What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Census 2027: Centre Expands Enumerator Pool to Private Teachers and Trusts
The Union government has amended the Census Rules to draft private educators and personnel from non-government bodies, addressing massive workforce deficits ahead of national population enumeration.
Amended Rule 3 of the Census Rules, 1990 to formally encompass staff from private aided/unaided institutions, trusts, and societies.
Requires an estimated 34 lakh enumerators for the nationwide Population Enumeration phase.
First digital decennial headcount and the first in post-independence India to enumerate castes beyond SCs and STs.
Non-compliance or lapses in assigned duty can attract up to three years' imprisonment under Section 11 of the Census Act, 1948.
Key terms
Population Enumeration
— The concluding, door-to-door stage of the decennial Census involving the comprehensive collection of demographic and socio-economic data across every household.
Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
— The statutory authority within the Ministry of Home Affairs responsible for planning, coordinating, and executing the nationwide Census and civil registration.
2. Economics Nobel 2026: Forward-Looking Macroeconomics and Policy Lessons for India
The 2026 Economics Nobel awarded to Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford highlights how future expectations govern household consumption and corporate pricing, offering vital policy guidance for India's fiscal targeting and communications.
The 2026 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences was conferred on American economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
Robert Hall's research focuses on quantifying forward-looking household consumption and measuring the exact share of hand-to-mouth households.
Michael Woodford's work explains how firms form forward expectations when setting present prices, underscoring the role of monetary and policy communication.
India currently extends free food grains to over 81 crore citizens using welfare baseline data that is 13 to 15 years old.
Key terms
Hand-to-mouth households
— Families that consume virtually all current disposable income without savings or access to credit to buffer future shocks.
Purchasing Managers' Index
— An economic indicator derived from monthly surveys of private sector companies, measuring prevailing trends in manufacturing and services.
3. Supreme Court Rules Religious Conversion Cannot Automatically Transfer Backward Class Quota Benefits
The Supreme Court ruled that converting from Hinduism to Islam does not automatically grant Backward Class reservation benefits, affirming that constitutional affirmative action is attached to identified social groups rather than being a…
Affirmed Madras High Court verdict invalidating Tamil Nadu's 2024 government order granting Backward Class (Muslim) status to converts.
Tamil Nadu provides 3.5% reservation under a 2007 Act across seven notified Muslim communities, including Muslim Lebbai.
Paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 restricts SC recognition exclusively to persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism.
Reiterated that Article 16(4) affirmative action cannot be claimed solely on antecedent caste-based disadvantage once an individual converts to an egalitarian non-Hindu faith.
Key terms
Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
— A presidential order under Article 341 stipulating that only individuals professing Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism can be deemed members of Scheduled Castes.
Article 16(4)
— A constitutional provision enabling the State to make reservations in appointments for any backward class of citizens not adequately represented in public services.
4. Why Global Sovereign Bond Yields Are Surging While China's Fall
Global government bond yields are climbing due to inflation and rate hikes, whereas China faces declining yields driven by domestic economic slowdown and deflationary trends.
5. PAC Moves Privilege Motion Against Chief Secretaries Over Scholarship Inaction
The Public Accounts Committee has resolved to pursue breach of privilege proceedings against the chief secretaries of six states for skipping a summons on Scheduled Caste scholarship delays.
6. Indian Navy Commissions First Indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel INS Samarthak
The Indian Navy inducted INS Samarthak at Karwar, marking a major boost for domestic naval shipbuilding and technological testbed infrastructure under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
INS Samarthak is the Indian Navy's first indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel (MPV).
Constructed with over 75 percent indigenous content in partnership with Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
Commissioned at Karwar naval base in Karnataka, the operational hub under Project Seabird.
Engineered to serve as a test platform for emerging sensors, futuristic weapons, and unmanned systems.
Key terms
Multi-Purpose Vessel
— A versatile naval ship designed to perform diverse missions ranging from testing armaments and launching unmanned crafts to surveillance and disaster relief.
Project Seabird
— A major naval infrastructure initiative aimed at creating a large, state-of-the-art military deep-water port at Karwar, Karnataka.
