What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Supreme Court Refers RTI Act Amendment Under DPDP Act to Constitution Bench
The Supreme Court has sent petitions challenging the DPDP Act's amendment to the RTI Act to a Constitution Bench to resolve tensions between individual privacy and governmental transparency.
2. Inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting Adopts Delhi Declaration
BIMSTEC member nations convened their first-ever Home Ministers' Meeting in New Delhi, adopting the Delhi Declaration to strengthen institutional security cooperation and combat cross-border crimes.
New Delhi hosted the inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers' Meeting (HMM).
Security cooperation mechanism originated from decisions at the 4th Summit (Kathmandu, 2018) and 6th Summit (Bangkok, 2025).
Pushed for full enforcement of the 2021 Convention on Combating International Terrorism, Transnational Organised Crime, and Illicit Drug Trafficking.
Advocated strict implementation of the 2022 Convention on Mutual Legal Assistance in Criminal Matters.
Endorsed strict adherence to UN Security Council sanctions, particularly the 1267 Sanctions Committee framework.
Key terms
1267 Sanctions Committee
— A subsidiary organ of the United Nations Security Council responsible for overseeing sanctions against individuals and entities linked to ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida.
BIMSTEC
— A regional grouping comprising seven South and Southeast Asian littoral nations around the Bay of Bengal aimed at multifaceted cooperation.
Mutual Legal Assistance in Criminal Matters
— A formal arrangement where countries cooperate across borders to gather and provide evidence, intelligence, and testimony for criminal enforcement.
3. PM GatiShakti Completes Five Years of Integrated Infrastructure Planning
PM GatiShakti marked five years of operations, evolving into a comprehensive national geospatial planning framework evaluating over 400 major infrastructure projects.
4. 21st Maritime State Development Council Meeting Held in Mumbai
The Maritime State Development Council convened its first meeting as a statutory body, setting a March 2027 deadline for nationwide port digitization and rolling out credit insurance for shipbuilders.
5. BIMSTEC Adopts Delhi Declaration on Countering Regional Terrorism
BIMSTEC member nations adopted the Delhi Declaration at the inaugural Home Ministers' meeting to tackle cross-border terrorism, cyber threats, illicit finance, and human trafficking.
Inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting was hosted by India in New Delhi.
BIMSTEC comprises seven nations: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
Adopted the Delhi Declaration, endorsing enforcement of UNSC sanctions such as the 1267 Sanctions Committee framework.
India proposed a BIMSTEC national security database and regional information-sharing centre.
Key terms
Delhi Declaration
— A collective policy declaration adopted by BIMSTEC nations to combat terrorism, violent extremism, terrorist financing, and cyber offenses.
1267 Sanctions Committee
— A United Nations Security Council committee responsible for imposing targeted sanctions such as asset freezes, travel bans, and arms embargoes against individuals and entities tied to terrorism.
Golden Triangle
— A well-known illicit drug production and trafficking region located in Southeast Asia, notably overlapping parts of Myanmar, Thailand, and Laos.
6. IceCube Neutrino Observatory and the Breakthrough in Neutrino Astronomy
Physicist Francis Halzen received international acclaim for pioneering the IceCube observatory in Antarctic ice, advancing neutrino astronomy to trace extreme astrophysical phenomena.
IceCube encompasses one cubic kilometre of Antarctic ice situated 1.4 km to 2.4 km below the surface.
The detector houses 5,160 optical modules distributed across 86 vertical cable strings.
Construction wrapped up in 2011 after deploying high-pressure hot-water drills to bore sensor shafts.
Neutrino interactions produce secondary particles moving faster than light in ice, generating Cherenkov radiation.
Primary funding for the multidisciplinary mega-science initiative came from the U.S. National Science Foundation.
Key terms
Neutrinos
— Nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particles that seldom interact with normal matter and travel along straight trajectories.
Cherenkov radiation
— A bluish light emission generated when a charged particle travels through an optical medium faster than the phase velocity of light in that substance.
Cosmic rays
— High-energy charged atomic particles, predominantly protons and heavy nuclei, originating from outer space.
