What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. SC: Section 17A of PC Act doesn't shield bribe demands
The Supreme Court ruled that the prior-approval safeguard in Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act applies only to acts linked to official decisions, not to a plain demand for a bribe.
Bench of Justices S V N Bhatti and N V Anjaria dismissed a Rajasthan police constable's appeal against the framing of a bribery charge.
Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 requires prior approval before investigating offences linked to a public servant's official decisions or recommendations.
The authority must decide on approval within three months, extendable by one month with reasons recorded; no approval is needed if the person is arrested on the spot while taking a bribe.
Section 19 requires prior sanction before a court takes cognisance, and is a separate safeguard from Section 17A.
A split verdict earlier this year on the validity of Section 17A (Justice Viswanathan upheld it, Justice Nagarathna struck it down) has been referred to a larger bench.
Key terms
Section 17A, PC Act
— Requires government approval before police investigate an offence linked to a public servant's official decision or recommendation.
Section 19, PC Act
— Bars courts from taking cognisance of specified corruption offences without prior sanction from the competent authority.
Cognisance
— The court's formal act of taking notice of an offence in order to begin judicial proceedings.
Undue advantage (Section 7A)
— A benefit taken as a motive or reward to induce a public servant by corrupt or illegal means.
2. 1.5°C breach 'unavoidable', says UNEP Emissions Gap Report
UNEP's annual Emissions Gap Report says exceeding the Paris 1.5°C limit can no longer be avoided, so the focus shifts to limiting the size and duration of overshoot and returning to 1.5°C by century's end.
Emissions Gap Report is published yearly by UNEP ahead of the year-end UN climate conference (COP).
It calls a breach of the 1.5°C Paris Agreement (2015) target 'unavoidable' after decades of inadequate climate action.
A UNEP report a month earlier had said even best-case scenarios lead to at least 1.8°C warming.
Global greenhouse gas emissions in 2025 stayed near 2024 levels, about 58.4 billion tonnes CO2 equivalent.
The US, the second largest emitter, saw the biggest national rise in 2025 (over 133 million tonnes CO2e, preliminary data); India is the third largest emitter.
Key terms
Emissions Gap Report
— UNEP's yearly assessment of the gap between countries' emission pledges and the cuts needed to meet Paris temperature goals.
Overshoot
— Temporarily exceeding a temperature limit such as 1.5°C before bringing warming back below it.
Paris Agreement 2015
— Global treaty aiming to hold warming well below 2°C and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
CO2 equivalent
— A common unit expressing the warming effect of different greenhouse gases in terms of carbon dioxide.
Modi and Polish PM Donald Tusk, meeting in New Delhi, set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030 and agreed to deepen defence, technology and space cooperation under their 2024 Strategic Partnership.
Polish PM Donald Tusk made an official visit to India on 21-23 October 2026, accompanied by about 100 CEOs and industry representatives.
Ties were raised to a Strategic Partnership during Modi's August 2024 Poland visit, which also adopted the India-Poland Action Plan 2024-2028; its mid-term review was done in Warsaw in September 2026.
Target set: double bilateral trade by 2030.
Both sides proposed a Defence Industry Dialogue and hope to sign soon an Agreement on Mutual Protection and Exchange of Classified Information.
Leaders urged early signing, ratification and implementation of the EU-India FTA, and agreed on joint research on AI, semiconductors and quantum technologies.
Key terms
Strategic Partnership
— A high-level bilateral framework for long-term cooperation across political, defence, economic and technology areas.
India-Poland Action Plan 2024-2028
— A roadmap of cooperation adopted in 2024 and reviewed at mid-term in September 2026.
EU-India Free Trade Agreement
— A trade pact whose conclusion was welcomed and whose early signing and ratification the leaders urged.
Defence Industry Dialogue
— A proposed forum to build a framework for co-development, co-production and business-to-business defence cooperation.
Agreement on Mutual Protection and Exchange of Classified Information
— A pact to safeguard sensitive information shared between the two governments, enabling deeper defence cooperation.
4. CAQM Reviews Stubble Burning and Air Pollution Control in Punjab, Haryana
CAQM held separate review meetings with Punjab and Haryana in Chandigarh, pressing for time-bound ground action on paddy stubble burning and other pollution sources before winter.
CAQM Chairperson Rajesh Verma led separate reviews with Punjab and Haryana in Chandigarh.
Punjab's review centred on its State Action Plan under CAQM Direction No. 99 (15.05.2026).
Direction No. 92 mandates paddy straw-based biomass pellets/briquettes in brick kilns; biomass co-firing in thermal power plants was also reviewed.
Haryana's review was broader: vehicular pollution, road and C&D dust, and industrial pollution, besides stubble burning.
Vehicular measures include ANPR at fuel/CNG stations to check valid PUCCs, action on end-of-life vehicles, and phasing out diesel auto rickshaws in NCR districts.
Key terms
CAQM
— Statutory commission for air quality management in the NCR and adjoining areas, coordinating and directing states on pollution control.
In-situ vs ex-situ crop residue management
— In-situ treats residue in the field (e.g. incorporating into soil); ex-situ removes it for use elsewhere such as fuel or pellets.
Biomass co-firing
— Burning biomass pellets along with coal in thermal power plants to cut stubble burning and coal use.
PUCC
— Pollution Under Control Certificate, proof a vehicle's emissions meet prescribed norms.
