a year.
  • a Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
  • c Statement 3 is incorrect due to the mischaracterization of the reproduction rate.
  • d Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following statements regarding the composition and actions of the Election Commission of India (ECI) during the recent SIR exercise: 1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has the sole authority to decide procedural changes, and other Election Commissioners cannot overrule him. 2. The ECI utilized a centralised roll database located in New Delhi to facilitate mass requests for deletion of electors. 3. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the SIR exercise, emboldening the ECI to extend it from States to Union Territories. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The text explicitly mentions that Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi, being the majority in the ECI, could have overruled the CEC but did not.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text states that a centralised roll database in New Delhi helped make dubious mass requests for deletion possible.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text notes that the ECI was emboldened by a deferential Supreme Court verdict upholding the SIR's constitutional validity to extend the exercise to UTs.
  • a Statements 2 and 3 are also correct.
  • c Statement 1 is incorrect as the other Commissioners had the power to overrule the CEC.
  • d Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the ASTRA Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missiles developed by DRDO, consider the following statements: 1. The ASTRA Mk 1 variant has a reported range of 80 to 110 km. 2. The ASTRA Mk 2 variant has an enhanced range of 200 km, increased from an earlier decided range of around 160 km. 3. The ASTRA Mk 3 variant utilizes Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) technology and could have a range of over 350 km. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states ASTRA Mk 1 has a range of 80 to 110 km.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text notes ASTRA Mk 2 has an enhanced range of 200 km, up from the earlier decided range of around 160 km.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text mentions DRDO conducted flight tests of SFDR technology for ASTRA Mk 3, which could have a range of over 350 km.
  • a Statements 2 and 3 are also correct.
  • b Statement 1 is also correct.
  • d All statements are factually supported by the text.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following pairs regarding the Centres of Excellence for Classical Languages approved recently: | Classical Language | Host Institution | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Classical Assamese | Tezpur University | | 2. Classical Bengali | Visva-Bharati University | | 3. Classical Marathi | Central University of Gujarat | How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Answer: (b)

  • Pair 1 is correct: Tezpur University, Assam hosts the Centre for Classical Assamese.
  • Pair 2 is correct: Visva-Bharati University, West Bengal hosts the Centre for Classical Bengali.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Deccan College Post-Graduate and Research Institute, Pune hosts the Centre for Classical Marathi. Central University of Gujarat hosts the Centre for Classical Prakrit.
  • a The first two pairs are correctly matched.
  • c Two pairs (Assamese and Bengali) are correctly matched, not just one.
  • d The third pair incorrectly assigns the Marathi centre to the institution designated for Prakrit.
source (PIB)

With reference to the 'Jal Arpan' initiative under the Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements: 1. It involves the formal handover of completed rural water supply schemes to Gram Panchayats and Village Water & Sanitation Committees (VWSCs). 2. The Jal Arpan digital module facilitates the generation of Har Ghar Jal Certificates exclusively in Hindi and English. 3. The initiative is aligned with Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of community participation and local self-governance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states that Jal Arpan marks the formal handover of completed rural water supply schemes to Gram Panchayats and VWSCs for operation and maintenance.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text explicitly mentions that certificates are generated in Hindi, English, and 17 other regional languages (totaling 19 languages), not exclusively in Hindi and English.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The release notes that the observance resonates with Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of community participation and local self-governance.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • b Statement 2 is incorrect due to the language restriction error.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect because certificates are issued in multiple regional languages, not just Hindi and English.
source (PIB)

With reference to the diplomatic representation between India and Pakistan, consider the following statements: 1. The highest-ranking diplomats in both capitals are currently Charge d'Affaires. 2. This downgrade in mission status occurred following the recall of High Commissioners in 2019. 3. The current Indian Charge d'Affaires in Islamabad is Saad Warraich. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text identifies Satyanjal Pandey (India) and Saad Warraich (Pakistan) as the highest ranking diplomats since missions were downgraded.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly states that both sides downgraded missions and recalled High Commissioners in 2019.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Saad Warraich is identified as Pakistan's Charge d'Affaires in Delhi, while Satyanjal Pandey is India's Charge d'Affaires in Islamabad.
  • a Statement 1 is correct, so options excluding it are wrong.
  • b Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the name associated with the post.
  • d Statement 2 is correct, so options excluding it are wrong.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to NABKISAN Finance Limited, consider the following statements: 1. It is a subsidiary of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). 2. It recently listed India’s first Social Bond dedicated exclusively to the Water, Sanitation and Hygiene (WASH) sector. 3. The proceeds from this bond are intended solely for urban infrastructure development in metropolitan cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly identifies NABKISAN Finance Limited as a subsidiary of NABARD.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The release states that NABKISAN listed India’s first Social Bond dedicated exclusively to the WASH sector on the NSE.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text specifies that proceeds will be deployed to expand access to safe water, sanitation, and hygiene solutions across rural and underserved communities, not solely for urban infrastructure.
  • a Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the target beneficiaries (rural vs. urban).
  • b Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • c Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect.
source (PIB)