7. Decarbonising India's Cement Sector on the Path to Net-Zero 2070
India's push for net-zero emissions faces a severe challenge from cement production, an emission-heavy, hard-to-abate industry driven by expanding infrastructure needs.
8. IMF Warns of AI Market Correction and Cybersecurity Risks
The IMF's Global Financial Stability Report cautions that overhyped AI valuations and sophisticated cyber threats pose critical risks to global financial stability.
9. INS Mangrol Commissioned: Enhancing India's Shallow-Water Anti-Submarine Warfare
The Indian Navy has commissioned INS Mangrol, the third indigenous Mahe-class shallow-water craft designed to detect and counter underwater threats in coastal littoral zones.
10. Inflation Generalisation: Why Price Pressures Are Spreading Across CPI Basket
Headline retail inflation rose to 5.54% in September, prompting the central bank to acknowledge broader price contagion across consumer goods and services, which may trigger further policy rate hikes.
Headline CPI inflation accelerated to 5.54% in September from 4.83% in August.
RBI operates under a statutory medium-term retail inflation target of 4% within a 2% to 6% tolerance band.
The number of basket components registering above 4% inflation jumped from 65 in January to 129 out of 358 items by September.
RBI's diffusion index showed nearly 46% of the consumer basket recorded over 4% inflation in September, rising from 16% in January.
Key terms
Generalisation of inflation
— A phenomenon where rising prices expand beyond volatile components like food and fuel into a broad range of goods and services across the consumer basket.
Price momentum
— The sequential month-on-month rate of change in prices that strips out the influence of base effects from the preceding year.
Diffusion index
— A metric that tracks the proportion and weighted significance of items experiencing price rises across an entire inflation basket.
12. Indian Navy to Commission Indigenous Multi-Purpose Vessel Samarthak
The Indian Navy is inducting INS Samarthak, the lead ship of four domestically constructed Multi-Purpose Vessels, enhancing indigenous operational capabilities.
13. NLMC Secures ₹366.33 Crore in Debut E-Auction of Surplus RINL Land
The National Land Monetization Corporation concluded its maiden end-to-end digital auction for RINL's surplus plots in Visakhapatnam, unlocking value above reserve prices to support public asset monetisation goals.
NLMC operates as a special purpose vehicle under the Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance.
Day 1 saw 150 land plots owned by Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) sold for ₹366.33 crore against a reserve price of ₹312.48 crore.
The auction registered an average premium of 17.23% above reserve valuation, reaching a peak price surpassing ₹1.80 lakh per square yard.
Online auctioning was managed using RailTel's E-Nivida interface alongside Quikr India as the Transaction Consultant.
Key terms
National Land Monetization Corporation (NLMC)
— A state-owned entity tasked with managing the structured commercial monetisation of non-core land and built assets belonging to CPSEs and government bodies.
Reserve Price
— The baseline minimum financial threshold established by the seller beneath which an asset cannot be knocked down during an auction.
Asset Monetisation
— The mechanism of tapping the economic worth of idle, underutilised, or non-core public holdings through market disposal, leasing, or development rights.
14. Industrial Pollution Control and Regulatory Advancements Under Namami Gange
The Namami Gange Programme has significantly reduced industrial pollution in the Ganga basin through continuous compliance, third-party technical monitoring, and sector-specific charters.
15. Former Supreme Court Judge Demands Constitutional Safeguards for Election Commission Independence
A retired Supreme Court judge argued that appointment mechanisms and service rules for Election Commission members must be constitutionally enshrined rather than regulated solely by parliamentary statute.
16. India-China Friction Over Ladakh Nomenclature and Boundary Claims
India and China renewed diplomatic friction as Beijing rejected Ladakh's Union Territory status and opposed India's official standardisation of 28 geographical features along the border.
17. 2026 Economics Nobel Awarded for Microfoundations of Macroeconomic Stabilisation
Economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford received the 2026 Economics Nobel for demonstrating how individual household and firm behaviours underpin effective state economic interventions.