ANPR
— Automatic Number Plate Recognition, a camera system that reads vehicle number plates for enforcement.
5. WMO: Current El Nino could be unprecedented in strength
WMO's seasonal outlook warns the ongoing El Nino may push tropical Pacific sea surface temperatures to record anomalies, with global impacts on heat, rainfall and drought lasting beyond its peak at the end of 2026.
WMO's new seasonal outlook (21 Oct 2026) says the El Nino could be unprecedented in strength.
Tropical Pacific sea surface temperatures may reach up to 3.8°C above average during Nov 2026 to Jan 2027.
WMO treats a sea surface temperature anomaly of 0.5°C in the region as the marker of El Nino.
WMO Secretary-General Celeste Saulo said the readings are off the charts used for four decades; peak expected towards end-2026.
El Nino is one of three ENSO phases, the others being La Nina (cooling) and neutral.
Key terms
El Nino
— Warm phase of ENSO with above-average sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific.
La Nina
— Opposite, cooler phase of ENSO that usually has a cooling effect on global climate.
ENSO (El Nino Southern Oscillation)
— Climate phenomenon of changing Pacific sea temperatures along with fluctuations in the overlying atmosphere, with El Nino, La Nina and neutral phases.
Sea surface temperature anomaly
— Deviation of ocean surface temperature from its long-term average; 0.5°C is WMO's threshold for declaring El Nino.
6. Police Need Magistrate's Leave for Further Investigation After Closure Report
In Paliniswamy Veeraraja v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court reiterated that police must obtain the Magistrate's permission before reopening investigation after a closure report, and quashed the FIR and charge-sheet for want of it.
Case: Paliniswamy Veeraraja & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Anr.; the Supreme Court quashed the FIR and subsequent charge-sheet.
Police had filed closure reports twice, calling the dispute civil in nature; a third application for further investigation had no recorded Magistrate order granting permission.
Section 173(8) CrPC allows further investigation and a supplementary report after the main report is forwarded; its text is silent on court permission.
Section 193(9) of the BNSS is pari materia to Section 173(8) CrPC, with a new proviso requiring court permission once trial has begun.
The Court relied on State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal (1992): the civil nature of the dispute was an added ground for quashing.
Key terms
Closure/final report
— Report under Section 173(2) CrPC sent to the Magistrate when police complete their investigation.
Further investigation (Section 173(8) CrPC)
— Fresh investigation after the report has been sent, with a supplementary report if new evidence is found.
Pari materia
— Provisions dealing with the same subject matter, read alike.
Contemporanea expositio
— Interpretive doctrine giving weight to long-followed practice in construing a statute.
Quashing of FIR
— Court setting aside an FIR and proceedings, as guided by Bhajan Lal (1992).
7. RBI MPC divided on whether inflation is becoming generalised
The MPC minutes of the October 5-7 meeting show a 4-2 split on whether inflation is spreading, even as the repo rate was raised unanimously by 25 bps to 5.5%, adding to market uncertainty about future rate moves.
MPC (six members) unanimously raised the repo rate by 25 bps to 5.5% at its October 5-7 meeting; four members also backed changing the stance from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening'.
Four members (Saugata Bhattacharya, Ram Singh, Governor Sanjay Malhotra, ED Indranil Bhattacharyya) saw signs of inflation generalising; Nagesh Kumar and Poonam Gupta did not.
CPI inflation rose to 5.54% in September from 4.83% in August, staying above the 4% medium-term target since June, and is expected to cross 6% in October.
The RBI rejected all bids at a Treasury bill auction, the first time this fiscal; a 3-month T-bill now trades at 5.84% against 5.34% on July 22.
Key terms
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
— Six-member body, with RBI and external members, that decides the repo rate to meet the inflation target.
Repo rate
— The rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to banks; the main policy tool.
Calibrated tightening
— A policy stance signalling that rates may be raised gradually depending on incoming data.
Generalisation of inflation
— Price rises spreading across many categories of the consumption basket in a sustained manner.
Treasury bills
— Short-term government securities of up to 12 months' maturity, sold by auction.
8. Isro to launch NavIC satellite NVS-03 on GSLV Mk II, Oct 30
After a cautious phase following PSLV failures, Isro has cleared NVS-03 for launch on 30 October from Sriharikota to shore up NavIC, whose working satellites have fallen below the strength needed for reliable service.
NVS-03 is set to fly on GSLV Mk II from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, on 30 October; Isro Chairman is Dr V Narayanan.
GSLV Mk II, which uses an indigenous cryogenic engine, has had six successive successful flights since 2021; its latest was EOS-05 on 4 September 2026, India's first geosynchronous earth observation satellite.
Isro has launched 11 NavIC satellites since July 2013 at a cost of about Rs 2,250 crore; six have failed, mainly due to faulty imported atomic clocks.
IRNSS-1F's atomic clock stopped working on 13 March 2026; only IRNSS-1B, 1L and 1J (NVS-01) now give positioning, navigation and timing (PNT) services.
PSLV failed on 18 May 2025 and 12 January 2026 (the article also refers to 4 January); the resulting caution has pushed Gaganyaan's first uncrewed test flight to late 2026 or early 2027.
Key terms
NavIC
— India's indigenous regional satellite navigation system run by Isro, providing PNT services.
PNT services
— Positioning, navigation and timing services delivered by a navigation satellite constellation.
Atomic clock
— Ultra-precise on-board clock whose accuracy underpins calculation of signal delays and hence location.
