What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Scientists Report Successful Operation of World's First Nuclear Clocks
Researchers have demonstrated the first functional nuclear clocks using thorium-229, establishing a more robust timekeeping framework capable of probing fundamental physics and improving precision navigation.
Utilises the thorium-229 isotope, unique for having an ultra-low nuclear transition energy excitable by ultraviolet lasers.
Nuclear clocks rely on nuclear state transitions shielded by electron clouds, resisting ambient electromagnetic and thermal disturbances better than atomic clocks.
Chinese teams integrated thorium-229 into calcium fluoride crystals, demonstrating potential for compact, solid-state clocks.
European teams compared a nuclear clock against a ytterbium atomic clock to test for variations caused by ultralight dark matter.
Key terms
Atomic Clock
— A high-precision timekeeping instrument that measures time by tracking the frequency of electromagnetic transitions of atomic electrons.
Thorium-229
— A radioactive isotope whose nucleus possesses an exceptionally low-energy isomeric state accessible with ultraviolet light.
Dark Matter
— Hypothetical non-luminous matter that does not interact with the electromagnetic spectrum but could induce minute fluctuations in physical constants.
2. MoSPI Issues Draft Guidelines for Expenditure-Side GSDP with Base Year 2022-23
The National Statistics Office has issued draft guidelines to standardize expenditure-based Gross State Domestic Product estimation across States and Union Territories using the updated 2022-23 base year.
3. Health Ministry Proposes Stricter Advertisement Restrictions on Prescription Drugs
The Union Health Ministry has proposed amending the Drugs Rules, 1945, to forbid retailers and wholesalers from advertising Schedule H, H1, and X drugs without prior Central Government approval.
Draft amendment to Drugs Rules, 1945, notified via G.S.R. 861(E).
Introduces sub-rule (22) under Rule 65 to govern retail and wholesale license holders.
Requires prior Central Government sanction to advertise Schedule H, H1, and X medicines.
Based on recommendations from the 93rd meeting of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB).
Provides a 30-day public and stakeholder consultation window before finalization.
Key terms
Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)
— The apex statutory body constituted under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act to advise central and state governments on technical matters arising from drug regulation.
Schedule H and H1 Drugs
— Classes of prescription-only medicines, including potent antibiotics and restricted therapeutics, that cannot be sold over the counter without a registered medical practitioner's prescription.
Schedule X Drugs
— A category of heavily restricted drugs encompassing habit-forming and psychotropic substances requiring strict record-keeping and duplicate prescription retention.
4. Supreme Court Rejects Andhra Pradesh Plea on 34% Backward Classes Local Body Quota
The Supreme Court declined Andhra Pradesh's bid to provide a 34% reservation for Backward Classes in local elections, reaffirming the mandatory 50% cap and rigorous empirical testing.
5. Study Highlights Regional Variations in Coral Bleaching Across India
A 2024 assessment of the fourth global bleaching event reveals stark regional and genus-specific differences in India's coral mortality, underlining the need to study local environmental stressors alongside climate change.
Published in Springer Nature's journal Coral Reefs, authored by lead researcher Wenzel Pinto.
Covered five Indian reef ecosystems: Lakshadweep, Goa, Palk Bay, Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park (MGMNP), and Ritchie’s Archipelago.
Lakshadweep was hardest hit with up to 37% bleaching or mortality, whereas MGMNP recorded only 11.5%.
Acropora, Pocillopora, Galaxea, and Montipora emerged as the most susceptible coral genera overall.
Key terms
Coral Bleaching
— The expulsion of symbiotic zooxanthellae algae from coral tissues triggered by environmental stress, primarily elevated seawater temperatures.
Marine Heatwaves
— Sustained, anomalously warm sea surface temperature events that severely impact marine ecosystems.
El Niño
— A periodic climate phenomenon involving the abnormal warming of central and eastern equatorial Pacific surface waters, altering global weather and ocean temperatures.
6. Understanding Stem-Cell Donor Registries and India's Genetic Diversity Challenge
Tamil Nadu plans a state stem-cell registry, highlighting how unrelated donor databases and high HLA diversity are vital for treating life-threatening haematological disorders.