Consider the following statements regarding the legal status of herbal hookah in designated smoking areas: Statement I: The Allahabad High Court ruled that herbal hookah can be served in designated smoking areas because it does not contain tobacco or nicotine. Statement II: The court held that the prohibition under the amended Rule 4(3) applies to the act of providing 'service' (preparing, assembling, lighting, maintaining) regardless of whether the substance being smoked contains tobacco. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement I is false: The High Court explicitly rejected the argument that herbal hookah should be permitted, stating that the ban is on providing hookah service inside a designated smoking area, irrespective of the content.
  • Statement II is true: The court reasoned that preparing and maintaining a hookah involves staff expertise and commercial acts defined as 'service', which is absolutely prohibited by the 2017 amendment.
  • Therefore, Statement I contradicts the ruling while Statement II accurately reflects the legal reasoning.
  • a Statement I is false, so this option cannot be correct.
  • b Statement I is false, so this option cannot be correct.
  • c Statement I is false and Statement II is true, making this option incorrect.
source (Indian Express)

With reference to the recent demonstration of a free-space Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) link in India, consider the following statements: 1. The trial was conducted by QNu Labs in collaboration with ISRO and IIT Bombay. 2. The architecture combined hardware-based QKD with software-based post-quantum cryptography to ensure resilience if the physical quantum channel is unavailable. 3. The secure keys generated were integrated with the 'Vedic Kavach' platform developed by BISAG-N. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The release states the collaboration was between QNu Labs, BISAG-N (Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics), and IIT Gandhinagar, not ISRO or IIT Bombay.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly mentions combining QNu Labs’ hardware-based QKD device Armos with BISAG-N’s Vedic Kavach software-based post-quantum cryptography to ensure resilience even if the physical quantum channel is temporarily unavailable.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The keys were integrated with BISAG-N’s post-quantum cryptography enabled Vedic Kavach platform.
  • a Statement 1 is factually wrong regarding the collaborating institutions.
  • b Statement 1 is factually wrong regarding the collaborating institutions.
  • d Statement 1 is factually wrong regarding the collaborating institutions.
source (PIB)

With reference to the Centres of Excellence for Classical Languages approved by the Ministry of Education, consider the following statements: 1. The Centre of Excellence for Classical Pali is established at the Central University of Odisha. 2. The Deccan College Post-Graduate and Research Institute in Pune has been selected to host the Centre of Excellence for Classical Prakrit. 3. These centres are mandated to provide dedicated institutional support for advanced academic research, preservation, and digitisation of linguistic heritage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states that the Central University of Odisha will house the centre for classical Pali.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Deccan College in Pune hosts the centre for Classical Marathi, not Prakrit. The Central University of Gujarat hosts the centre for Prakrit.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The official statement confirms the initiative provides support for advanced research, preservation, and digitisation.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect, making this option invalid despite Statement 1 being correct.
  • b Statement 2 is incorrect, so all three cannot be true.
  • c Statement 2 is factually incorrect regarding the language assigned to Deccan College.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the reservation policy in Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements: 1. The amendments to the J&K Reservation Rules in March 2024 increased the overall reservation share in government jobs from 43% to approximately 70%. 2. The Scheduled Tribe (ST) quota was raised from 10% to 20% as part of these amendments. 3. The Cabinet sub-committee recommended restoring a 50:50 split between reserved and open-merit categories by reducing allocations under SC and ST quotas while keeping RBA and EWS unchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states that amendments in March 2024 increased the overall reservation share from 43% to around 70%.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly mentions raising the Scheduled Tribe (ST) quota from 10% to 20% after including more communities.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet sub-committee recommended reducing allocations under Residents of Backward Areas (RBA) and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) categories, while leaving the SC and ST quotas unchanged.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect for the same reason; it reverses which categories were targeted for reduction.
  • b Statement 3 is incorrect because the recommendation was to reduce RBA and EWS, not SC and ST.
  • d Statement 3 is incorrect.
source (Indian Express)

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) Recovery Programme, consider the following statements: 1. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the Rajasthan Forest Department, and the Wildlife Institute of India. 2. The programme receives funding support from the National CAMPA and technical collaboration from the International Fund for Houbara Conservation. 3. The 'jumpstart' approach involves releasing captive-bred adult birds directly into the wild without prior acclimatization in soft-release facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release explicitly lists MoEFCC, Rajasthan Forest Department, and WII as the key partners in the Bustard Recovery Programme.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text confirms funding from National CAMPA and technical collaboration with the International Fund for Houbara Conservation.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The 'jumpstart' approach described in the text involves placing captive-laid eggs in wild nests accepted by incubating females, not releasing adult birds directly. Furthermore, the current rewilding process utilizes a 'soft-release facility' (Rewilding Aviary) to prepare birds before release.
  • a Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the mechanism of the 'jumpstart' approach.
  • b Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the mechanism of the 'jumpstart' approach.
  • d Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the mechanism of the 'jumpstart' approach.
source (PIB)