Geosynchronous orbit
— Orbit with a period matching Earth's rotation; EOS-05 sits in one rather than an ideal geostationary slot.
GSLV Mk II
— Isro launch vehicle with an indigenous cryogenic upper stage, used for heavier satellites.
9. Peace for progress: India at the SCO on terrorism and cooperation
At the SCO heads of government meeting in Tajikistan, Rajnath Singh urged members to dismantle the terror ecosystem; the editorial argues that connectivity and economic goals depend on a stable security environment.
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh addressed the SCO Council of Heads of Government meeting in Tajikistan, with Pakistan's Deputy PM Ishaq Dar present.
He said regional cooperation is hollow if states treat terrorism selectively, and called for dismantling the whole terror ecosystem.
In 2025 India declined to endorse the joint statement at the SCO Defence Ministers' meet in Qingdao, China, because it omitted the Pahalgam attack but mentioned Balochistan.
Connectivity projects cited: International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) and Chabahar Port, which link Central Asia to wider markets.
Suggested SCO steps: intelligence-sharing, action on terror financing, disrupting recruitment networks and denying safe havens.
Key terms
SCO
— Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, a regional grouping dealing with security, economic and connectivity cooperation among its members.
Cross-border terrorism
— Terror attacks planned, supported or launched from across an international border, here attributed to Pakistan.
International North-South Transport Corridor
— A multi-modal trade route linking India with Central Asia and beyond, mentioned as a key connectivity project.
Chabahar Port
— An Iranian port developed to give India and Central Asia access to wider markets.
Operation Sindoor
— India's 2025 operation after which it has pressed the terrorism issue at multilateral forums.
10. Environment Minister at CII: Coordinated push for India's circular economy
At a CII conference, Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav said India has built a rules-based framework for nine waste streams, with EPR registrations rising, and that the focus now shifts to implementation involving industry and urban…
Sector-specific rules now cover nine waste streams: plastic, battery, e-waste, waste tyres, used oil, end-of-life vehicles, construction and demolition waste, non-ferrous scrap metal and solid waste.
As of 12 Oct 2026, over 86,043 producers and 4,880 recyclers are registered under EPR frameworks.
Around 499.60 lakh tonnes of waste has been processed across regulated streams; over 435 lakh tonnes is covered by EPR certificates.
The Minister cited the LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative and urged recovery of critical minerals from e-waste and batteries.
Key terms
Circular economy
— An economic model that keeps resources in use through prevention, reuse, remanufacturing, recycling and recovery rather than a take-make-dispose pattern.
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
— A framework making producers, importers and brand owners responsible for managing their products when they reach end of life.
EPR certificate
— A transferable certificate generated by recycling or processing waste, used to meet producers' obligations and giving recyclers income.
Four-stream segregation
— Separating solid waste at source into wet, dry, sanitary and special-care waste.
Legacy waste
— Accumulated old waste at dumpsites, which the SWM Rules aim to control and clear.
11. Amit Shah Launches ₹8,941 Crore Yamuna Rejuvenation Projects in Delhi
Union Home Minister inaugurated 10 and began 33 sewage and drainage projects worth ₹8,941 crore for cleaning the Yamuna in Delhi, with a target of a clean river by 2029.
Total outlay ₹8,941 crore: 10 projects inaugurated and 33 initiated in Delhi
Work covers upgrading existing sewage treatment plants (STPs), new STPs, a decentralised STP pumping station, sewer rehabilitation, tapping and drainage
Target: Yamuna to be cleaned before May 2029, through time-bound roadmaps agreed by Centre, Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
A three-year action plan aims to give every Delhi household a sewerage connection
Garbage-mound clearance claimed: 2.17 crore tonnes removed and 100 acres freed; Okhla and Bhalswa mounds down 30-40 m, Ghazipur 10-15 m
Key terms
Sewage Treatment Plant (STP)
— A facility that treats household sewage to remove pollutants before the water is released or reused.
Decentralised STP
— A smaller treatment unit set up near the source of sewage rather than one large central plant.
Sewer rehabilitation
— Repairing or renewing old sewer lines to stop leakage and blockage.
Garbage mountains (landfills)
— Large heaps of accumulated municipal solid waste, such as those at Okhla, Bhalswa and Ghazipur in Delhi.
12. DDWS Conference on Converging JJM 2.0 with 16th Finance Commission Grants
The Jal Shakti Ministry's drinking water department urged States to use 16th Finance Commission rural local body grants mainly for operation and maintenance of rural water systems, with Gram Panchayats leading, as JJM 2.0 shifts from…
Fourth virtual conference with States/UTs, a follow-up to the Departmental Summit on Water 2026 (1-2 September 2026).
16th Finance Commission rural local body allocation exceeds ₹4.35 lakh crore, with about ₹1.74 lakh crore earmarked for water management and sanitation.
Tied grants are to go mainly to O&M, source sustainability, water quality management and capacity building, not new infrastructure where existing assets need upkeep.
Three pillars of sustainable financing: use of Finance Commission grants, convergence with other schemes, and stronger user-charge collection.
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) funds to be used to train Panchayat representatives; O&M manuals to be issued in local languages.
Key terms
Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) 2.0
— The extended phase of the mission to supply tap water to rural households, now focused on functionality, sustainability and service quality.
Tied grants
— Finance Commission grants to local bodies that must be spent on specified purposes such as water and sanitation.
Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
— Recurring upkeep of water supply assets, including repairs, power, chlorination and staffing.
Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP)
— The annual local plan through which Gram Panchayats plan and use resources for local needs.
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)
— A programme used to build the capacity and train Panchayat representatives and functionaries.
13. Law Commission Conference on Cooperative Federalism and Law Reforms
The 23rd Law Commission convened a national conference in New Delhi to build coordination between national and State law-reform bodies, stressing collaboration without uniformity.
The 23rd Law Commission of India held the National Conference on 'Co-operative Federalism and Law Reforms: National and State Perspectives' at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated it and called for stronger coordination among the Law Commission, State Law Commissions and State Law Departments.
Chairperson Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari proposed a 'citizen friction test', a common law-reform docket, joint studies and post-enactment review.
Union MoS (Independent Charge) for Law and Justice Arjun Ram Meghwal listed four priorities: institutional dialogue, evidence-based and participatory reform, technology with human oversight, and citizen-centric legal design.
Two technical sessions were held: 'Reforms in Law: Needs and Methods' and 'Allocated Powers, Shared Goals: Drafting the Future with Collaborative Jurisprudence'.
Key terms
Cooperative federalism
— A model in which the Union and States work jointly on shared goals, while States retain autonomy over their own concerns.
Seventh Schedule
— The constitutional schedule listing subjects in the Union, State and Concurrent Lists, which divides legislative powers.
Citizen friction test
— A proposed yardstick to check whether a law lowers the time, cost and procedural burden on citizens.
Jan Vishwas reforms
— Reforms described in the text as building a trust-based framework that empowers citizens.
Article 1
— The constitutional provision that describes India as a Union of States.
14. NSDC debuts on NSE Social Stock Exchange with ZCZP issue
NSDC made its first Zero Coupon Zero Principal issuance on NSE's Social Stock Exchange, with NABARD putting in ₹4 crore to train 600 OBC youth from Madhya Pradesh for jobs in Japan and Germany, using an outcome-linked financing model.
15. Why Managing Finances Is a Tightrope for States
Kerala and Tamil Nadu, both socially advanced, have flagged alarming debt in recent White Papers; the article argues State debt reflects a gap between development goals and limited fiscal capacity, not just mismanagement.
16. UN Loss and Damage Fund earmarks $20 million for Nepal floods
The UNFCCC's Fund for responding to Loss and Damage made its first country-specific allocation, about $21.6 million for Nepal's August glacial-flood disaster, a sliver of Nepal's self-assessed losses, which highlights the gap between…
The Fund's Board, at an extraordinary meeting on 22 October 2026, set aside about $21.6 million for Nepal, of which $1.6 million is oversight fees. This is the Fund's first allocation to a specific country.
The trigger was an ice-and-rock avalanche on 26 August that caused a debris flow and flooding along the Bhotekoshi-Trishuli-Narayani river system.
The Fund was set up at COP27 (2022) and its operational mechanism was agreed at COP28 (2023).
Pledges stand at over $820 million, of which $342 million is for the start-up phase. Requests total about $2.8 billion, from 119 countries (176 requests).
Nepal puts recovery needs at a minimum of $4.71 billion (about $5 billion in losses). The allocation is under 0.5% of that. COP31 is due in Turkey the following month.
Key terms
Loss and Damage Fund (FRLD)
— A UN climate fund to help vulnerable developing countries respond to economic and non-economic losses from climate change.
Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF)
— A sudden flood released when a glacial lake breaches or overflows, often causing debris flows downstream.
Oversight fees
— Charges the Fund pays to implementing organisations to cover the cost of overseeing how money is used.
Least developed country
— A UN category of the poorest, most structurally vulnerable nations, such as Nepal, which contribute little to global emissions.
17. Guntur team reports phage therapy success against drug-resistant infection
A Guntur medical team says bacteriophage therapy fully cured a patient's multidrug-resistant knee wound infection, highlighting phages as a possible answer to antibiotic resistance.
Led by Dr. Kalyan Chakravarthy Koganti, sepsis and infectious diseases specialist at SHRI Hospital, Guntur (Andhra Pradesh).
Findings published in IJID Regions (International Journal of Infectious Diseases); research funded by a biomedical grant from the Sree Padmavathi Venkateswara Foundation.
Patient had a persistent discharging knee wound caused by multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa; he recovered fully and has stayed infection-free and walking for nine months.
Phages were developed by a phage biologist at SRM University-A.P.; a molecular biologist from Ipseity Diagnostics and Research gave technical support.
News linked to World Bacteriophage Day (22 October) and Bacteriophage Week (22-28 October).
Key terms
Bacteriophage
— A virus that infects and destroys specific bacteria.
Phage therapy
— Use of bacteriophages to treat bacterial infections, especially drug-resistant ones.
Multidrug-resistant (MDR) infection
— Infection by bacteria that no longer respond to several classes of antibiotics.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
— A bacterium that commonly causes hard-to-treat wound and hospital-acquired infections.
18. Face-offs with China continue at multiple Arunachal border sites: ITBP chief
ITBP Director General Shatrujeet Kapur confirmed that India-China face-offs persist at several Arunachal Pradesh locations despite high-level talks, and stressed drones and a specialised high-altitude force as the way ahead.
ITBP DG Shatrujeet Kapur said face-offs are continuing at several Arunachal locations; this is the first official confirmation of the scale of tensions since July.