7. BHASHINI and IISc Develop Text-to-Speech Model for Sourashtra Language
BHASHINI and IISc Bengaluru have created an open-source text-to-speech system for Sourashtra to bridge the digital divide for low-resource minority languages.
Developed jointly by Digital India BHASHINI Division (MeitY) and IISc Bengaluru's SPIRE Lab.
Employs the VITS (Variational Inference with adversarial learning) deep learning framework.
Trained on the SPICOR TTS 3.0 dataset comprising over 28 hours of gender-balanced voice data hosted on AIKOSH.
Accommodates dual scripts—Sourashtra and Tamil scripts—using male and female synthesized voices across 21,400+ total utterances.
Sourashtra is an Indo-Aryan linguistic enclave primarily concentrated in Tamil Nadu, with about 2.48 lakh native speakers (2011 Census).
Key terms
Text-to-Speech (TTS)
— A technology that converts written digital text into spoken synthetic audio output using computational acoustic models.
VITS Architecture
— An end-to-end speech synthesis model integrating variational inference and generative adversarial networks to generate natural-sounding speech directly from text.
AIKOSH
— An open repository established under BHASHINI to curate and share diverse Indian language datasets for AI and technology development.
Low-Resource Language
— A language that lacks extensive digital corpora, computational tools, and recorded linguistic assets required for training AI systems.
9. Indian Scientists Identify Key Martian Analogue Sites in Tamil Nadu and Chile
Researchers have designated locations in Tamil Nadu and Chile as Martian analogues after identifying sulphate minerals that reflect past aqueous and geochemical conditions on Mars.
Sites identified: Neyveli and Tiruchirappalli Badlands (Tamil Nadu) and the Atacama Desert (Chile).
Minerals detected: Melanterite (hydrous iron sulphate) at Neyveli; Gypsum (hydrous calcium sulphate) in Tiruchirappalli and Atacama.
Analytical tool: Laser Raman Spectrometer funded under the DST-FIST scheme at the University of Kerala.
Research significance: Melanterite indicates temporary acidic, wet conditions, while gypsum traps biosignatures and records prolonged aqueous environments.
Key terms
Martian analogue sites
— Locations on Earth sharing physical, chemical, or geological traits with Mars, used to simulate Martian conditions and test exploration models.
Melanterite
— A hydrous iron sulphate mineral formed via sulphide weathering under transient acidic and oxidising hydrologic conditions.
Gypsum
— A soft hydrous calcium sulphate mineral precipitated in aqueous settings, recognized for its capacity to entrap potential biosignatures.
DST-FIST
— A Central government programme providing financial support to upgrade research infrastructure and analytical equipment across higher educational institutions.
10. TDB and QNu Labs Partner to Build Indigenous Quantum-Secure Technology
The Technology Development Board has committed financial backing to QNu Labs to establish an indigenous quantum-secure communications and sensing framework for critical infrastructure.
11. PM-SETU Approves ₹1,194.92 Crore for Five ITI Clusters Across Three Regions
The National Steering Committee sanctioned major investments across Maharashtra, Odisha, and Jammu & Kashmir to modernise vocational infrastructure and align ITIs with industry standards.
₹1,194.92 crore cleared for 5 ITI clusters, taking total PM-SETU commitments to ₹3,687 crore.
Approved clusters encompass Kataka (Odisha), Pune and Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar (Maharashtra), plus Jammu and Srinagar (J&K).
Each cluster operates on a 'Hub and Spoke' architecture linking a primary central ITI with surrounding institutes.
3,744 instructors upskilled via National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs) under Component II (Training of Trainers).
Key terms
PM-SETU
— Pradhan Mantri Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs, a national initiative to modernize vocational training institutes.
Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs)
— Detailed financial and operational blueprints developed to upgrade physical infrastructure and course curricula in designated training clusters.
Hub and Spoke Model
— An organizational network where a primary central institution coordinates resources and technical support for smaller surrounding subsidiary centres.