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs (PM-SETU) scheme, consider the following statements: 1. The scheme operates on a Hub-and-Spoke model where each Hub ITI is connected with four Spoke ITIs on average. 2. Industry-led governance is ensured through Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) in which the Anchor Industry Partner holds a majority stake of 51%. 3. Component II of the scheme focuses on upgrading 1,000 Government ITIs into National Centres of Excellence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: PM-SETU uses a Hub-and-Spoke model for 1,000 Government ITIs, with each Hub connected to four Spokes on average.
  • Statement 2 is correct: SPVs are established for industry-led governance, with the Anchor Industry Partner holding 51% ownership, while Centre and State hold 24.5% each.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Component I covers the 1,000 Government ITIs. Component II specifically focuses on the capacity augmentation of 5 NSTIs through National Centres of Excellence.
  • a Statement 2 is correct, so options excluding it are wrong; also Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • b Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • d Statement 3 is incorrect as it conflates Component I (Govt ITIs) with Component II (NSTIs).
source (PIB)

Consider the following activities associated with the Harbour Phase of the ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME): 1. Key Leaders’ Engagements and Community Interaction 2. Subject Matter Expert Exchanges 3. Table-Top Exercise and Operational Synchronisation How many of the above are part of the Harbour Phase as described in the context of AIME 2026?

Answer: (c)

  • The release lists Key Leaders’ Engagements, Community Interaction, and Subject Matter Expert Exchanges as part of the Harbour Phase engagements.
  • It further specifies that a Table-Top Exercise, Operational Synchronisation, and Pre-Sail Brief were facilitated during the Harbour Phase to prepare for the Sea Phase.
  • Therefore, all three listed activities are components of the Harbour Phase.
  • a Incorrect because more than one activity listed is part of the Harbour Phase.
  • b Incorrect because all three activities listed are part of the Harbour Phase.
  • d Incorrect because these activities are explicitly mentioned as part of the Harbour Phase.
source (PIB)

With reference to the tiger reintroduction programme in Buxa Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements: 1. The programme was initiated by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) after surveys confirmed the absence of tigers in Buxa, Dampa, and Palamau reserves. 2. The reintroduction strategy relies primarily on preventive conservation measures that protect source populations and habitats before any population crash occurs. 3. Ecological challenges in Buxa include a closed forest canopy that has stifled grass growth, leading to a decline in preferred ungulate prey like chitals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states that the NTCA found no tigers in these reserves by 2018 and subsequently mooted the programme with the Bengal Forest Department and Wildlife Institute of India.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text contrasts Buxa's approach with 'preventive conservation practices' followed since 1973. It describes Buxa as belonging to a 'more reactive tradition' where authorities intervened only after tiger populations crashed, similar to Sariska and Panna.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The release notes that forests have turned into dense woodland with a closed canopy, stifling grasses and causing herbivore populations (specifically chitals) to dwindle.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • c Statement 1 is correct, so this option is incomplete.
  • d Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme is described as reactive, not preventive.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP) and the National Strategic Plan for Leprosy 2023-27, consider the following statements: 1. A district is considered to have interrupted transmission if it reports zero new indigenous child cases for five consecutive years. 2. The NLEP aims for a national Grade-2 Disability (G2D) rate of less than one case per million population among newly detected cases. 3. The appearance of new leprosy cases in children below 15 years is considered by the WHO as an indicator of delayed diagnosis rather than recent transmission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The source text explicitly states that under the roadmap, a district is considered to have interrupted transmission after reporting zero new indigenous child cases for five consecutive years.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The NLEP's programme objectives include a national G2D rate of less than one case per million population.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states that the WHO considers new cases among children below 15 years an indicator of recent transmission, while Grade-2 disability (G2D) at diagnosis indicates delayed detection.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • b Statement 3 is incorrect because child cases indicate recent transmission, not just delayed diagnosis.
  • c Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Uttarakhand, consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India directed a special drive for re-enrolment only in states where the SIR process had not yet been completed. 2. During the post-SIR exercise, Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are mandated to conduct house-to-house visits to facilitate enrolment using Form 6 for eligible voters missing from the current roll. 3. The declaration form used with Form 6 during the SIR phase is also prescribed for use during the non-SIR period under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The ECI directed the 'special drive' to enrol left-out voters specifically in the 20 states and Union Territories where the SIR exercise has already been completed, not those where it is pending.
  • Statement 2 is correct: BLOs have been directed to compare pre-SIR and current rolls, visit identified voters at home, and facilitate their enrolment through Form 6 if found eligible.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The CEO office clarified that the declaration form used with Form 6 during the SIR phase was specific to that exercise; during the non-SIR period, forms prescribed under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, will be used.
  • a Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
  • b Statement 1 is incorrect as the drive targets completed SIR areas.
  • d Statements 1 and 3 are both incorrect regarding the scope of the drive and the forms used.
source (Indian Express)