Government sources say a stand-off at Asaphila near Taksing (Upper Subansiri) began in late July, with PLA tents pitched within 6-7 km of India's perception of the LAC.
Talks held since July: 36th WMCC (Aug 6), 25th Special Representatives round in Beijing (Aug 26, NSA Ajit Doval), and the first Corps Commander-level meeting in the Eastern Sector at Vacha-Damai (Sept 6).
ITBP is raising Shaurya commandos, a high-altitude mountain fighting force distinct from the Army, to reach one full battalion soon.
Long-range patrols in Arunachal are sent only between June and October because of weather.
Key terms
Line of Actual Control (LAC)
— The de facto boundary between India and China, not mutually agreed or demarcated, leading to differing perceptions.
WMCC
— Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs, a diplomatic dialogue channel.
Special Representatives (SR) talks
— High-level boundary negotiations led by India's NSA and China's counterpart.
ITBP
— Indo-Tibetan Border Police, a central armed police force guarding the China border and trained for high-altitude operations.
Shaurya commandos
— Newly raised ITBP high-altitude commando unit being expanded to a full battalion.
19. Khajuraho's Chandela temples and the headless Vishnu of Javari
ASI plans to refit the recovered head on the headless Vishnu idol at Khajuraho's Javari temple by November, drawing attention to the Chandela-era temple complex and how it was rediscovered.
20. Rubio pushes Venezuelan oil; why India can't buy much more
The US wants India, especially Reliance, to import more Venezuelan heavy crude now under US oversight, but refinery configuration, freight costs and rival supplies limit how much more India can absorb.
US Secretary of State Marco Rubio visited Reliance's Jamnagar complex in Gujarat, the world's largest single-location refining complex, with about 1.4 million bpd capacity.
Venezuela's flagship Merey grade is extremely heavy and highly sulphurous, so only complex refineries like Jamnagar can process large volumes.
India's Venezuelan imports rose from near zero to a peak of 350,000 bpd in August, then eased to about 200,000 bpd in September.
Of India's Venezuelan crude imports in April–August 2026 (about $3,585.6 million), Reliance accounted for 74.3%, Indian Oil's Paradip 11.7%, HPCL/Mundra terminals 11.3%, Nayara's Vadinar 2.7%.
Merey's discount of about $25/bbl to Brent is offset by freight of about $35/bbl to India's west coast, turning it into a landed premium.
Key terms
Merey
— Venezuela's flagship crude grade, extremely heavy and high in sulphur.
Heavy crude
— Highly viscous oil needing complex refineries to process.
VLCC
— Very large crude carrier, a big tanker that makes long-haul oil freight economical.
Brent
— International benchmark crude against which other grades are priced.
Landed premium
— When freight and delivery costs outweigh a crude's discount, making it dearer than the benchmark on arrival.
The Rs 37,000 crore, 125-km Rishikesh-Karnaprayag line in Uttarakhand is targeted for completion by December 2029, with most tunnelling done. It will improve rail access to the Garhwal Himalayas and the Char Dham region.
Length 125 km, cost about Rs 37,000 crore, target completion December 2029; implemented by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) under the Ministry of Railways
Sanctioned in Union Budget 2010-11; 12 stations linking Rishikesh to Karnaprayag via Dehradun, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal, Rudraprayag and Chamoli districts
About 83% of the route runs through tunnels: 28 tunnels (16 main plus 12 escape) and 57 major and minor bridges
Main tunnels total about 104 km and escape tunnels about 98 km; 101 km and 95 km respectively are done, with breakthroughs in 13 of 16 main and 10 of 12 escape tunnels
Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) technology is being used; land acquisition is complete and the 5-km Virbhadra–Yog Nagari Rishikesh section was finished in 2020
Key terms
Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
— Railway PSU under the Ministry of Railways that executes the project.
Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM)
— Machine that excavates tunnels mechanically, used here for the mountain stretches.
Escape tunnel
— Parallel tunnel built beside the main one for safety evacuation and emergency access.
Char Dham
— Pilgrimage circuit in Uttarakhand whose access the line is meant to improve.
With reference to the Emissions Gap Report, consider the following statements:
1. It is published every year by the UN Environment Programme ahead of the annual year-ending climate conference.
2. It states that exceeding the 1.5°C target set in the 2015 Paris Agreement is now unavoidable.
3. It is published by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Emissions Gap Report is brought out annually by UNEP ahead of the year-ending climate conference.
It describes the breach of the 1.5°C Paris target as 'unavoidable' because of decades of insufficient climate action.
Statement 3 is wrong: the IPCC is a separate body, and the report is UNEP's.
b Statement 3 wrongly names the IPCC as the publisher.
c Statement 3 is wrong because the publisher is UNEP, not the IPCC; statement 1 is also correct and is left out.
d Omits statement 2, which is correct: the report calls the 1.5°C breach unavoidable.
With reference to the Yamuna rejuvenation projects launched in Delhi under the Union Home Minister, consider the following statements:
1. Projects worth ₹8,941 crore were inaugurated or had their foundation stones laid at the event.
2. The projects include upgradation of existing sewage treatment plants and installation of new ones.
3. The Union Government has set a target of making the Yamuna clean by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The event covered projects worth ₹8,941 crore, with 10 inaugurated and 33 initiated.
Foundation stones were laid for upgrading existing STPs and installing new STPs, and a decentralised STP pumping station was set up.