18. India Rebuffs Chinese Objection to Standardising 28 Geographic Names in Ladakh
India has firmly dismissed Beijing's protests regarding the standardisation of 28 geographic names in Ladakh, affirming the territory's inalienable integration within the Indian Union.
19. Delhi Police Denotifies Jantar Mantar as Protest Site
Following recent demonstrations, authorities denotified Delhi's historic Jantar Mantar as a designated protest zone, drawing comparisons with global hubs of civic dissent.
20. ECI Explains Electoral Roll Revision Mechanics to Bombay High Court
The Election Commission clarified before the Bombay High Court that omitting a name from draft Special Intensive Revision rolls signifies non-inclusion rather than deletion, as rolls are compiled afresh.
Difference between Special Intensive Revision (SIR) and Special Summary Revision (SSR) explained under Rule 25(2) of the Registration of Electors Rules (RER), 1960.
SIR involves a de novo preparation of electoral rolls from scratch, where prior voter lists serve solely as a reference base.
Form 8 serves strictly for shifting or correcting active entries in an existing roll, whereas Form 6 is mandated for new inclusion under draft SIR.
Booth Level Officers (BLOs) conduct comprehensive door-to-door physical enumeration to build the fresh draft roll under SIR.
Key terms
Special Intensive Revision (SIR)
— A comprehensive, ground-up revision governed by Rule 25(2) of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, wherein voter lists are constructed afresh through house-to-house enumeration.
Special Summary Revision (SSR)
— A routine administrative exercise that updates an already active electoral roll by processing additions, deletions, and corrections.
Form 8
— A prescribed statutory application utilized by electors for modifying details, correcting inaccuracies, or updating address shifts within an existing, active voter roll.
Form 6
— The official statutory form used by individuals applying for fresh registration as a voter in an electoral roll.
21. Uttarakhand Bans Gutka and Pan Masala Containing Tobacco for One Year
Uttarakhand's Food and Drug Administration has banned the manufacture, storage, sale, and distribution of tobacco- and nicotine-laced gutka and pan masala for one year to safeguard public health.
Order issued under Section 30(2)(a) of the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), 2006.
Enforces Regulation 2.3.4 of the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011.
Prohibits manufacture, storage, distribution, and sale of gutka and pan masala for a period of one year.
Follows similar bans implemented in states like Odisha and Karnataka, part of a push across 33 States and UTs.
Key terms
Section 30(2)(a) of FSSA, 2006
— A statutory provision empowering a State Food Safety Commissioner to prohibit the manufacture, storage, or sale of any food item for up to one year in the interest of public health.
Regulation 2.3.4
— A rule under the Food Safety and Standards Regulations of 2011 that prohibits tobacco and nicotine from being used as ingredients in any food article.
In the context of macroeconomic indicators and price trends, what does the term "inflation generalisation" primarily denote?
Answer: (c)
Inflation generalisation refers to the process where higher prices start to spread across the household consumption basket in a sustained manner.
It requires price rises to span different categories, moving from those susceptible to frequent price shocks (such as food and fuel) to others like consumer goods and services.
a This describes classical monetary expansion theory (Quantity Theory of Money), not the specific empirical phenomenon of inflation generalisation.
b Transient supply shocks confined to food and energy denote localized, non-generalised price pressures.
d This relates to the statistical base effect offsetting sequential price changes, not generalisation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Crop Residue Management (CRM) scheme and related measures:
1. The scheme provides support to states for distributing dedicated machinery and establishing Custom Hiring Centres.
2. Environmentally sustainable agricultural practices in residue management offer potential opportunities for farmers to earn carbon credits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The CRM scheme provides financial and operational assistance to states for delivering crop residue management machinery and supporting Custom Hiring Centres.
Statement 2 is correct: Adopting sustainable residue management arrangements enables farmers to benefit from emerging opportunities such as carbon credits.
a Statement 1 is also correct as the scheme funds machinery distribution and Custom Hiring Centres.
b Statement 2 is also correct as environmentally sustainable practices can generate carbon credits for farmers.
d Both statements 1 and 2 are factual and correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Navy's vessel 'Samarthak':
1. It is the first of four Multi-Purpose Vessels being inducted into the Indian Navy.
2. It has been built by the public sector shipyard Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Samarthak is the first of four Multi-Purpose Vessels being inducted into the Indian Navy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The vessel was constructed by M/s Larsen and Toubro Ltd (L&T), a private sector company, under the Make in India initiative, not by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
a Incorrect because Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
b Incorrect because Statement 2 is false as the builder is Larsen and Toubro Ltd.
c Incorrect because Statement 1 is factually true.