7. Shahpur Kandi Dam Opens, But Ageing Ravi Canal Restricts Irrigation in J&K
Although the Shahpur Kandi Dam on the Ravi River was completed after a 44-year delay, siltation and wild vegetation have reduced the Ravi Canal's carrying capacity by over 65%, hampering irrigation in Jammu and Kashmir.
Shahpur Kandi Dam is located on the Ravi River in Pathankot district, Punjab.
Ravi Canal's carrying capacity dropped from a designed 1,150 cusecs to just 400 cusecs.
J&K sought ₹534 crore from the Central Water Commission for canal restoration.
Ravi is an Eastern River designated for unrestricted Indian use under the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty.
Key terms
Indus Waters Treaty
— A 1960 transboundary water pact between India and Pakistan dividing the Indus basin, giving India exclusive rights over the Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej).
Warabandi schedule
— A rotational water allocation system used in canal irrigation networks to equitably ration water among farmers based on fixed time slots.
8. Indian Railways Achieves 99.7% Broad Gauge Electrification Milestone
Indian Railways has electrified nearly its entire broad-gauge network, leaving less than 200 route kilometres to achieve total traction decarbonisation.
9. 15th ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement Joint Committee Meeting Held
India and ASEAN convened in Jakarta to accelerate the review of their goods agreement, focusing on market access and rules of origin to ensure balanced trade.
10. Indian Navy to Commission Indigenous Anti-Submarine Warfare Craft Mangrol
The Indian Navy is set to commission its third indigenously built shallow water anti-submarine craft, strengthening coastal defence and self-reliance in naval manufacturing.
11. CDS Inaugurates New Infrastructure Under Project Seabird Phase IIA at Karwar
Key residential, utility, and welfare amenities were operationalised at Karwar Naval Base under Project Seabird Phase IIA, bolstering naval readiness and regional economic growth.
12. Next-Gen GST Process Reforms Announced by GST Council
The GST Council introduced next-generation compliance reforms to automate registrations, ease cancellation procedures, and simplify interstate operations for small e-commerce merchants.
Taxpayer registrations under GST expanded from nearly 60 lakh in 2017 to approximately 1.70 crore by September 2026.
A two-phase automated registration cancellation mechanism will be implemented based on tax clearance and filing status.
Small e-commerce vendors passing ITC up to ₹2.5 lakh monthly can register via PAN without a physical office, declaring warehouse premises as their Principal Place of Business.
Recommended rate architecture streamlines previous tiers into two primary slabs (5% and 18%) alongside a 40% rate for select goods and services.
Key terms
Input Tax Credit
— A mechanism permitting businesses to deduct taxes paid on inputs and purchases from the tax liability due on final sales.
Principal Place of Business
— The primary operational location of a business as formally recorded in its statutory GST registration certificate.
13. RBI Monetary Policy: Rate Hike to Check Inflation Expectations
The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee raised benchmark interest rates by 25 basis points and shifted to 'calibrated tightening' to anchor inflationary expectations amidst supply-side shocks.
14. Imposition of Section 163 BNSS in New Delhi and Its Implications
Authorities invoked Section 163 of the BNSS in New Delhi to restrict planned political demonstrations, spotlighting persistent concerns over the routine deployment of emergency magistrate powers.
Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2024, replaced Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Empowers an Executive Magistrate to issue directions to maintain public order and prevent imminent danger to life or safety.
Statutory directions under this provision are legally capped at a maximum validity of two months.
A study of 5,400 orders in Delhi (2021–2022) revealed only 1.5% barred unlawful assemblies, while over 68% mandated CCTV installations or record-keeping.
Key terms
Section 163 BNSS
— The criminal procedure provision empowering executive magistrates to issue urgent prohibitory orders to prevent obstruction, nuisance, or disturbance of public peace.
Prohibitory Orders
— Official directives that mandate individuals or groups to refrain from specified activities, such as assemblies, to maintain law and order.
15. India-Turkey Ties: Navigating Geopolitical Discord and Law-Enforcement Cooperation
Despite persistent diplomatic tensions over Kashmir and Ankara's defence ties with Pakistan, India and Turkey maintain functional ties through pragmatic law enforcement and bilateral consultations.
India and Turkey share a formal bilateral Extradition Treaty signed in 2001.
Bilateral Foreign Office Consultations resumed in April after remaining suspended since 2022.
Turkey signed the trilateral 'Mecca pact', a collective defence arrangement, with Pakistan and Saudi Arabia.