The stated target is to clean the Yamuna by 2029 (before May 2029), not 2035, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 2 is also correct, as the projects include STP upgradation and new STPs.
c Statement 3 is wrong because the target year is 2029, not 2035.
d Statement 3 is wrong because the target year is 2029, not 2035.
Consider the following statements regarding the framework discussed for sustainable rural water governance:
Statement-I: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has said that, with the extension of JJM 2.0, the focus shifts from creating infrastructure to ensuring functionality, sustainability and quality service delivery.
Statement-II: The 16th Finance Commission grants for Rural Local Bodies are meant exclusively for building new water supply assets in villages.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
Statement-I is correct: the Secretary said the focus shifts from infrastructure creation to functionality and sustainability.
Statement-II is incorrect: the grants are to be used primarily for O&M, source sustainability, water quality management and capacity, not new infrastructure where existing assets need maintenance.
a Statement-II is false, so it cannot explain Statement-I.
b Statement-II is false, so both cannot be correct.
d Statement-I is true, while Statement-II is false.
Statement-I: The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India proposed a "citizen friction test" for law reform.
Statement-II: The test is meant to assess whether a proposed law reduces the time, cost and procedural burden on citizens.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari, Chairperson of the Law Commission, proposed the "citizen friction test".
Its purpose is to assess whether a proposed law reduces the time, cost and procedural burden on citizens.
Statement-II therefore describes what the test is, and so explains Statement-I.
b Statement-II is correct as per the Chairperson's proposal.
c Statement-I is correct; the Chairperson proposed the test.
d Statement-II directly states the purpose of the test, so it explains Statement-I.
With reference to the Rishikesh-Karnaprayag railway line in Uttarakhand, consider the following statements:
1. It is being implemented by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited under the Ministry of Railways.
2. It will pass through Dehradun, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal, Rudraprayag and Chamoli districts.
3. Around 83 per cent of its route passes through tunnels owing to the Himalayan terrain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
RVNL, a Ministry of Railways entity, is implementing the project.
The alignment passes through Dehradun, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal, Rudraprayag and Chamoli.
About 83 per cent of the route is in tunnels because of the difficult Himalayan terrain, so all three statements are correct.
b Statement 2 is also correct; the districts listed are accurate.
c Statement 1 is also correct; RVNL implements the project.
d Statement 3 is also correct; the tunnel share is about 83 per cent.
With reference to the India-Poland Strategic Partnership, consider the following statements:
1. The bilateral relationship was elevated to a Strategic Partnership during Prime Minister Modi's visit to Poland in August 2024, when the India-Poland Action Plan for 2024-2028 was adopted.
2. The Leaders set the target of tripling bilateral trade by 2030.
3. The Leaders proposed a Defence Industry Dialogue to develop a framework for defence industrial cooperation, including co-development and co-production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Strategic Partnership and the Action Plan 2024-2028 date from Modi's August 2024 visit to Poland, so statement 1 is correct.
A Defence Industry Dialogue was proposed to build a framework for defence industrial cooperation, including co-development and co-production, so statement 3 is correct.
The target is doubling, not tripling, bilateral trade by 2030, so statement 2 is wrong.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the target is doubling, not tripling, of trade.
c Statement 2 is altered (the target is doubling), so not all three are correct.
d Statement 2 is wrong, and statement 1 is correct and so cannot be left out.
With reference to further investigation after a police report has been sent to the Magistrate, consider the following statements:
1. Section 173(8) of the CrPC expressly requires the police to obtain the Magistrate's leave before filing a supplementary report.
2. In Vinay Tyagi v. Irshad Ali (2013), the Supreme Court read the requirement of prior leave of the court into Section 173(8) as a necessary implication.
3. Section 193(9) of the BNSS is pari materia to Section 173(8) of the CrPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Section 173(8) CrPC is silent on obtaining permission for a supplementary report, so statement 1 is wrong.
Vinay Tyagi (2013) held that prior leave is a necessary implication of Section 173(8), relying on the doctrine of contemporanea expositio.
Section 193(9) of the BNSS deals with the same subject matter as Section 173(8), so statement 3 is correct.
b Includes statement 1, but Section 173(8) is silent on permission.
c Statement 1 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
d Includes statement 1 and omits the correct statement 2.
With reference to the procedural safeguards under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, consider the following statements:
1. Section 17A requires prior approval of the appropriate government before a police officer investigates an offence linked to a decision made by a public servant while discharging official duties.
2. Section 19 requires prior sanction from the competent authority before a court takes cognisance of specified offences under the Act.
3. Section 17A approval is required even when a public servant is arrested on the spot for accepting a bribe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Section 17A requires prior approval before investigation of offences linked to official decisions; Section 19 requires sanction before a court takes cognisance.
The two safeguards operate at different stages of criminal proceedings.
Statement 3 is wrong: approval is not needed when a person is arrested on the spot for accepting or attempting to accept a bribe.
a Statement 3 is incorrect because on-the-spot arrest is a carve-out from Section 17A approval.
b Omits Statement 2, which is correct: Section 19 sanction precedes cognisance by the court.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because on-the-spot arrest is exempt from the approval requirement.
With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM), consider the following statements:
1. It reviewed the State Action Plan on paddy stubble burning in Punjab under CAQM Direction No. 99.
2. CAQM Direction No. 92 mandates the use of paddy straw-based biomass pellets/briquettes in thermal power plants.
3. The Commission treats paddy straw management as an opportunity to build a circular-economy industrial ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Direction No. 99 relates to the State Action Plan for paddy stubble burning, and the Commission emphasised paddy straw as a resource for a circular economy.