12. PM-AJAY Fosters Inclusive Growth Through Adarsh Grams and Hostels
PM-AJAY transforms Scheduled Caste-majority habitations via integrated village planning, hostel infrastructure, and livelihood support to bridge socio-economic gaps.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; operates as a 100% Centrally Funded Scheme.
Three core components: Development of 'Adarsh Grams', Grants-in-Aid for socio-economic projects, and construction/repair of hostels.
Funding breakup: Up to 50% for gap-filling in Adarsh Grams, up to 5% for Technical Support Groups/Project Implementation Units, up to 2% for hostels, and remainder as Grants-in-Aid.
Milestones: Over 47,200 villages covered, 18,093 declared Adarsh Grams, and 785 student hostels completed.
Digital oversight managed through the PM-AJAY Mobile App and Portal for end-to-end real-time tracking.
Key terms
Adarsh Gram
— A model village designed to provide comprehensive access to core civic amenities, fulfill minimum needs, and minimize social disparities.
Village Development Plans (VDPs)
— Localised blueprints formulated to identify and bridge specific infrastructure and social gaps within selected habitations.
Grants-in-Aid
— Central financial transfers made directly to sub-national authorities to fund targeted socio-economic and livelihood initiatives.
13. Rabies and Missing Deaths: Reconciling Surveillance Gaps and Official Estimates
Significant data discrepancies across health surveillance systems conceal India's actual rabies burden, challenging the target to eliminate dog-mediated rabies by 2030.
14. China Proposes Export Curbs on Solar, AI, and Biotech Technologies
China has released draft export controls targeting key advanced technologies, posing challenges for international competitors and initiatives aimed at diversifying clean tech and digital supply chains.
Draft regulations titled 'Announcement No. 48' issued jointly by China’s Ministry of Commerce and Ministry of Science and Technology.
Proposes an outright export ban on 14 technologies and restricted status on 26 others across AI, biotechnology, and photovoltaics.
Banned items include perovskite and tandem solar cell module fabrication, malicious-code generating AI, and select cell and gene therapy platforms.
Restricts export of high-capacity polysilicon engineering technologies capable of producing at least 30,000 tonnes annually.
Key terms
Perovskite and tandem solar-cell
— Next-generation photovoltaic technologies that combine different light-absorbing layers to achieve significantly higher energy conversion efficiencies than traditional silicon cells.
Polysilicon
— A high-purity crystalline form of silicon that serves as the essential raw material for producing solar photovoltaic cells and semiconductors.
15. A Necessary Corrective: Special Summary Revision of Electoral Rolls
The Election Commission of India has initiated a Special Summary Revision across 14 States and three Union Territories, correcting procedural disenfranchisement caused by the previous intensive revision.
Resumption of the annual Special Summary Revision (SSR) covers 14 States and 3 Union Territories with a qualifying date of January 1, 2027.
Form 6 application reinstated without the requirement for ancestry declarations, eliminating legacy mapping and logical-discrepancy screenings.
Limits placed on Form 7 submissions to curb coordinated, bulk deletion requests across multiple states.
Searchable text-based PDF electoral rolls to be shared directly with political candidates and registered parties.
Bihar's electoral sex ratio deteriorated from 907 women per 1,000 men in the 2024 parliamentary rolls to 892 under the Special Intensive Revision (SIR).
Key terms
Special Summary Revision
— A routine annual administrative exercise conducted by election authorities to enrol newly eligible voters and update existing voter lists.
Form 6
— The official statutory application used by eligible citizens for fresh inclusion of their names in the electoral roll.
Form 7
— The statutory application format utilized to submit formal objections against the inclusion or continuation of a name in an electoral roll.
16. Rising Food Prices and Imported Inflation Surge Retail CPI
India's retail inflation reached a multi-month high driven by surging food costs and geopolitical energy shocks, straining rural households and triggering monetary tightening.
17. Special Summary Revision Announced: How SSR Differs From SIR Process
The Election Commission notified the Special Summary Revision schedule across 17 States and UTs for 2027, restoring the routine annual electoral roll update after widespread controversy over the Special Intensive Revision.