Ankara facilitated the deportation of key narcotics kingpins, including Navpreet Singh and Salim Dola, to Indian authorities.
Key terms
Mecca pact
— A collective defence agreement established between Turkey, Saudi Arabia, and Pakistan.
Extradition treaty
— A formal bilateral legal framework obligating signatory states to surrender individuals accused or convicted of specified crimes to the requesting country.
Interpol red notices
— International requests circulated to law enforcement globally to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition or similar legal action.
16. Nobel Peace Prize 2026 Conferred on South African Jurist Navi Pillay
Navi Pillay has been awarded the 2026 Nobel Peace Prize for her pioneering jurisprudence in holding leaders accountable for genocide, war crimes, and institutional human rights abuses.
Awarded the 2026 Nobel Peace Prize by the Norwegian Nobel Committee for advancing the global legal order.
Served as a key judge on the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR) for eight years.
Previously served as the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.
Appointed as an ad hoc judge on the International Court of Justice (ICJ) regarding the Myanmar Rohingya genocide case.
Key terms
International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
— A specialized court established by the United Nations to prosecute persons responsible for genocide and humanitarian law violations committed in Rwanda in 1994.
Nuremberg Trials
— Post-World War II military tribunals that pioneered the concept of holding state leaders criminally accountable for war crimes and crimes against humanity under international law.
Geneva Conventions
— A body of international humanitarian treaties establishing standards of legal protection for non-combatants and regulating conduct during armed conflict.
17. US PERM Suspension: Why Indian IT Sector Remained Unfazed
Indian IT equities surged despite US curbs on foreign worker green card certifications, buffered by structural pivots toward local recruitment and flexible delivery systems.
US suspended major IT firms, including Infosys and Wipro, from the Permanent Labour Certification Programme (PERM).
PERM is the prerequisite gateway for employers to sponsor permanent residency (Green Cards) for temporary foreign staff on H-1B visas.
Indian software exporters generate approximately 50% to 60% of their aggregate operational revenue from the US market.
TCS stated its PERM filings stayed in single digits over the past two years while announcing targets to recruit 15,000 US locals over five years.
Key terms
Permanent Labour Certification Programme (PERM)
— A regulatory mechanism through which the US government authorises domestic employers to sponsor foreign personnel for employment-based permanent residency.
Onshoring
— Relocating employees directly to the client's domestic operational territory to handle projects requiring face-to-face liaison.
Nearshoring
— Delegating technical tasks to facilities in neighbouring nations sharing identical time zones to lower geographical friction.
Offshoring
— Outsourcing work to offshore territories situated in entirely different regions and time zones to leverage operational cost advantages.
19. Bharat 6G Alliance Expands Global Ties at 3rd International Symposium
India aims to shape global IMT-2030 standards through international research pacts and indigenous technology development to ensure inclusive, secure future telecommunications.
Established in July 2023, the Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA) is an industry-led collaborative body aiming for indigenous IP creation and 6G deployment.
B6GA signed five MoUs with international entities, including GSMA, one6G, GTI Alliance, Taiwan's 6G Innovation Forum, and VOICE.
Ten white papers and reports were unveiled, highlighting Progress Reports on 6G Joint Principles and sustainable AI-native networks.
The roadmap directly targets alignment with the International Telecommunication Union's IMT-2030 framework and preparations for WRC-27 spectrum allocation.
Key terms
IMT-2030
— The official framework established by the International Telecommunication Union governing the development and technical requirements of 6G communication networks.
Bharat 6G Alliance
— An Indian collaborative platform uniting academia, industry, and startups to drive domestic research, patents, and global standards for next-generation telecom.
WRC-27
— The 2027 World Radiocommunication Conference where global regulators negotiate and harmonize radio-frequency spectrum allocations for emerging technologies.
The Supreme Court judgment in Vikas Kishanrao Gawali v. State of Maharashtra is primarily concerned with which of the following matters?
Answer: (c)
In Vikas Kishanrao Gawali v. State of Maharashtra (2021), the Supreme Court held that a contemporaneous and rigorous empirical inquiry into the nature and extent of backwardness specifically relating to local bodies is a mandatory prerequisite for granting quotas.
