What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Environment Minister Inaugurates International Big Cat Alliance Headquarters in New Delhi
India formalized the headquarters of the treaty-based International Big Cat Alliance in New Delhi, reinforcing its diplomatic leadership in global wildlife conservation.
The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is a treaty-based inter-governmental body headquartered in New Delhi, India.
Aims to protect seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.
The Government of India has committed a budgetary corpus of Rs 150 crore over five years (2023–24 to 2027–28).
The alliance currently includes 29 member countries, 5 observer nations, and 11 prospective members.
Key terms
International Big Cat Alliance
— A treaty-based intergovernmental organisation headquartered in India to foster cooperation across range countries for the preservation of seven distinct big cat species.
PRIME Cat Health Programme
— A specialised veterinary capacity-building initiative conducted under IBCA to train wildlife doctors across multiple nations in big cat healthcare.
2. India Hosts Inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers' Meeting in New Delhi
India is hosting the first-ever BIMSTEC Home Ministers' Meeting to enhance regional cooperation against terrorism, cyber threats, and transnational crime.
3. Five Years of PM GatiShakti: Transforming Integrated Infrastructure Planning
PM GatiShakti marks five years of coordinating multi-modal transport infrastructure via GIS mapping, newly augmented by the Integrated Transport & Logistics Authority.
Launched on 13 October 2021, integrating 58 Central Ministries and all 36 States and UTs on a single GIS platform.
Operates over 23,493 data layers and 230 publicly accessible datasets for geospatial infrastructure planning.
Three-tier framework comprises the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS), Network Planning Group (NPG), and Technical Support Unit (TSU).
Evaluated 396 projects worth ₹18.66 lakh crore, with 256 sanctioned and 198 under active implementation.
Creation of Integrated Transport & Logistics Authority (ITLA) approved to handle technical appraisal for projects valued at ₹500 crore or more.
Key terms
Geographic Information System (GIS)
— A spatial data system designed to capture, store, analyse, and visualise location-linked geographic and infrastructural information.
Network Planning Group (NPG)
— An inter-ministerial operational body of planning heads that scrutinises infrastructure proposals for alignment, multimodal synergy, and logistical efficiency.
Integrated Transport & Logistics Authority (ITLA)
— A dedicated regulatory and planning body tasked with long-term transport master planning and technical appraisal of high-value capital projects.
4. Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana Completes First Year of Implementation
The Centre marked the first anniversary of PMDDKY, reviewing localized progress across 100 focal districts and initiating the upcoming Khet Bachao Abhiyan for soil health.
5. Karnataka High Court Invalidates Law Hiking SC and ST Reservation Quotas
The Karnataka High Court struck down state legislation raising SC/ST quotas beyond the 50% threshold, reiterating that the judicial cap is a binding constitutional limit.
6. Protest vs Public Order: Limits of Preventive Policing Powers
Sweeping administrative curbs in New Delhi have revived constitutional debates over balancing fundamental protest rights against preventive policing under public order grounds.
Right to assemble peacefully is protected under Article 19(1)(b) but subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(3).
Himat Lal K Shah (1973) held that states may regulate public assemblies without conferring arbitrary powers to ban them outright.
Section 168 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) mandates police to interdict and prevent cognisable offences.
Section 163 of the BNSS acts as the contemporary procedural successor to Section 144 of the erstwhile Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Anuradha Bhasin (2020) affirmed preventive orders must face proportionality review and cannot quell legitimate dissent.
Key terms
BNSS Section 163
— The legal provision succeeding CrPC Section 144 that empowers magistrates to issue urgent prohibitive orders to prevent public disorder or danger.
BNSS Section 168
— A statutory duty replacing CrPC Section 149 that mandates police officers to intervene to prevent the commission of any cognisable offence.
Proportionality
— A legal doctrine requiring administrative restrictions on fundamental rights to be suitable, necessary, and strictly balanced against the anticipated threat.
9. House Panel Proposes Sweeping Reforms for National Testing Agency
A parliamentary committee has recommended overhauling the National Testing Agency through computer-adaptive testing, annual equity audits, attempt limits, and dedicated research wings.