Direction No. 92 mandates paddy straw-based pellets/briquettes in brick kilns, not in thermal power plants. Thermal plants are covered by a separate biomass co-firing target.
Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.
a Omits statement 3, which is correct: the Commission described straw management as a circular-economy opportunity.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
c Statement 2 is wrong because Direction No. 92 concerns brick kilns, not thermal power plants.
With reference to the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements:
1. El Nino is one of the three phases of ENSO, the other two being La Nina and a neutral phase.
2. El Nino typically has a warming effect on the planet, whereas La Nina usually results in a cooling effect.
3. The World Meteorological Organization declares an El Nino when the sea surface temperature anomaly in the tropical Pacific reaches 3.8 degrees Celsius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
ENSO has three phases: El Nino, La Nina and a neutral phase, so statement 1 is correct.
El Nino warms the planet while La Nina usually cools it, so statement 2 is correct.
The WMO declares an El Nino at an anomaly of 0.5 degrees Celsius; 3.8 degrees Celsius is the projected peak anomaly for November 2026 to January 2027, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 confuses the forecast peak anomaly with the declaration threshold.
b Statement 3 is wrong because the declaration threshold is 0.5 degrees Celsius, not 3.8.
With reference to the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) framework in India's waste management regime, consider the following statements:
1. It requires producers, importers and brand owners to ensure environmentally sound management of their products at the end of life.
2. Transfer of EPR certificates provides financial incentives to recyclers, encouraging capacity expansion and technological advancement.
3. It is applicable only to plastic waste and e-waste among the regulated waste streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
EPR makes producers, importers and brand owners responsible for end-of-life management of their products.
Transfer of EPR certificates gives recyclers financial incentives, encouraging capacity expansion, technology and jobs.
Statement 3 is wrong: EPR frameworks are registered under several regulated waste streams (e.g., batteries, tyres, used oil, end-of-life vehicles), not just plastic and e-waste.
a Statement 3 wrongly restricts EPR to two waste streams.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, and it excludes the correct statements 1 and 2.
With reference to bacteriophage therapy, consider the following statements:
1. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect and kill specific bacteria, and phage therapy is explored for infections that do not respond to conventional antibiotics.
2. In the Guntur case, the infection treated was a persistently discharging knee wound caused by multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
3. World Bacteriophage Day is marked on 22 October, with Bacteriophage Week observed from 22 to 28 October.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Bacteriophages are viruses that target bacteria, and phage therapy is used for patients not responding to antibiotics.
The Guntur patient had a discharging left-knee wound caused by multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa and recovered completely after phage therapy.
World Bacteriophage Day was marked on 22 October, with Bacteriophage Week from 22 to 28 October. All three statements are correct.
a Statements 2 and 3 are also correct, so this is incomplete.
c Statement 3 is also correct, so this is incomplete.
d Statement 1 is also correct, so this is incomplete.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India and the 'generalisation' of inflation, consider the following statements:
1. The MPC has six members, including external members and RBI representatives, and it voted unanimously to raise the repo rate in its October meeting.
2. Generalisation of inflation refers to higher prices spreading in a sustained manner from items most susceptible to price rises, such as food and fuel, to other categories like consumer goods and services.
3. The RBI's medium-term CPI inflation target is 6%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The six-member MPC voted unanimously to raise the repo rate by 25 bps to 5.5%, so statement 1 is correct.
Generalisation means price rises spreading in a sustained manner across categories, from food and fuel to goods and services, so statement 2 is correct.
The medium-term target is 4%, not 6%; 6% is the level CPI inflation is expected to cross, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 wrongly gives 6% as the target instead of 4%.
c Statement 2 also correctly describes generalisation of inflation, so '1 only' is incomplete.
d Statement 3 is wrong, as the medium-term target is 4%, and statement 1 is correct but excluded.
With reference to the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), consider the following statements:
1. It was raised as a mountain guerrilla force and was given border guarding duty along the China border in 2004.
2. Its Shaurya commandos are being built as a specialised high-altitude mountain fighting force, distinct from the Army.
3. Its director general has said that traditional weapons alone will not suffice against China and that drone and counter-drone technology must be developed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
ITBP was raised as a mountain guerrilla force and was given China border guarding duty in 2004.
A specialised high-altitude mountain fighting force of Shaurya commandos, distinct from the Army, is being set up.
The director general stressed drone and counter-drone technology because traditional methods may not work against China.
All three statements are correct.
a Statement 1 is also correct, so this option leaves it out.
b Statements 2 and 3 are also correct, so 1 alone is incomplete.
d Statement 3 is also correct, so this option leaves it out.
With reference to NavIC, India's indigenous navigation satellite system, consider the following statements:
1. Isro began work on NavIC after the Kargil war, when Indian forces could not rely on the US-owned GPS for locational aid.
2. The failures among its first-generation satellites have been attributed primarily to defective imported atomic clocks.
3. Fully functional satellites needed for the system to give a position-navigation solution number at least seven.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Work on NavIC began in 1999 after the Kargil war, when GPS access was a problem, so statement 1 is correct.
Six satellites failed primarily because of defective imported atomic clocks, so statement 2 is correct.