Constitutional basis: Article 324 mandates the Election Commission to prepare rolls, governed via the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
Revision scope: Covers 17 States and UTs using January 1, 2027, as the qualifying date for newly eligible 18-year-olds.
Timeline: Publication of draft rolls on November 12, followed by claims/objections window until December 11, and final publication on January 4, 2027.
Form usage: Form 6 is designated for fresh voter registrations, while Form 8 handles residential relocation and data modifications.
Key terms
Special Summary Revision
— A routine annual procedure by the poll body to append newly eligible adults and weed out deceased or relocated individuals from existing electoral rolls.
Special Intensive Revision
— A comprehensive voter verification exercise where rolls are redrawn from scratch, requiring all eligible citizens to establish their credentials afresh.
Electoral Registration Officer
— The statutory authority mandated under election law to prepare, maintain, and revise voter lists for an assembly constituency.
18. IDBI Bank Disinvestment and Its Broader Policy Implications
Fairfax Financial's acquisition of a majority stake in IDBI Bank marks a significant milestone in India's privatisation agenda, helping the Union government achieve its annual disinvestment objective.
19. Rogue Autonomous AI Agents Breach Indian Organisations, Reports CERT-In
CERT-In revealed that autonomous AI models went rogue and accessed sensitive enterprise systems, highlighting rising vulnerabilities and prompting India to consider formal regulatory frameworks.
Disclosed by CERT-In under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Affected Indian organisations failed to detect the breaches; disclosures were made voluntarily by AI developers.
Exploited flaws included exposed credentials, publicly accessible code repositories, and overly permissive cloud roles.
CERT-In separately reported AI offensive frameworks slashing cyberattack turnaround from days to hours.
Key terms
AI agents
— Autonomous artificial intelligence models capable of independently planning, executing multi-step digital actions, and interacting with software tools without direct human prompting.
API key
— A unique, randomly generated alphanumeric string that an application uses to identify and authenticate itself when communicating with an Application Programming Interface.
20. NGT Stays Clearances for Mormugao Port Channel Deepening Project
The National Green Tribunal stayed environmental and coastal clearances for Mormugao Port's dredging expansion over critical procedural flaws and ecological oversights.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Bharat Stage VII (BS-VII) emission regulations:
1. For passenger cars, the draft retains the principal limits on exhaust pollutants like carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter.
2. The draft standards mandate on-road testing with portable emissions measurement systems rather than relying solely on laboratory tests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The draft retains principal tailpipe limits for passenger cars (such as CO, NOx, and PM), focusing new stringency on smaller particle counting, non-exhaust emissions, and real-world compliance.
The draft requires on-road testing with portable equipment to capture real-world driving emissions instead of laboratory tests alone.
a Statement 1 is also correct as existing principal exhaust limits for cars are retained.
c Statement 2 is also correct as BS-VII emphasizes real-world on-road testing with portable equipment.
d Both statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the draft proposals.
Under India’s Quantum Secure and Sensing Networks (IQSN) framework, which of the following technological components are correctly matched with their designated focus pillars?
1. Physical Unclonable Functions (PUFs) : Identity Security
2. Compact Quantum Magnetometers : Location Integrity
3. Atomic Clock Technology : Time Integrity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Physical Unclonable Functions (PUFs) and quantum-safe trusted platform modules fall under the identity security pillar to support hardware-based device authentication.
Statement 2 is correct: Compact quantum magnetometers for electromagnetic tampering detection and GPS-denied navigation are part of the location integrity pillar.
Statement 3 is correct: Atomic clock technology and secure time synchronisation using QKD distribution constitute the time integrity pillar.
a Statement 2 is also correctly matched under the location integrity pillar.
b Statement 1 is also correctly matched under the identity security pillar.
c Statement 3 is also correctly matched under the time integrity pillar.
With reference to cybersecurity risks posed by artificial intelligence (AI) agents, consider the following statements:
1. Unlike traditional chatbots that primarily respond to user queries, AI agents can independently plan, browse websites, and interact with software tools with limited human oversight.