Rajya Sabha Standing Committee on Education chaired by Mukul Wasnik submitted its 382nd report on NTA reforms.
Over 474 court cases involve NTA across the country, with 356 cases tied specifically to NEET-UG 2024.
Recommended introducing reasonable upper-age and attempt caps for competitive entrance tests like NEET-UG, sparing only UGC-NET.
Advocated transitioning to Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) powered by AI to curb question paper leaks.
Suggested conducting yearly Equity Audits disaggregated by state, gender, school type, medium, and social category.
Key terms
Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT)
— A digital assessment format where the examination dynamically adjusts question difficulty based on the examinee's performance in real time.
Equity Audit
— A systematic review evaluating participation, pass percentages, and cutoff achievements across various socioeconomic, regional, and institutional demographics.
10. State Action and the Right to Peaceful Assembly and Protest
Recent crackdowns on student demonstrations in the capital raise concerns over the erosion of constitutional guarantees safeguarding peaceful assembly and the judicial enforcement of fundamental rights.
11. Indian Navy Commissions Indigenous ASW Shallow Water Craft INS Mangrol
The induction of INS Mangrol boosts the Indian Navy's coastal anti-submarine warfare and underscores growing self-reliance in domestic warship manufacturing.
Commissioned as the third Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) carrying pennant number P82.
Indigenously conceptualized and built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.
Boasts over 80 percent indigenous content, relying substantially on domestic MSMEs and private industrial partners.
Equipped with three diesel-driven waterjet propulsion units to provide superior agility in shallow littoral environments.
Key terms
Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)
— Naval operations and technology dedicated to locating, tracking, neutralizing, or destroying adversary submarines.
Low-Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO)
— Naval missions conducted below the threshold of full-scale war, including anti-piracy, coastal patrolling, and countering maritime asymmetric threats.
Waterjet Propulsion
— A marine propulsion system that expels a high-velocity stream of water backwards to steer and propel vessels, ideal for shallow-water high-speed handling.
12. INS Tarkash Deployed to South Africa for Exercise IBSAMAR IX
India's stealth frigate INS Tarkash joins the Brazilian and South African navies for the ninth biennial IBSAMAR exercise, bolstering South-South trilateral maritime security.
IBSAMAR is a biennial trilateral naval exercise established in 2008 under the India-Brazil-South Africa Dialogue Forum.
The 9th edition features the theme: 'Stronger Together Towards a Shared Future in the Maritime Domain'.
Indian Navy is represented by guided missile stealth frigate INS Tarkash carrying an integral Chetak helicopter.
Participating foreign vessels include Brazil's BNS Barroso and South Africa's SAS Amatola, SAS King Sekhukhune I, SAS Adam Kok III, and SAS Manthatisi submarine.
Key terms
IBSAMAR
— A biennial joint maritime exercise conducted between the navies of India, Brazil, and South Africa.
Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS)
— Maritime tactical operations involving boarding suspect vessels to inspect cargo, deter piracy, or enforce maritime interdiction.
13. Sixteenth India–UK Joint Economic and Trade Committee Convenes in New Delhi
India and the UK held the 16th JETCO meeting to review implementation progress and early commercial gains under their Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement.
14. Delhi Protests and the Constitutional Limits of Preventive Detention
Large-scale police detentions during demonstrations in Delhi prompted the Supreme Court to intervene, bringing legal scrutiny to preventive detention and prohibitory orders.
Preventive detention involves holding individuals without formal trial or conviction to stop prospective offences.
Section 163 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaces Section 144 CrPC, empowering executive magistrates to issue emergency prohibitory orders.
The National Security Act (NSA), 1980 permits detention over threats to state security, defence, and foreign ties.
Supreme Court precedents like Babulal Parate (1961) and Madhu Limaye (1971) mandate that prohibitory restrictions be proportionate and strictly non-routine.
Key terms
Preventive Detention
— Incarceration of an individual without formal trial or judicial conviction aimed at averting imminent law-and-order offences.
Section 163 BNSS
— A procedural legal provision enabling executive magistrates to swiftly issue prohibitory orders to prevent public disorder or danger to life.