Consider the following statements regarding the maintenance of electoral rolls and constitutional watchdogs:
1. The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian and watchdog of the Constitution with the mandate to enforce constitutional will.
2. Deletion or removal of eligible persons from electoral rolls without following mandatory procedures violates the principles of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Constitutional courts, particularly the Supreme Court of India, are designated as the guardians and watchdogs of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Failure by authorities to comply with requisite procedural rules when removing voters from electoral rolls amounts to a violation of the principles of natural justice.
b Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
c Statement 1 is also correct as constitutional courts act as watchdogs of constitutional integrity.
d Statement 2 is also correct as arbitrary removal from electoral rolls without due process violates principles of natural justice.
Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework and judicial directions on gutka and pan masala in India:
1. The Supreme Court in 2016 directed statutory authorities to enforce the prohibition on food products containing tobacco and nicotine across States and Union Territories.
2. Regulation 2.3.4 of the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011, prohibits the use of tobacco and nicotine as ingredients in any food product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: In 2016, the Supreme Court directed statutory authorities to enforce the prohibition on food products containing tobacco and nicotine, and asked health secretaries of all states and Union Territories to submit compliance affidavits.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Regulation 2.3.4 of the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011, tobacco and nicotine cannot be used as ingredients in any food product.
With reference to the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS NMP), consider the following statements:
1. The geospatial digital platform of PM GatiShakti was developed indigenously by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N).
2. Its planning mechanism has expanded beyond physical infrastructure to include social-sector development and district-level planning.
3. The platform completely restricts all data access and analytics capabilities exclusively to central ministries, excluding private entities and the public.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The digital platform was developed indigenously under Atmanirbhar Bharat by BISAG-N.
Statement 2 is correct: PM GatiShakti expanded beyond conventional infrastructure planning to support social-sector development (such as schools and healthcare) and area-based planning at the district level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The PM GatiShakti Public platform, via the Unified Geospatial Interface (UGI), was launched to extend selected data-analytics capabilities to private entities and the general public.
a Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
b Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as the public platform provides selected data-analytics access to private entities and the general public.
With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 and its interaction with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
1. Originally, Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act allowed the withholding of personal information only if it had no relationship to public activity or caused an unwarranted invasion of privacy.
2. The original RTI framework contained a public interest override that permitted the disclosure of personal information if justified by a larger public interest.
3. The DPDP Act, 2023 amended Section 8(1)(j) by retaining the public interest override while expanding exemptions specifically for investigative journalists.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act originally allowed withholding personal information only if it had no relationship to any public activity or interest, or if disclosure caused an unwarranted invasion of privacy.
It included a 'public interest override' empowering Public Information Officers to disclose information if the larger public interest justified it.
The DPDP Act, 2023 removed this public interest override and created a blanket exemption for personal information without providing exemptions for journalists.
a Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because the DPDP Act removed rather than retained the public interest override.
b Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect because the DPDP Act removed the public interest override and omitted protections/exemptions for journalism.
c Statement 3 is incorrect as the amendment removes the public interest override and does not exempt investigative journalists.
With reference to the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow-Water Craft (ASW-SWC) project, consider the following statements:
1. The vessels are designed to undertake anti-submarine warfare, underwater surveillance, and mine-laying in coastal littoral waters.
2. The entire fleet of sixteen ASW-SWC vessels is being constructed solely by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
3. These vessels are being inducted to replace the ageing Abhay-class corvettes of the Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
The ASW-SWC vessels are designed primarily for anti-submarine warfare in shallow littoral waters, along with search and rescue, underwater surveillance, low-intensity maritime operations, and mine-laying.