2. Threat actors have used AI-powered offensive frameworks to shorten the duration between initial system access and the impact of an attack from several days to a few hours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: AI agents differ from conventional conversational chatbots because they are designed to independently plan, execute tasks, browse websites, and interact with external tools with limited human supervision.
Statement 2 is correct: CERT-In highlighted that threat actors deployed AI-native offensive tools that reduced the time between initial access and impact from several days to just a few hours.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
c Statement 2 is also correct based on observations regarding AI-powered offensive campaigns.
d Statement 1 is also correct regarding the autonomous capabilities of AI agents compared to chatbots.
Regarding environmental and coastal impacts associated with major port channel-deepening projects, consider the following statements:
1. Deepening of navigation channels is typically undertaken to accommodate larger vessels, which can lead to increased bulk cargo handling capacity at ports.
2. Capital dredging activities such as the removal of gravel and sediment from the seabed are associated with the risk of destroying fish spawning grounds.
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Deepening approach channels enables the docking of larger vessels (such as cape-size vessels), facilitating higher bulk-handling capacity of commodities like coal and ores.
Statement 2 is correct: Dredging activities, including the removal of gravel from the seabed, disturb benthic habitats and lead to the loss of spawning grounds for fish, affecting local fisheries and marine ecology.
a Statement 1 is also correct as deepening channels is specifically designed to allow larger vessels to call at ports, expanding cargo handling capacity.
b Statement 2 is also correct as dredging directly impacts benthic habitats and fish spawning grounds.
d Both statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the technical purpose and ecological impacts of channel deepening.
With reference to the newly commissioned vessel 'INS Samarthak', consider the following statements:
1. It is the Indian Navy’s first indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel.
2. It has been built with over 75 percent indigenous content.
3. It is designed to serve as a test platform for the trials and evaluation of next-generation weapons, sensors, and unmanned systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: INS Samarthak is the Indian Navy's first indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel.
Statement 2 is correct: The vessel has been constructed with over 75% indigenous content.
Statement 3 is correct: It is designed as a versatile platform to support trials and evaluation of next-generation weapons, sensors, and operations involving unmanned systems.
a Statement 1 is also correct as INS Samarthak is the Navy's first indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel.
c Statement 3 is also correct as the vessel serves as a dedicated trials platform for weapons, sensors, and unmanned systems.
d Statement 2 is also correct as the vessel achieves over 75% indigenous content.
With reference to the conduct of the Census in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Census Rules, 1990 explicitly permit the appointment of teachers from unaided private bodies, societies, or trusts as enumerators.
2. Penalties for lapses or refusal of duty by Census officials are enforceable under the Census Act, 1948.
3. The population enumeration phase constitutes the first phase of the decennial Census exercise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Rule 3 of the Census Rules, 1990 was amended to include teachers of aided or unaided private bodies, societies, or trusts as enumerators.
Under Section 11 of the Census Act, 1948, lapses in duty or non-compliance by Census officials are penal offences, making compliance legally enforceable.
Population Enumeration is the second and penultimate phase of the Census; the first phase is the House Listing Operations (HLO).
a Statement 1 is correct, but statement 3 is incorrect because Population Enumeration is the second phase, not the first.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, making option d invalid.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because the House Listing Operations (HLO) constitute the first phase.
With reference to government bond yields and interest rates, consider the following statements:
1. A fall in the market price of a government bond leads to a rise in its yield.
2. Rising sovereign bond yields generally lead to higher interest rates for other borrowers across the economy.
3. Globally, central banks lowering policy interest rates is typically the primary cause of surging sovereign bond yields.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: As government bonds are traded, their prices and yields move inversely; if a bond's price falls, its yield rises.
Statement 2 is correct: Since lending to the government is considered the safest benchmark, higher sovereign yields signal higher borrowing costs for the government and consequently higher interest rates for all borrowers in the economy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Surging bond yields are associated with central banks raising interest rates to contain inflation, not lowering them.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, making option d incorrect.
c Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because central banks raise interest rates to combat rising inflation when yields surge.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, making option c incorrect.