15. Supreme Court Seeks Trade Margin Caps Across All Essential Medicines
The Supreme Court urged the Union government to extend trade margin caps beyond anti-cancer formulations to encompass all essential drugs and medical devices, curbing excessive mark-ups.
16. IPCC Faces Historic Deadlock Over Inclusivity and Report Timelines
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is facing an unprecedented impasse over its publication schedule, as developing nations seek more time to ensure equitable scientific representation ahead of critical 2028 UN climate…
The IPCC comprises 195 member states and typically approves assessment timelines swiftly.
A coalition including India, China, Kenya, Saudi Arabia, and Russia is advocating to extend the assessment cycle into 2029.
The United States, historically the IPCC's primary financial contributor, withdrew from the organization in January.
A key plenary session was scheduled in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, to negotiate deadlines ahead of the 2028 Paris Agreement review.
Key terms
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
— The United Nations body tasked with assessing the science, impacts, and response strategies related to human-induced climate change.
Paris Agreement
— A 2015 international treaty under the UNFCCC setting multilateral goals to limit global temperature increases and periodically assess collective progress.
17. CJI Emphasises Rehabilitation Over Retribution Under Juvenile Justice Act
The Chief Justice of India called for safeguarding the privacy of juvenile offenders and transforming juvenile administration through dedicated defence counsel, inter-agency training, and structural reforms.
Event: National Annual Stakeholders' Consultation on Ten Years of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, organised by SC's Juvenile Justice Committee and UNICEF.
NALSA's 2024 Child-Friendly Legal Services Scheme provides for lawyers at police stations and clinics at every Juvenile Justice Board.
India Justice Report (Nov 2025) revealed a 55% pendency rate across Boards in 18 states and 2 UTs for the year ending October 2023.
The study showed 24% of responding Boards (111 of 470) lacked a full bench comprising a principal magistrate and two social workers.
Key terms
Child in Conflict with Law
— A minor accused or found to have committed an offence, treated under a rehabilitative rather than retributive framework.
Juvenile Justice Board
— A statutory bench comprising a principal magistrate and two social worker members dealing with minors in conflict with the law.
18. Drought in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh Amid Deficient Southwest Monsoon
Severe monsoon deficits have triggered wide-scale drought declarations in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, underscoring systemic frictions over NDRF allocations and the urgency of agricultural adaptation.
Karnataka reported an estimated 35% seasonal rainfall deficit, declaring 217 out of 240 taluks drought-affected.
Andhra Pradesh registered a 53% shortfall between June and August, designating 388 of 688 mandals as drought-hit.
Karnataka sought approximately ₹11,000 crore from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
The summer monsoon marked its weakest overall performance since 2015, heavily influenced by an intensifying El Niño event.
Key terms
National Disaster Response Fund
— A central statutory corpus managed by the Union government to finance urgent relief expenditures during severe natural calamities beyond state capacity.
Manual for Drought Management
— A standardized central administrative guideline outlining objective criteria, scientific indicators, and field-verification procedures for assessing and notifying droughts.
El Niño
— An abnormal warming of surface ocean waters in the eastern and central equatorial Pacific that typically suppresses the Indian summer monsoon.
19. Nobel Prize in Economics: Hall and Woodford's Foundations for Stabilisation Policy
Robert Hall and Michael Woodford received the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences for anchoring macroeconomic stabilisation models in micro-level human behaviour.
20. Saudi-Houthi Conflict: Examining the Scope of the Mecca Defence Pact
Renewed Houthi strikes on Saudi Arabia highlight the strategic constraints of the Mecca Defence Alliance as partners Pakistan and Turkey restrict their involvement to non-offensive support.
21. ECI Extends Special Intensive Revision Schedule for Maharashtra Electoral Rolls
The Election Commission of India has extended key deadlines for the electoral roll revision process in Maharashtra ahead of the final roll publication.
Consider the following statements regarding the geomorphic hazards in high-altitude Himalayan terrain:
1. Rising temperatures reduce the cohesion between rock and ice, rendering mountain slopes more susceptible to slope failure.