With reference to the Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve (USTR), consider the following statements: 1. The reserve is located in the Dhamtari and Gariaband districts of Chhattisgarh. 2. The Karka area, where recent mass tree girdling was reported, was historically a forest village relocated in the 1980s for the construction of the Sondhur dam. 3. Community Forest Resource Rights (CFRR) were granted to the villagers of Karka in 2020, which legally permits them to clear forest land for cultivation if they claim lack of compensation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states USTR spans Chhattisgarh’s Dhamtari and Gariaband districts.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text notes Karka was a forest village in the catchment of the Sondhur dam and was relocated in the 1980s.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While CFRR was granted in 2020, the right provides for recognition to 'protect, regenerate or conserve or manage' community forest resources. It does not legally permit clearing forest land for cultivation; rather, the text highlights that authorities view the clearing as encroachment despite these rights.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect because CFRR mandates protection/conservation, not permission to clear land for cultivation.
  • c Statement 2 is correct, so this option is incomplete, and Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • d Statement 3 is incorrect.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives behind the renaming of Kerala's IT department: 1. To align the state’s technology governance with emerging global priorities and respond to fast-changing developments in the sector. 2. To make knowledge industries one of the mainstays of the state’s economy by tapping into its knowledge capital. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release notes that the renaming aims to 'align the State’s technology governance with emerging global priorities' and help Kerala 'respond more effectively to fast-changing developments'.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly mentions the strategy to 'tap the potential of Keralam’s knowledge capital and make knowledge industries one of the mainstays of the State’s economy.'
  • a Both statements are supported by the text, so 'Only one' is incorrect.
  • b Both statements are directly derived from the source text, so 'None' is incorrect.
  • c The text provides clear evidence for both statements, so the answer can be determined.
source (The Hindu)

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Air Force's modernisation and future requirements as highlighted by the Air Chief Marshal: 1. The IAF requires an induction of at least 36-40 fighter aircraft annually over the next few years to maintain squadron strength. 2. The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme is currently on track with no anticipated delays requiring alternative platforms. 3. Domestic development of fighter aircraft engines has been identified as a critical area where self-reliance is lacking. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text quotes the IAF chief stating the force requires 36-40 aircraft every year due to declining strength.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text explicitly mentions that the IAF could look at another platform if the AMCA programme encounters delays, implying potential risk/delay, not that it is 'on track with no anticipated delays'.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The chief underlined the need to develop and manufacture fighter aircraft engines domestically, noting it remains a major challenge.
  • a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct, so 'Only one' is wrong.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect because the text suggests contingency planning for AMCA delays, contradicting the claim that there are 'no anticipated delays'.
  • d Statements 1 and 3 are clearly supported by the text.
source (The Hindu)

Consider the following statements regarding the controversy over leadership in Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs): Statement-I: CAPF cadre officers argue that Non-Functional Financial Upgradation (NFFU) has only partially addressed stagnation because it is implemented through existing Recruitment Rules requiring prescribed service in each rank. Statement-II: The Ministry of Home Affairs argues that IPS deputation must continue because the CAPFs cannot be treated on par with ordinary civilian Group A services due to their operational role and need for institutional links with state police. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement-I is true: The text explains that NFFU gives pay benefits without actual promotion, but since eligibility for the next grade depends on 'prescribed number of years' in the current rank (which doesn't start until actual promotion occurs), stagnation persists.
  • Statement-II is true: The text explicitly lists MHA's arguments regarding operational roles and the need for institutional links between Centre and State police via IPS officers.
  • Relation: Statement-II provides the government's justification for maintaining the deputation system itself. It does not explain why NFFU implementation is flawed or insufficient (which is described in Statement-I). They are parallel arguments from opposing sides of the dispute.
  • a Statement-II justifies the existence of IPS deputation, whereas Statement-I critiques the mechanism of NFFU. One does not explain the other.
  • c Statement-II is factually correct according to the text.
  • d Statement-I is factually correct according to the text.
source (Indian Express)

Items are summarised in our own words from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express; nothing is reproduced from the articles, and each item links to the original. Questions are generated from those releases and re-checked against the source text by a second model before publishing. If one looks wrong, use Feedback — every report is read.

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