The total order of 16 vessels is divided equally between two shipyards: eight Mahe-class vessels built by Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL) and eight Arnala-class vessels built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
The ASW-SWC fleet replaces the Indian Navy's four Soviet-origin Abhay-class corvettes previously used for coastal anti-submarine operations.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because the 16 vessels are split between CSL (8 vessels) and GRSE (8 vessels).
b Statement 2 is incorrect because GRSE is constructing eight of the 16 vessels.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because construction is shared between CSL and GRSE, not undertaken solely by CSL.
With reference to security cooperation under the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) and the Delhi Declaration adopted at the Inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting, consider the following statements:
1. The decision to establish the mechanism of the Home Ministers’ Meeting (HMM) to coordinate on counter-terrorism and transnational crime was first agreed upon at the 4th BIMSTEC Summit in Kathmandu.
2. Security cooperation under BIMSTEC is designed to replace existing bilateral and multilateral security arrangements among Member States to establish a unified regional command.
3. The BIMSTEC Convention on Combating International Terrorism, Transnational Organised Crime and Illicit Drug Trafficking has already entered into force.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The 4th BIMSTEC Summit held in Kathmandu in August 2018 decided to hold meetings at the level of Home Ministers, in addition to the BIMSTEC National Security Advisors/Chiefs.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The declaration reaffirms that security cooperation within BIMSTEC is complementary to and not a substitute for bilateral, sub-regional, regional, or multilateral cooperation involving Member States.
Statement 3 is correct: The BIMSTEC Convention on Combating International Terrorism, Transnational Organised Crime and Illicit Drug Trafficking has entered into force since March 2021.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 1 is correct.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because the framework explicitly functions as a complementary mechanism rather than a substitute.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because BIMSTEC security cooperation is complementary to, not a replacement for, bilateral and multilateral arrangements.
With reference to the 'Delhi Declaration' adopted at the first-ever BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting, consider the following statements:
1. It called for the effective implementation of the sanction measures of the UN Security Council, including the 1267 Sanctions Committee.
2. It urged the early finalisation of texts of conventions on extradition and against trafficking in persons.
3. It established a binding international tribunal under BIMSTEC to adjudicate cross-border cybercrimes and terror financing.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Delhi Declaration specifically called for the effective implementation of UNSC sanction measures, including those of the 1267 Sanctions Committee.
The declaration also called for early finalisation of the texts of conventions on extradition, transfer of sentenced persons, and convention against trafficking in persons.
No international tribunal was established; instead, cooperation mechanisms, intelligence sharing, and proposed institutional frameworks like a national security database and information-sharing centre were discussed.
b Statement 2 is correct, whereas Statement 3 is incorrect because no international tribunal was set up.
c Statement 1 is correct as the declaration explicitly highlights implementation of UN Security Council sanctions, including the 1267 Sanctions Committee.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because the declaration does not create an international judicial tribunal.
With reference to the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC), consider the following statements:
1. It was originally established in 1997 as an executive body.
2. It has been accorded statutory recognition as a consultative body under the Indian Ports Act, 2025.
3. It is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary of India to ensure inter-ministerial coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) was originally constituted in 1997.
Following the Indian Ports Act, 2025, the MSDC has been granted statutory recognition as a consultative body.
The MSDC is chaired by the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping & Waterways, not the Cabinet Secretary.
a Incorrect because Statement 3 is false (it is chaired by the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping & Waterways).
b Incorrect because Statement 3 is false.
d Incorrect because Statement 1 is also correct; MSDC was originally set up in 1997.
With reference to cosmic rays and neutrinos in astrophysics, consider the following statements:
1. Unlike cosmic rays, which are charged particles deflected by magnetic fields in space, neutrinos have no electric charge and travel in a straight line.
2. When high-energy cosmic-ray protons strike other atoms, they produce pions, which rapidly decay to produce neutrinos.
3. Neutrinos have a large mass and readily interact with ordinary matter, making them easy to trace in particle detectors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Cosmic rays are charged particles (protons or atomic nuclei) and are deflected by magnetic fields, whereas neutrinos lack electric charge and travel in straight lines through space.