2. In high-altitude flash floods, the destructive force exerted on downstream infrastructure is determined solely by the volume of water rather than its sediment and boulder load.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: As warming occurs and snow/ice melts, the cohesion between rock and ice ends, making mountain slopes significantly more vulnerable to structural failure.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The destructive capacity is not determined by water volume alone; floods carrying heavy rocks, gravel, and dense slurry exert immense physical force on bridges, roads, and settlements.
a Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because sediment, gravel, and boulder content significantly amplify the destructive impact beyond water volume alone.
d Statement 1 is valid based on Himalayan slope stability dynamics.
With reference to the inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting, consider the following statements:
1. The inaugural edition of the meeting was hosted by India in New Delhi.
2. The meeting focused on regional security cooperation, including combating terrorism, transnational organized crime, and cyber threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
India hosted the first BIMSTEC Home Ministers' Meeting in New Delhi on 13 October 2026.
The meeting highlighted the shared resolve of member states to combat terrorism, transnational organized crime, narcotics trafficking, illicit financial flows, and cyber threats to build a secure region.
a Statement 1 is also correct as the meeting was held in New Delhi, India.
b Statement 2 is also correct as regional security cooperation across terrorism and cyber threats was a core focus.
c Both statements are correct based on the official announcement.
Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical dynamics of the Mecca Defence Alliance:
1. The alliance seeks to synergise Turkish defence industrial depth, Saudi financial resources, and Pakistani operational military experience.
2. In the Yemen conflict, the Houthis have established control over strategic maritime positions in the vicinity of the Bab-el-Mandeb strait.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The strategic rationale underpinning the Mecca pact combines Turkish defence industrial depth, Saudi financing, and Pakistani operational experience.
Statement 2 is correct: In the ongoing Yemen theatre, the Houthi faction took over key positions near the Bab-el-Mandeb chokepoint.
a Both statements 1 and 2 are factually accurate.
c Statement 1 is also correct as the pact's core template explicitly integrates Turkish industry, Saudi capital, and Pakistani operational expertise.
d Statement 2 is also correct as Houthis captured key positions near the Bab-el-Mandeb chokepoint.
Consider the following statements regarding the exercise IBSAMAR IX:
1. INS Tarkash represents the Indian Navy in the exercise.
2. The theme of the exercise is 'Stronger Together Towards a Shared Future in the Maritime Domain'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
INS Tarkash, a frontline guided missile stealth frigate, represents the Indian Navy in the ninth edition of the exercise.
The designated theme of IBSAMAR IX is 'Stronger Together Towards a Shared Future in the Maritime Domain'.
a Statement 2 is also correct as per the official theme designated for IBSAMAR IX.
c Statement 1 is also correct as INS Tarkash was deployed for the exercise.
With reference to the revision of electoral rolls by the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. The process of revising electoral rolls provides a specific window for the public to file claims and objections.
2. The disposal of filed claims and objections occurs strictly after the final publication of the electoral roll.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The schedule designated by the Election Commission specifically includes a designated timeframe for filing claims and objections.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The notice and disposal of claims and objections take place prior to the publication of the final electoral roll, not after it.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because disposal occurs before final publication, making Statement 1 the only correct one.
b Statement 1 is correct as filing claims and objections is an established part of the revision schedule.
c Statement 2 is factually incorrect regarding the operational sequence of roll publication.
With reference to the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), consider the following statements:
1. It adopts a district-centric approach where local action plans are prepared based on specific agro-climatic conditions and community needs.
2. The scheme monitors district performance and generates rankings using a dedicated dashboard.
3. It is being implemented across all aspirational districts of India under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: PMDDKY follows a district-centric approach wherein district action plans are formulated according to local soil conditions, rainfall, cropping patterns, water availability, and farmers' needs.
Statement 2 is correct: District performance under the scheme is monitored against specific indicators through a dedicated dashboard with monthly rankings.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is administered by the Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare (Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare) and targets 100 identified districts, not all aspirational districts under the Ministry of Rural Development.
b Statement 3 is incorrect regarding the nodal ministry and targeted coverage.
c Statement 2 is also correct as the scheme utilizes a dedicated dashboard and rankings to evaluate districts.
d Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme is spearheaded by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare across 100 identified districts.