The judgment established the empirical inquiry requirement to prevent unconstitutional breaches of the 50% ceiling in Panchayats and Municipalities.
a The case concerns local body reservation requirements, not parliamentary or legislative assembly delimitation.
b The case does not deal with the tenure of State Election Commissioners.
d Creamy layer exclusion in promotional quotas relates to rulings like Jarnail Singh and M. Nagaraj, not Vikas Kishanrao Gawali.
Consider the following statements regarding the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) review process:
1. The review meetings are co-chaired by representatives from India's Department of Commerce and an ASEAN member country.
2. Sub-Committees under the Joint Committee include those on National Treatment on Market Access and Rules of Origin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Joint Committee meeting is co-chaired by India's Additional Secretary (Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry) alongside an ASEAN counterpart (represented by Malaysia).
The institutional mechanism includes specialized sub-committees, specifically the Sub-Committee on National Treatment on Market Access (SC-NTMA) and the Sub-Committee on Rules of Origin (SC-ROO).
b Both statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the established institutional framework of the AITIGA Joint Committee.
c Statement 2 is also correct as SC-NTMA and SC-ROO are established Sub-Committees under the AITIGA JC.
d Statement 1 is also correct as the negotiations are co-chaired by officials from India's Department of Commerce and ASEAN.
Consider the following statements regarding jurist Navanethem “Navi” Pillay:
1. She served as the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.
2. She was appointed as an ad hoc judge on the International Court of Justice in the case concerning allegations of genocide against Myanmar.
3. She chaired the UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Navi Pillay served as the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights (reflected in her UN human rights leadership).
She serves as an ad hoc judge at the International Court of Justice (ICJ) in the case involving Myanmar's alleged genocide against Rohingya Muslims.
Between 2021 and 2025, she chaired the UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory.
a Statement 2 is also correct; she serves as an ad hoc judge on the ICJ in the Myanmar genocide proceedings.
b Statement 1 is also correct; she held the office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.
c Statement 3 is also correct; she chaired the UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory.
Consider the following statements regarding the infrastructure development under Project Seabird:
1. It is located in the Uttara Kannada region to house naval personnel and defence civilians.
2. In alignment with the 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' initiative, over 90% of the materials and equipment for the project are sourced domestically.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The project is situated at Naval Base Karwar in the Uttara Kannada region, providing infrastructure for uniformed personnel and naval defence civilians.
Project Seabird aligns with Aatmanirbhar Bharat by sourcing over 90% of materials and equipment domestically.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are factual and correct.
c Statement 2 is also correct as over 90% of materials and equipment are sourced domestically.
d Statement 1 is also correct as the base is situated in the Uttara Kannada region.
With reference to the Permanent Labour Certification Programme (PERM) in the United States, consider the following statements:
1. It serves as an initial step for US employers seeking to obtain an employment-based green card for foreign workers.
2. It applies to foreign national employees who are present in the US under temporary H-1B visas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The PERM program is the primary first step for employers in the US to sponsor and obtain an employment-based green card (permanent residency) for foreign national employees.
Statement 2 is correct: The program covers foreign national employees residing and working in the US on temporary non-immigrant visas such as H-1B visas.
a Both statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the PERM process.
b Statement 2 is also correct as PERM is used for foreign nationals working in the US via temporary H-1B visas.
c Statement 1 is also correct as PERM represents the initial step for obtaining employment-based green cards.
Consider the following statements regarding macroeconomic adjustments and monetary tightening:
1. A shift in the monetary policy stance from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening' signals that rate cuts are off the table and policy tightening is the prevailing direction.
2. Higher domestic interest rates can help curb the outflow of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), thereby easing downward pressure on the domestic exchange rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Changing the stance to 'calibrated tightening' from 'neutral' conveys a clear direction that policy rates are primed for hikes using central bank tools to keep inflation anchored.
Raising policy rates increases the yield differential, which helps pause or slow down the exodus of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), granting breathing room on the foreign exchange front.
a Statement 2 is also correct as higher interest rates incentivize foreign capital retention and cushion exchange rate volatility.
b Statement 1 is also correct because the calibrated tightening stance explicitly communicates an upward bias for interest rates.
d Both statements are correct macroeconomic inferences supported directly by the text.