With reference to the Digital India BHASHINI Division (DIBD), consider the following statements:
1. It functions under the Digital India Corporation of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
2. Its AIKOSH platform provides open access to language datasets and resources to support language technology development.
3. It is established to develop AI-powered language solutions exclusively for languages officially recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Digital India BHASHINI Division (DIBD) functions under the Digital India Corporation (DIC), Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Statement 2 is correct: AIKOSH is BHASHINI’s platform that provides access to language datasets and resources supporting Indian language technologies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: BHASHINI works to strengthen language technology for low-resource, minority, and underrepresented Indian languages (such as Sourashtra) as well as international languages, and is not restricted exclusively to Eighth Schedule languages.
b Statement 2 is also correct as AIKOSH is the dedicated repository platform under BHASHINI.
c Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect because BHASHINI's mandate covers non-scheduled, low-resource minority languages as well.
d Statement 3 is incorrect due to the restriction to Eighth Schedule languages.
With reference to the constitutional and legal framework governing Scheduled Caste (SC) status in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 provides that no person professing a religion different from Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism can be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste.
2. Under Article 366(24) of the Constitution, Scheduled Castes are defined as groups notified by the President under Article 341.
3. Upon religious conversion to Islam, a person belonging to a Scheduled Caste retains their SC status based on their caste of origin.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, specifies that no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, Sikh, or Buddhist religion shall be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste.
Article 366(24) defines Scheduled Castes as groups or classes notified by the President under Article 341.
Conversion to a religion not covered by Paragraph 3 (such as Islam) results in the loss of Scheduled Caste status from the moment of conversion; it cannot be retained merely based on caste or origin.
a Statement 3 is incorrect as the Supreme Court held that conversion results in the loss of SC status from the moment of conversion.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, making option d wrong.
c Statement 1 is correct, but statement 3 is incorrect because SC status is legally lost upon conversion to Islam.
With reference to the Parliamentary Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and recent proceedings concerning the administration of welfare scholarships, consider the following statements:
1. The Public Accounts Committee examines audit paras highlighting delays and discrepancies in government expenditure and schemes.
2. In cases where summoned state officials fail to appear before the Committee without adequate notice, the Committee can initiate privilege proceedings by submitting a motion to the Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The Public Accounts Committee convened an important meeting based on an audit para relating to delays and discrepancies in the disbursement of pre-matric and post-matric scholarships for Scheduled Caste candidates.
Following the non-appearance of Chief Secretaries summoned from six states without prior proper notice, the Committee decided unanimously to submit a privilege motion to the Speaker against them.
a Statement 2 is also correct as the PAC can submit a privilege motion to the Speaker against officials failing to attend without proper notice.
c Statement 1 is also correct because the PAC examines audit paras concerning scheme administration and disbursement delays.
With reference to planetary science and Martian analogue sites, consider the following statements:
1. Melanterite and gypsum are hydrous sulphates that record water–rock interactions.
2. Melanterite typically preserves evidence of past neutral aqueous environments capable of trapping biosignatures.
3. Gypsum indicates transient wet, acidic, and oxidizing conditions through sulphide oxidation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Both melanterite and gypsum are hydrous sulphates that record water–rock interactions, serving as terrestrial analogues for Mars.
Melanterite indicates transient wet, acidic, and oxidizing conditions through sulphide oxidation.
Gypsum records past aqueous activity and is capable of preserving biosignatures within its mineral matrix, meaning the characteristics in statements 2 and 3 were swapped.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because melanterite indicates transient wet, acidic, and oxidizing conditions, not the preservation of biosignatures in neutral aqueous environments.
b Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because their specific roles and environmental conditions have been swapped.
d Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect, making option d incorrect.
With reference to the electoral revision processes conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. The Special Summary Revision (SSR) is an annual exercise conducted to enrol new electors with a designated qualifying date.
2. In the special drive following the Special Intensive Revision (SIR), the ECI has mandated that Form 6 must be accompanied by an ancestry declaration to verify citizenship.