With reference to the ceiling on reservations in India and judicial precedents, consider the following statements:
1. The 50% ceiling limit on reservations was established by the Supreme Court in the Indra Sawhney vs Union of India (1992) case.
2. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment introduced reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) by expanding the backward classes quota beyond the 50% ceiling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court laid down the 50% ceiling limit for reservations in the landmark Indra Sawhney vs Union of India (1992) case.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 10% EWS quota introduced under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment is carved out from the general merit pool and does not permit the State to expand reservation for backward classes beyond the ceiling.
b Statement 1 is correct, so Neither 1 nor 2 is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because EWS reservation is carved out from the general merit pool, not backward classes.
With reference to the constitutional and legal framework governing public assemblies and preventive policing in India, consider the following statements:
1. The power and statutory duty of police officers to prevent cognisable offences is provided under Section 168 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
2. In Himat Lal K. Shah vs Commissioner of Police (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the State has absolute power to prohibit public assemblies entirely on streets.
3. In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court held that preventive orders can be issued against apprehended danger without waiting for violence to occur, provided the restrictions satisfy the test of proportionality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Section 168 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which replaced Section 149 of the CrPC, requires police officers to prevent cognisable offences to the best of their ability.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Himat Lal K Shah vs Commissioner of Police (1973), the Supreme Court held that the State can regulate assemblies on public streets due to competing uses, but regulation cannot become an arbitrary power to prohibit assemblies altogether.
Statement 3 is correct: In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), the Court affirmed that the State need not wait for violence to occur before issuing preventive orders against apprehended danger, but such restrictions must warrant emergency action and satisfy proportionality.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court barred arbitrary blanket prohibition of assemblies.
c Statement 1 is correct regarding Section 168 of the BNSS and statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, so all three cannot be correct.
With reference to the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a treaty-based inter-governmental international organisation headquartered in India.
2. It focuses on the conservation of six big cat species, excluding the Jaguar.
3. The Government of India has committed financial assistance to the Alliance for its initial period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The IBCA is a treaty-based inter-governmental international organisation established with its headquarters in New Delhi, India.
It is dedicated to the conservation of seven big cats: Lion, Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma; thus statement 2 is incorrect.
The Government of India has committed an initial contribution of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
a Statement 2 is incorrect, making this option wrong.
c Statement 1 is also correct; IBCA is an inter-governmental treaty-based body with headquarters in India.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the alliance covers seven big cat species, which explicitly includes the Jaguar.
With reference to Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), consider the following statements:
1. It serves as the successor provision to Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
2. The power to issue orders under this section can be exercised by Judicial Magistrates of the first class.
3. Orders passed under this section are exempt from judicial review by High Courts to ensure speedy administrative action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Section 163 of the BNSS largely retains the spirit of its predecessor, Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The section empowers a District Magistrate, a Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government, not Judicial Magistrates.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Orders under Section 163 BNSS are subject to judicial review by High Courts under their revisional or writ jurisdiction.
a Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
b Statements 2 and 3 are both incorrect; only Executive Magistrates are empowered, and orders are open to judicial review.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the power lies with Executive Magistrates (such as DM or SDM), not Judicial Magistrates.
With reference to the justice administration for children under the legal framework in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 came into force in January 2016.
2. The composition of a full bench of a Juvenile Justice Board comprises a Principal Magistrate and two social worker members.
3. The National Legal Services Authority's (NALSA) child-friendly legal services scheme envisages setting up a legal services clinic at every Juvenile Justice Board.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 came into force in January 2016.
Statement 2 is correct: A full bench of a Juvenile Justice Board comprises a Principal Magistrate and two social worker members.
Statement 3 is correct: NALSA's child-friendly legal services scheme provides for a lawyer at the police station and a legal services clinic at every Juvenile Justice Board.
b Statement 1 is also correct as the 2015 Act came into force in January 2016.
c Statement 3 is also correct regarding NALSA's child-friendly legal services scheme.
d Statement 2 is also correct regarding the bench composition consisting of a Principal Magistrate and two social workers.
With reference to the Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC), consider the following statements:
1. They are specifically designed to operate in shallow and confined coastal waters where larger warships face operational constraints.