With reference to the regulation of prescription drug advertisements under the Drugs Rules, 1945, consider the following statements:
1. The requirement of prior Central Government sanction for advertisements applies to drugs specified under Schedule H, Schedule H1, and Schedule X.
2. Proposed amendments seek to extend the advertisement restrictions beyond manufacturers to entities holding retail and wholesale sale and distribution licences.
3. The draft amendment was proposed following consultations with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Drugs specified under Schedule H, Schedule H1, and Schedule X require prior Central Government sanction for advertisements.
Statement 2 is correct: The proposed amendment to Rule 65 extends these restrictions to holders of licences for the sale, distribution, stocking, and exhibition of drugs, including wholesale and retail licence holders.
Statement 3 is correct: The draft rules were formulated following recommendations and consultations with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB).
a Incorrect because all three statements are accurate based on the regulatory framework and proposed amendment.
b Incorrect because all three statements are accurate, not just two.
d Incorrect because none of the statements are false.
With reference to nuclear clocks, consider the following statements:
1. Unlike traditional atomic clocks which rely on electron transitions, nuclear clocks rely on energy transitions within the atomic nucleus.
2. In a nuclear clock, the atomic nucleus is more shielded from external electromagnetic disturbances by the electron cloud than outer electrons are.
3. The isotope thorium-229 is uniquely suited for nuclear clocks because its nuclear transition energy is low enough to be excited using an ultraviolet laser.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Nuclear clocks rely on transitions inside the nucleus rather than electron transitions used in conventional atomic clocks.
The nucleus is naturally shielded by the surrounding electron cloud, making it less susceptible to external electric and magnetic fields or temperature fluctuations.
Thorium-229 has an exceptionally low nuclear transition energy that allows excitation via an ultraviolet laser rather than highly energetic X-rays or gamma rays.
b Statement 1 is also correct as the fundamental mechanism of nuclear clocks is timekeeping based on nuclear energy transitions.
c Statement 2 is also correct because the electron cloud provides shielding to the nucleus from environmental electromagnetic disturbances.
d Statement 3 is also correct as thorium-229's uniquely low transition energy allows excitation using UV lasers.
With reference to the Shahpur Kandi Dam project, consider the following statements:
1. It is located on the Ravi River in the Pathankot district of Punjab.
2. It assists India in utilising its allocated share of water under the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty.
3. It is designed to deliver water to Jammu and Kashmir primarily via a lift-irrigation mechanism rather than gravity flow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Shahpur Kandi Dam is situated on the Ravi River in Pathankot district, Punjab.
Statement 2 is correct: The project enables India to utilise its share of the Ravi's waters, which is one of the Eastern Rivers allocated to India under the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A key significance of the project is that it allows Jammu and Kashmir to receive its share of water via gravity flow, replacing the expensive lift-irrigation system it previously relied upon.
a Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect because the dam enables gravity-based supply, replacing lift irrigation.
c Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect because the dam delivers water through gravity flow, replacing lift irrigation.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because the project replaces expensive lift irrigation with gravity-based flow.
With reference to the compilation of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) estimates from the expenditure side, consider the following statements:
1. The National Statistics Office (NSO) has prepared guidelines adopting 2022-23 as the base year.
2. Currently, Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) estimates are compiled regularly by most States and Union Territories.
3. Expenditure-side GSDP covers components including Gross Fixed Capital Formation, Changes in Inventories, and Net Exports.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
The NSO under MoSPI prepared the draft guidelines for the compilation of GSDP estimates from the expenditure side with base year 2022-23.
At present, PFCE estimates are not being compiled by any State or Union Territory; only some States/UTs compile estimates of GFCF and GFCE.
The expenditure-side framework covers PFCE, GFCE, Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), Changes in Inventories, Valuables, and Net Exports.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 1 is correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect as no State/UT currently compiles PFCE estimates.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because PFCE estimates are currently not compiled by any State/UT.
With reference to the history and progress of railway electrification in India, consider the following statements:
1. India's first electric train commenced operations in 1925 between Bombay Victoria Terminus and Kurla Harbour.
2. Over 99% of the country’s Broad Gauge (BG) network has been electrified.
3. All States and Union Territories have achieved 100 per cent electrification of their Broad Gauge railway network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Railway electrification in India began in 1925 when the country's first electric train ran between Bombay Victoria Terminus and Kurla Harbour.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian Railways has electrified 99.7% of its total Broad Gauge network.