Statement 2 is correct: When cosmic-ray protons strike other atoms, they produce pions, whose rapid decay yields neutrinos.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Neutrinos possess a very small mass and interact very rarely with matter, which makes detecting them extraordinarily difficult.
a Statement 3 is incorrect because neutrinos have very small mass and rarely interact with matter.
c Statement 1 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect because neutrinos have very small mass and rarely interact with matter.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because neutrinos have very small mass and rarely interact with matter.
With reference to macroeconomic stabilisation policies, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Keynesian framework, policymakers respond to slow growth and high unemployment by raising interest rates and cutting government spending.
2. In macroeconomic stabilisation, microfoundations analyse ground-level behaviour such as household consumption patterns and firm-level price-setting decisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Keynesian framework, when economic growth is slow and unemployment is high, policymakers cut interest rates and taxes, and increase government spending (even incurring budget deficits) to stimulate economic activity.
Statement 2 is correct: Microfoundations ground macroeconomic stabilisation in empirical, micro-level data, such as demand-side household consumption behaviour and supply-side firm pricing strategies.
a Statement 2 is correct, making 'Neither 1 nor 2' invalid.
c Statement 1 is incorrect, making 'Both 1 and 2' invalid.
d Statement 1 is incorrect because Keynes advocated cutting interest rates and increasing public spending during downturns, not raising interest rates and cutting spending.
With reference to the production and emissions profile of cement, consider the following statements:
1. In cement manufacturing, the chemical calcination of limestone accounts for more carbon emissions than the fossil fuel combustion used to heat the kilns.
2. A pozzolanic material functions as a direct substitute for cement by independently setting and hardening upon mixing with water.
3. Clinker, produced during the calcination process, primarily consists of calcium silicates, calcium aluminates, and calcium aluminoferrites.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Heating the kiln accounts for 35% to 40% of emissions, whereas the chemical breakdown (calcination) of limestone and clinker formation accounts for 53% to 65% of emissions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A pozzolanic material does not harden independently or serve directly as cement; it reacts chemically with calcium hydroxide in the presence of water to form cementitious compounds, strengthening concrete without itself being cement.
Statement 3 is correct: Clinker produced during calcination consists of calcium silicates, calcium aluminates, and calcium aluminoferrites, which are crushed and blended with gypsum and fly ash.
a Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is incorrect.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because pozzolanic materials cannot set independently without reacting with calcium hydroxide.
With reference to the standardisation of geographical names in the Union Territory of Ladakh, consider the following statements:
1. The identification and naming of the places and features are officially marked on the maps prepared by the Survey of India.
2. The initiative was undertaken by the Union Ministry of Defence without local administrative consultation.
3. The stated objective of formalising these standard names includes facilitating accurate recognition and enhancing public awareness.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The 28 places and features located in Ladakh were formally identified by standard names on the official map of the Survey of India (SoI).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The announcement was made by the Ministry of Home Affairs (not Defence), and the exercise was conducted specifically in consultation with the Union Territory administration of Ladakh and local stakeholders.
Statement 3 is correct: Formally identifying these features on the official map aims to facilitate accurate recognition and promote better awareness among the public at large.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the initiative was announced by the Ministry of Home Affairs and carried out in consultation with the UT administration and local stakeholders.
c Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the National Land Monetization Corporation (NLMC), consider the following statements:
1. It functions as a Government of India company under the Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance.
2. Its core mandate is to facilitate the monetisation of surplus land and building assets of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and other government agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: NLMC is a Government of India company functioning under the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE), Ministry of Finance.
Statement 2 is correct: NLMC is mandated to undertake the monetisation of surplus land and building assets belonging to CPSEs and other government agencies through market-driven processes.
b Statement 2 is also correct as NLMC is tasked with monetising surplus non-core assets of CPSEs and government bodies.
c Statement 1 is also correct regarding its administrative control under the Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance.
d Both statements 1 and 2 are factual and accurate.
With reference to electoral roll revisions under the Registration of Electors Rules (RER), 1960, consider the following statements:
1. In a Special Summary Revision (SSR), the existing active electoral roll is updated rather than prepared de novo.
2. In a Special Intensive Revision (SIR), the existing electoral roll is automatically carried forward to form the base of the final roll.