2. They are inducted to replace the ageing Abhay-class corvettes in the Indian Navy.
3. They are equipped with waterjet propulsion systems to ensure high manoeuvrability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The vessels are designed for shallow and confined waters where larger warships may face limitations, protecting coastal approaches and ports.
Statement 2 is correct: Induction of the Mahe-class vessels is intended to replace the ageing Abhay-class corvettes that entered service between 1989 and 1991.
Statement 3 is correct: The ships are powered by diesel engines and fitted with waterjet propulsion, providing high manoeuvrability in shallow waters.
a Statement 1 is also correct as shallow water operations are the core design focus of this class.
c Statement 2 is also correct as the vessels are replacing the Abhay-class corvettes.
d Statement 3 is also correct as the craft utilizes waterjet propulsion for enhanced manoeuvrability.
With reference to the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP), consider the following statements:
1. It functions as a Geographic Information System (GIS)-based platform integrating infrastructure schemes across Central Ministries and States.
2. The institutional framework includes an Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) chaired by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry to oversee its implementation.
3. The Network Planning Group (NPG) comprises heads of planning divisions from infrastructure ministries to ensure unified and multi-modal project integration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: PM GatiShakti is an integrated digital platform that brings infrastructure and geospatial data onto a common GIS-based planning framework.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry.
Statement 3 is correct: The Network Planning Group (NPG) brings together Heads of Network Planning Divisions from infrastructure Ministries and Departments to examine proposals and ensure unified planning.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the EGoS is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the EGoS is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the EGoS is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
Consider the following statements regarding drought management and climate resilience:
1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has issued projections warning of expanding drought-like conditions across South Asia.
2. In response to recent droughts, States like Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh have imposed legally binding ceilings on the cultivation of water-intensive crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The IPCC has warned of expanding drought-like conditions in South Asia, necessitating incentives and broader resilience frameworks.
While States such as Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh have provided advisories and incentives for micro-irrigation and less water-intensive crops, they have not imposed binding limits.
a Statement 1 is correct.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because binding limits have not been imposed by the States.
c Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect because the States have issued advisories and incentives rather than binding legal limits.
With reference to the recommendations made by the Parliamentary Standing Committee regarding the reform of the National Testing Agency (NTA), consider the following statements:
1. It recommended that the NTA conduct an annual 'Equity Audit' analyzing candidate participation and success rates across various social categories, states, and school board types.
2. It proposed that examinations transition towards a Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) model to minimize paper leaks and malpractice.
3. It recommended imposing strict upper age limits and attempt caps uniformly across all entrance examinations, including the UGC-NET.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
The committee proposed that NTA conduct an annual Equity Audit covering participation rates, pass rates, and cutoff achievements disaggregated by State, gender, school board type, and social categories.
The panel recommended moving towards Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) where dynamic AI-based question selection ensures no standard question paper exists to be leaked.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the panel noted that an exception to the rule of introducing age and attempt limits may be made specifically for the UGC-NET.
a Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because the committee explicitly exempted UGC-NET from attempt and age restrictions.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as UGC-NET was identified as an exception.
d Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because UGC-NET was suggested as an exception to attempt/age limits.
Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of the India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA):
Statement-I: Joha rice exported to the United Kingdom under the India–UK CETA represents the first export of this distinctive regional variety from Assam to the UK.
Statement-II: Scottish salmon was granted reduced tariffs with import quotas, whereas Scotch whisky was granted completely tariff-free access into the Indian market.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
Statement-I is correct: The shipment of Joha rice from Assam to the UK marked the first export of this distinctive regional variety to the UK under the agreement.
Statement-II is incorrect: Scottish salmon entered India tariff-free ('first tariff-free Scottish salmon reached India'), while Scotch whisky entered under reduced tariffs (not tariff-free).
a Statement-II is incorrect regarding tariff treatments for Scottish salmon and Scotch whisky.
b Statement-II is incorrect.
d Statement-I is factually correct as stated in the text.
With reference to the constitutional framework governing democratic freedoms and judicial pronouncements on public protests in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India guarantees all citizens the fundamental right to peaceful assembly and protest.