Statement 3 is incorrect: 27 States and Union Territories have achieved 100% electrification, but three states (Assam, Karnataka, and Goa) still have pending non-electrified Broad Gauge sections.
b Statement 1 is also correct regarding the commencement of India's first electric train in 1925.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because electrification is not yet 100% complete across all States and UTs.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because three states (Assam, Karnataka, and Goa) have not yet attained 100% electrification.
With reference to stem-cell donor registries and transplantation, consider the following statements:
1. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) profile, rather than ABO blood group, is the critical matching factor between a donor and a recipient.
2. Registration in a stem-cell donor registry obligates the donor to undergo immediate surgical extraction of bone marrow.
3. A closer HLA match helps reduce the risk of graft-versus-host disease in the recipient.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The key factor in matching is Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA), rather than the blood group, as HLA markers help the immune system distinguish self from non-self cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Registration typically involves only a cheek or buccal swab for HLA typing and does not involve immediate donation; stem cells are only harvested if a match is later identified, often via the bloodstream rather than surgical bone marrow extraction.
Statement 3 is correct: A closer HLA match improves the likelihood of a successful transplant and lowers complications such as graft-versus-host disease.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because registration is non-invasive and does not involve immediate donation or mandatory bone marrow surgery.
c Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.
With reference to the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) 'Mangrol', consider the following statements:
1. It has been built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) with more than 80% indigenous content.
2. It relies on conventional steam turbine propulsion designed specifically for deep-sea open ocean combat.
3. It is equipped with the Abhay Hull-Mounted Sonar and the Maareech Advanced Torpedo Decoy System.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Mangrol is the third ASW-SWC built by Cochin Shipyard Limited and features over 80% indigenous content.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The craft is powered by three diesel engines with waterjet propulsion offering high manoeuvrability in coastal and shallow waters, not steam turbines for deep-sea combat.
Statement 3 is correct: It is fitted with modern sensors and countermeasures, including the Abhay Hull-Mounted Sonar and the Maareech Advanced Torpedo Decoy System.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, making the combination containing all three statements wrong.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the vessel is designed for shallow-water operations using waterjet propulsion, while Statement 1 is correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because Mangrol is powered by three diesel engines with waterjet propulsion, not steam turbines.
With reference to coral reef regions in India and recent assessments of thermal stress impacts, consider the following statements:
1. Among the assessed regions in the Indian subcontinent, the Lakshadweep archipelago recorded higher bleaching intensity compared to the Andaman Islands.
2. In Palk Bay, Porites corals exhibited significantly lower mortality than the typically heat-vulnerable Acropora corals.
3. Ritchie’s Archipelago and Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park represent major reef-bearing zones located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The study found Lakshadweep to be the most affected (up to 37% coral cover bleached or dead), exhibiting significantly higher bleaching intensity than Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park (MGMNP) in the Andaman Islands (11.5%).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Palk Bay showed an unusual pattern where typically resistant Porites colonies displayed high mortality (61.8%), whereas Acropora corals showed only a modest bleaching or mortality of 13.6%.
Statement 3 is correct: Both Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park and Ritchie’s Archipelago are prominent island/marine zones in the Andaman Islands assessed for coral reef bleaching.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because Porites showed significantly higher mortality (61.8%) than Acropora (13.6%) in Palk Bay.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 1 is correct.
d Statement 2 is incorrect due to the unusual inverted pattern observed in Palk Bay.
With reference to Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, consider the following statements:
1. It replaces Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and confers preventive powers on an Executive Magistrate.
2. An order issued under this provision operates indefinitely until formally revoked by a competent judicial court.
3. In Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this preventive power, observing that it can be invoked only in emergencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Section 163 of the BNSS replaces Section 144 of the CrPC, empowering an Executive Magistrate to issue orders for immediate prevention or speedy remedy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: An order under this provision is not indefinite; the statute prescribes that it lapses within two months once the threat has passed.
Statement 3 is correct: In Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961), the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the provision while stressing that the power is conditioned by emergency circumstances to prevent specific threats.
a Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect because orders lapse within two months.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the statutory duration of an order is limited to two months, not indefinite.
d Statement 3 is also correct based on the Supreme Court's ruling in Babulal Parate (1961).