3. A person whose name does not appear in the draft roll prepared under a Special Intensive Revision must file Form 6 to seek inclusion during the claims and objections period.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Special Summary Revision (SSR) merely updates an existing active roll, unlike the SIR which prepares the roll de novo from the ground up under Rule 25(2) of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the Special Intensive Revision (SIR), the existing roll is not carried forward automatically; it serves merely as a reference base, and the draft roll is built afresh only from those who are enumerated.
Statement 3 is correct: Since the earlier roll is not carried forward in an SIR, any person not in the draft roll must file Form 6 (along with prescribed declarations/documents) as a new applicant during the claims and objections period.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 1 is valid regarding SSR.
b Statement 2 is incorrect because the roll in an SIR is prepared afresh and not carried forward automatically.
c Statement 2 is incorrect because under an SIR the existing roll is not carried forward automatically.
With reference to the industrial pollution monitoring mechanism for Grossly Polluting Industries (GPIs) under the Namami Gange Programme, consider the following statements:
1. The annual inspection framework involves third-party assessments conducted exclusively by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) without involving State Pollution Control Boards.
2. The inspection teams include experts from designated independent technical institutes along with state regulatory officials.
3. Sector-specific Charters for pollution prevention and water recycling have been formulated for key polluting sectors including Pulp & Paper, Sugar, and Textiles.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Inspections are not conducted exclusively by CPCB; they utilize third-party agencies such as technical institutes of national importance, working in joint teams with State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) officers and representatives of State Mission for Clean Ganga/District Ganga Committees.
Statement 2 is correct: The prescribed inspection team includes at least two experts from a nominated technical institute, an SPCB officer, and local mission representatives.
Statement 3 is correct: Sector-specific Charters have been formulated for five major sectors—Pulp & Paper, Sugar, Distillery, Textile, and Tannery—to drive pollution prevention and water recycling.
b Statement 1 is incorrect and misses the correctness of Statement 2 regarding technical institutes.
c Statement 1 is incorrect because CPCB does not conduct inspections exclusively.
d Statement 1 is incorrect because SPCB officers and independent technical institutes actively comprise the inspection teams.
With reference to border features along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and cartographic actions in Ladakh, consider the following statements:
1. The standardisation of geographical names in the Union Territory of Ladakh was undertaken by the Survey of India.
2. In the official standardised nomenclature, Gogra has been designated as a land area, while Hotsprings has been categorised as a waterbody.
3. Both Gogra and Hotsprings abut Patrolling Point 15 (PP-15), which was a key friction point during the military standoff.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Survey of India officially standardised the names of 28 relief features in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the standardised nomenclature announced by the Survey of India, Gogra was classified as a 'land area' and Hotsprings as a 'waterbody'.
Statement 3 is correct: Both Gogra and Hotsprings abut Patrolling Point 15 (PP-15), where disengagement was negotiated between the two militaries following the 2020 standoff.
a Option a omits Statement 3, which is factually correct as both features abut PP-15.
b Option c omits Statement 2, which accurately reflects the official classification of Gogra and Hotsprings.
d Option b omits Statement 1, which correctly identifies the Survey of India as the responsible national mapping agency.
Consider the following historical protest sites and their associated events/locations:
1. Trafalgar Square: Witnessed the clash known as 'Bloody Sunday' in 1887 during protests against unemployment.
2. Lafayette Square: Originally known as President’s Park, situated adjacent to the White House.
3. Speakers' Corner: Stood as the site of the Tyburn Gallows until the late 18th century.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer: (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Trafalgar Square witnessed Bloody Sunday on November 13, 1887, when police clashed with protesters.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lafayette Square was originally known as 'President’s Park' and is located facing the White House.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Hyde Park's area where Speakers' Corner evolved had the Tyburn Gallows, a public execution site, until 1783.
a All three statements/matches are historically accurate according to the text.
b All three statements/matches are historically accurate according to the text.
d All three statements/matches are historically accurate according to the text.
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