2. The Supreme Court of India has held that a blanket ban on travel or assembly cannot be permitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution guarantees all citizens the fundamental right to peaceful assembly and protest.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court held on October 9 that a blanket ban on travel or assembly could not be allowed.
a Statement 1 is also correct as the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right to peaceful assembly to all citizens.
c Statement 2 is also correct as per judicial observations noting that blanket bans on travel and assembly cannot be allowed.
With reference to the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft 'INS Mangrol', consider the following statements:
1. It belongs to the Mahe-class of shallow water crafts.
2. It has been indigenously designed and constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).
3. It is powered by diesel engine-driven waterjet propulsion units to operate in shallow and confined waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
INS Mangrol is the third Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) commissioned into the Indian Navy.
It was indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi, not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
The ship is powered by three diesel engine-driven waterjet propulsion units, providing high manoeuvrability suited for shallow and confined waters.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, making the all-inclusive option incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the vessel was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), not MDL.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the shipbuilder is Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
With reference to the regulation of drug prices under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013, consider the following statements:
1. The ceiling price of medicines listed in Schedule I of the DPCO is calculated by taking the simple average of the price to retailer of brands having at least 1% market share and adding a retailer margin.
2. Under the DPCO framework, the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) strictly fixes the initial launch price for all non-scheduled formulations before they enter the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The ceiling price of medicines in Schedule I of the DPCO is determined by taking the simple average of the price to retailer (PTR) of brands and generic versions having at least 1% market share, and adding a 16% margin.
Statement 2 is incorrect: For non-scheduled formulations, manufacturers are free to determine the initial launch price, subject to the NPPA's regulation of subsequent price increases.
a Statement 1 is factually accurate.
c Statement 1 is correct regarding the methodology of fixing ceiling prices for Schedule I medicines.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because manufacturers themselves set the initial launch price for non-scheduled drugs.
With reference to economic stabilisation policies and macroeconomic theory, consider the following statements:
1. Stabilisation policies seek to smooth economic fluctuations to prevent sustained high unemployment or uncontrolled inflation.
2. Classical economic theory advocates that governments should intervene through public spending because aggregate demand does not automatically match production capacity.
3. The Lucas critique posits that treating relationships between macroeconomic variables as fixed is flawed because individuals alter their behaviour in response to policy changes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Stabilisation measures enacted by governments or central banks aim to reduce fluctuations in unemployment and growth, preventing extreme unemployment or uncontrolled inflation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was John Maynard Keynes who argued that aggregate demand does not automatically match production capacity and advocated government intervention; classical economics held that free markets automatically correct themselves.
Statement 3 is correct: Robert Lucas argued that macroeconomic relationships are not stable because human agents change their behaviour when policies change, weakening the intended effects of policy.
a Statement 2 is incorrect as Keynesian theory, not classical economics, introduced the rationale for interventionist fiscal policy.
b Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because classical economics maintained that free markets automatically self-correct without government intervention.
With reference to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), consider the following statements:
1. The IPCC conducts assessments to review the latest science on climate change, which inform United Nations climate agreements.
2. Work undertaken by scientists contributing to IPCC report preparation is typically unpaid.
3. In its comprehensive assessment cycles, the IPCC produces key reports examining the causes of climate change, vulnerability and adaptation, and mitigation options.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The IPCC is the leading authority on climate change whose scientific assessments have informed every major UN climate agreement for three decades.
Statement 2 is correct: Scientists must often take time off from their regular jobs to conduct unpaid IPCC work.
Statement 3 is correct: The IPCC assessment cycle publishes three key reports covering the extent and causes of climate change, vulnerability and adaptation, and options to avoid worsening warming (mitigation).
b Option a is incorrect because statement 3 is also correct regarding the three report themes.
c Option c is incorrect because statement 2 is also correct regarding the unpaid nature of scientist contributions.
d Option b is incorrect because statement 1 is also correct.
Items are summarised in our own words from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express; nothing is reproduced from the articles, and each item links to the original. Questions are generated from those releases and re-checked against the source text by a second model before publishing. If one looks wrong, use Feedback — every report is read.
Practise Prelims PYQs and the daily 21 free
Score the daily set, see your rank, and let Guru explain what you missed.