With reference to the Next-Generation Goods and Services Tax (GST) process reforms recommended by the GST Council, consider the following statements:
1. The reformed rate structure rationalises the system primarily into two main rates of 5% and 18%, along with a special rate of 40% for select goods and services.
2. Automatic acceptance of amendments to registration particulars is enabled for all fields except changes relating to the Principal Place of Business (PPoB), unless the taxpayer was registered through the automatic route.
3. Small e-commerce sellers having no physical presence in a State can declare the electronic commerce operator’s warehouse as their Principal Place of Business.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
The GST Council recommended Next-Generation reforms to simplify the four-tier GST rate structure into two main rates (5% and 18%) and a special 40% rate for select goods and services.
Automatic acceptance of amendments to registration particulars is enabled on the portal, except for changes relating to the Principal Place of Business (PPoB); however, for taxpayers registered through the automatic route, even amendments to PPoB are accepted automatically.
To support small e-commerce sellers, an Electronic Commerce Operator (ECO) warehouse can be declared as the Principal Place of Business (PPoB) in States/UTs where the seller lacks a physical presence.
a Statement 2 is also correct regarding the rules for automatic acceptance of amendments to registration particulars.
b Statement 3 is also correct as small e-commerce sellers are permitted to declare ECO warehouses as PPoB in States/UTs where they lack physical presence.
d Statement 1 is also correct regarding the transition towards two main rates (5% and 18%) and a 40% special rate.
With reference to the procedural and compliance reforms considered by the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:
1. A faceless assessment system has been introduced for Central GST registered companies, modeled on the income tax assessment framework.
2. The frequency of GST rate reviews has been restricted to once every quarter to ensure regular macroeconomic adjustments.
3. Human discretion in GST administration is being minimized through automated registrations and computer-based verification of refunds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Centre has introduced a faceless assessment system for Central GST registered companies along the lines of the faceless system in income tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision taken is to review tax rates only once a year (implementing changes at the start of financial years), rather than every quarter, to eliminate uncertainty.
Statement 3 is correct: The thrust of the procedural reforms includes reducing human discretion by automating registrations and processing refunds through computer-based verification.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, making option d invalid.
b Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because rate reviews will happen once a year, not quarterly.
With reference to the geopolitical agreement known as the 'Mecca pact', consider the following statements:
1. It is a trilateral collective defence agreement entered into by Turkey, Pakistan, and Saudi Arabia.
2. It explicitly excludes military-industrial and drone technology sharing among the signatory nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Mecca (or Makkah) pact is a collective defence agreement entered into by Turkey, Saudi Arabia, and Pakistan.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Experts note that the pact entails potential technology and military-industrial cooperation, specifically involving the risk of Turkish drone and advanced electronic warfare technology reaching Pakistan.
a Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect because the pact includes risks of military technology and drone sharing.
With reference to the Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA), consider the following statements:
1. It is an industry-led collaborative platform established to advance India's 6G ambitions.
2. It brings together telecom service providers, industry, startups, academia, and research institutions.
3. It focuses exclusively on indigenous technology development and prohibits collaborations with international standards bodies and global alliances.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Bharat 6G Alliance is an industry-led collaborative platform established in July 2023 to advance India's 6G ambitions.
Statement 2 is correct: It brings together telecom service providers, industry, startups, academia, and research institutions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: B6GA actively engages in international standards, global collaborations, and has exchanged MoUs with international entities such as GSMA, one6G, GTI Alliance, etc.
a Statement 3 is incorrect.
b Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect because B6GA promotes international partnerships rather than prohibiting them.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because B6GA actively fosters global partnerships and standards engagement.
With reference to the electoral process in India, consider the following statements regarding 'Form 7':
1. It is the statutory form used to seek the deletion of a name or to raise objections against a proposed entry in the electoral roll.
2. Any registered elector in India can submit Form 7 against an entry in any Assembly constituency across the country.
3. The statutory basis for filing objections using Form 7 is provided under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Form 7 is the statutory form used to seek deletion of a name or objection to a proposed entry in the electoral roll.
Under Rule 13(2) of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, only an individual who is registered to vote in the same Assembly constituency can submit Form 7, making statement 2 incorrect.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, so all three cannot be correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because an elector cannot file Form 7 for any constituency; they must be registered in the same Assembly constituency.
d Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.
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