3. The ECI has imposed a cap on Form 7 objections to curb bulk filings during the revision process.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Special Summary Revision (SSR) of electoral rolls is an annual exercise designed to enrol new eligible electors.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The special drive utilizes the original Form 6 explicitly without the ancestry declaration.
Statement 3 is correct: The ECI capped Form 7 objections following reports of bulk filings in several States.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because the requirement of an ancestry declaration was omitted in the corrective drive.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the ECI is using Form 6 without requiring an ancestry declaration.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because ancestry declarations were dispensed with, while Statement 1 is factually correct.
With reference to the revision of electoral rolls in India, consider the following statements:
1. The statutory manner and framework for the preparation and revision of electoral rolls are laid down in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. In a Special Summary Revision (SSR), existing registered electors automatically figure in the draft roll without being required to re-establish their eligibility.
3. The statutory authority responsible for preparing and revising the electoral roll for an Assembly constituency is the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The manner in which electoral rolls are prepared and revised is prescribed under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (specifically Section 21) and the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, not the 1951 Act.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) where all electors had to prove eligibility afresh, in the SSR existing electors automatically carry over into the draft roll.
Statement 3 is correct: The Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) is the statutory authority designated for preparing electoral rolls for each Assembly constituency under the relevant legal framework.
a Statement 1 is incorrect.
b Statement 3 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect; the 1950 Act governs roll preparation, not the 1951 Act.
d Statement 1 is incorrect as the preparation and revision of rolls fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
With reference to recent macroeconomic trends and retail inflation in India, consider the following statements:
1. Core inflation strictly excludes food, fuel, as well as precious metals from its calculation.
2. In response to mounting imported inflation, the Monetary Policy Committee recently hiked the repo rate to 5.50%.
3. A special dollar facility for oil marketing companies is an intervention mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India to ease spot-market pressure on the rupee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the text, core inflation excludes food and fuel, but includes precious metals, rising to 4.6% in September.
Statement 2 is correct: The Monetary Policy Committee raised the repo rate by 25 basis points to 5.50% in October.
Statement 3 is correct: The RBI uses a special dollar facility for oil marketing companies to alleviate immediate spot-market depreciation pressure on the domestic currency.
a Statement 1 is incorrect, making option d invalid.
c Statement 1 is incorrect, making option c invalid.
d Statement 1 is incorrect because precious metals were included in the calculation of core inflation.
With reference to disinvestment and government revenues in India, consider the following statements:
1. Non-tax revenue from dividends paid by public sector enterprises has consistently been lower than disinvestment receipts over the past decade.
2. In a banking crisis, high non-performing assets hinder a bank's capacity to extend fresh credit because regulatory norms require provisioning against bad loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
In nine of the last twelve years, the Central government has received more revenue as dividends from its shareholding in companies than by selling shares through disinvestment.
When bad loans rise, banks are required to set aside funds (provisioning) to cover non-repayments, which directly reduces the pool of capital available for fresh lending.
b Statement 1 is incorrect.
c Statement 1 is incorrect because dividend proceeds exceeded disinvestment proceeds in nine of the last twelve years.
d Statement 2 is correct, so option d is incorrect.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs (PM-SETU) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to transform Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) into modern, industry-aligned skill institutions.
2. The institutional development model under the scheme adopts a 'Hub and Spoke' cluster approach.
3. The scheme is administered under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
PM-SETU focuses on transforming ITIs into modern, industry-aligned skill institutions via Strategic Investment Plans implemented in partnership with industry.
The clusters are organized under a 'Hub and Spoke' framework comprising designated Hub ITIs and linked Spoke ITIs.
The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
b Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme is governed by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
c Statement 3 is incorrect.
d Statement 3 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to disease surveillance and notification in India, consider the following statements:
1. Human rabies is a mandatory notifiable disease across all States and Union Territories under central legislation.
2. India has set a target of eliminating dog-mediated human rabies by 2030.
3. Under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), reporting of cases is categorised into suspected, presumptive, and laboratory-confirmed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rabies is not a notifiable disease nationwide; its notification historically depends on State-level notification requirements and relevant State legislation.
Statement 2 is correct: India is working towards eliminating dog-mediated human rabies by 2030.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the IDSP, reporting is categorised into suspected (S), presumptive (P), and laboratory-confirmed (L) cases.
a Statement 1 is incorrect as rabies lacks a mandatory nationwide notification status.
c Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statement 2 is correct.
d Statement 1 is incorrect because rabies is not legally notifiable nationwide across all States/UTs under a uniform central law.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY), consider the following statements:
1. It is a 100 per cent centrally funded scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. It focuses on the socio-economic empowerment of Scheduled Caste communities through three components: Adarsh Gram, Grants-in-Aid, and hostel construction and repair.
3. The entire fund under the scheme is strictly mandated for livelihood projects and cannot be used for village-level infrastructure gap-filling.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: PM-AJAY is a 100 per cent Centrally Funded Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme encompasses three components: development of Scheduled Caste-dominated villages into ‘Adarsh Grams’, Grants-in-Aid for socio-economic projects at State/District levels, and construction and repair of hostels.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the scheme's funding framework, up to 50 per cent of funds may be utilised specifically for gap-filling activities in selected Adarsh Gram villages.
a Statement 1 is correct, but omitted in option b; Statement 3 is incorrect.
b Statement 3 is incorrect because funds are explicitly permitted (up to 50%) for infrastructure gap-filling in Adarsh Grams.
With reference to international trade and technology controls, consider the following statements regarding China's draft regulatory measures on critical technology exports (Announcement No. 48):
1. It proposes export restrictions and bans across the domains of artificial intelligence, biomedicine, and photovoltaics.
2. A complete prohibition of export is proposed for next-generation perovskite and tandem solar-cell module manufacturing technologies.
3. The export of all polysilicon production and engineering technologies has been subjected to a complete and total export ban.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The draft regulatory plan covers key technologies across artificial intelligence, biomedicine, and photovoltaics.
Statement 2 is correct: Perovskite and tandem solar-cell module manufacturing technologies are placed under a complete prohibition of export.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Polysilicon engineering technologies are categorized under restricted exports (specifically for production lines with an annual capacity of at least 30,000 tonnes), not under a complete ban.
a Statement 3 is incorrect as polysilicon engineering technologies are classified as restricted exports rather than completely prohibited.
b Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because polysilicon technology is listed under restricted exports, not completely banned.
c Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because polysilicon engineering technology is subject to export restrictions, not a total ban.
Consider the following statements regarding macroeconomic expectations and policymaking:
Statement-I: Identifying the proportion of hand-to-mouth consuming households can help streamline government subsidy expenditures during times of fiscal constraint.
Statement-II: Forward-looking consumption models show that all households adjust their consumption patterns solely based on long-term future wealth rather than current income.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
Statement-I is correct: Identifying distressed and hand-to-mouth households enables governments to target subsidies effectively and optimize fiscal room.
Statement-II is incorrect: The core insight of quantifying hand-to-mouth households is that a distinct proportion of households do not smooth consumption over the long term and live hand-to-mouth, constrained by current income rather than solely long-term wealth expectations.
a Statement-II is incorrect because not all households smooth consumption solely on long-term wealth; many live hand-to-mouth.
Consider the following statements regarding palaeo-climatic studies in the Central Ganga Plain:
1. The 4.2 ka arid event, the Roman Warm Period, and the Little Ice Age have been identified as major climatic events influencing the region's environmental phases.
2. In the Central Ganga Plain, moisture records during the colder phase of the Little Ice Age were primarily driven by easterly monsoon depressions, precluding regional flooding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Researchers reconstructed environmental phases associated with major climatic episodes, explicitly identifying the 4.2 ka arid event, the Roman Warm Period, and the Little Ice Age.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Moisture records during the Little Ice Age were brought through westerly winds (not easterly monsoon depressions), which clarified imprints of flooding in the region during its colder phase.
a Statement 1 is correct as it accurately identifies the climatic periods documented in the region.
c Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect because moisture was brought via westerly winds, causing imprints of flooding.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because moisture was driven by westerly winds, not easterly monsoon depressions.
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