Four fully operational satellites are sufficient for position navigation; seven is only the ideal constellation size, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 3 is wrong because four satellites suffice, and statement 1 is also correct.
c Statement 2 is also correct, since the failures are attributed mainly to imported atomic clocks.
d Statement 3 is wrong because seven is the ideal size, not the minimum required.
With reference to the finances of State governments in India, consider the following statements:
1. The power to raise taxes rests largely with the Union government, while a larger share of overall government spending is borne by the State governments.
2. Most State government expenditure goes to social sectors such as health and education and economic sectors such as agriculture and irrigation.
3. The gap between expenditure and receipts of States is usually financed through grants from the Finance Commission rather than market borrowings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Taxation powers are largely with the Union, yet States bear a larger share of total government spending, so statement 1 is correct.
Most State spending is on social sectors (health, education) and economic sectors (agriculture, irrigation), so statement 2 is correct.
The gap between expenditure and receipts is usually financed through market borrowings, not Finance Commission grants, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 3 is altered; the gap is usually financed through market borrowings.
c Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' leaves out a true statement.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since market borrowings usually finance the gap.
With reference to the temples of Khajuraho, consider the following statements:
1. The building of the temples began around 900 CE when the Chandela family rose to power as a major political dynasty in northern India.
2. The temples are regarded as representing the Nagara tradition of temple architecture.
3. The western group of temples consists entirely of Jain shrines located on the banks of the Sib-Sagar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Temple building at Khajuraho began from about 900 CE under the Chandela chieftains, so statement 1 is correct.
The temples are described as the epitome of the Nagara architectural tradition, so statement 2 is correct.
The western group consists entirely of Brahmanical temples (Lakshmana, Kandariya Mahadeva, Vishvanatha and others), not Jain shrines; the Jain cluster lies in the eastern group. Statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, since the western group is entirely Brahmanical, not Jain.
c Includes statement 3, which wrongly calls the western group Jain.
d Omits statement 2, which is correct: Khajuraho's temples represent the Nagara tradition.
With reference to India's position at the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:
1. India declined to endorse the joint statement at the 2025 SCO Defence Ministers' meet in Qingdao because the draft did not reflect its concerns over cross-border terrorism while referring to militant activities in Balochistan.
2. India's stated position is that cooperation on trade, connectivity and development must be suspended until every security dispute is resolved.
3. India has argued that terrorism should be treated as an isolated security challenge, separate from the agenda of regional economic integration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: India refused to endorse the Qingdao draft since it overlooked Pakistan-sponsored terrorism, including the Pahalgam attack, while mentioning Balochistan.
Statement 2 is wrong: India does not say cooperation must be suspended; it says such objectives cannot be met independently of a stable security environment.
Statement 3 is wrong: India argues terrorism cannot be divorced from regional peace, integration and development, and must be tackled at its source.
a Both statements 2 and 3 invert India's stated position.
b Statement 2 misstates India's position; India does not demand suspension of cooperation.
c Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect, so not all are correct.
With reference to the proposal to expand India's imports of Venezuelan crude, consider the following statements:
1. Reliance Industries' Jamnagar complex is regarded as well suited to Venezuelan crude because it is among the most complex refineries in the world and can process very heavy grades.
2. Venezuela's flagship Merey grade is extremely heavy and highly sulphurous, which limits the number of Indian refineries able to handle large volumes.
3. Venezuelan crude is priced at a discount to Brent that is large enough to offset current freight costs to India's west coast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Jamnagar's complexity lets it process heavy, sour Merey crude, and few other Indian refineries can take large volumes.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Merey discount (about $25 a barrel to Brent) is smaller than freight (about $35 a barrel), so it becomes a landed premium rather than offsetting freight.
a Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, since freight exceeds the discount, and it also leaves out statement 1.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because the discount does not cover freight.
With reference to the Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) instruments issued by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) on the Social Stock Exchange, consider the following statements:
1. They enable eligible social-purpose organisations to mobilise resources without conventional interest or principal repayment obligations.
2. NSDC's first issuance was subscribed by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
3. The Social Stock Exchange platform on which they were listed is operated by the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
ZCZP instruments let eligible social-purpose organisations raise funds without conventional interest or principal repayment, with emphasis on transparent deployment and reporting of social outcomes.
NABARD subscribed ₹4 crore in NSDC's maiden ZCZP issuance.
The Social Stock Exchange platform used is that of the National Stock Exchange (NSE), not the Bombay Stock Exchange, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong because the platform belongs to the NSE; it also omits correct statement 2.
b Statement 3 is incorrect because the platform is the NSE's, not the Bombay Stock Exchange's.
c Statement 3 is wrong because the platform belongs to the NSE; it also omits correct statement 1.
With reference to the Fund for responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), consider the following statements:
1. It was established at COP27 in 2022, and its operational mechanism was agreed at COP28 the following year.
2. It is meant to help vulnerable developing countries respond to economic and non-economic losses from climate change.
3. Its allocations are paid out directly by the Fund and never through multilateral banks, national institutions or UN agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Fund was set up at COP27 (2022) and its operational mechanism was agreed at COP28; statement 1 is correct.
Its purpose is to help vulnerable developing countries respond to economic and non-economic losses; statement 2 is correct.
Projects are carried out by implementing organisations such as multilateral banks, national institutions and UN agencies, which receive oversight fees; statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
b Statement 3 is incorrect; the Fund pays oversight fees to implementing organisations.
d Statement 3 is wrong because implementing entities such as multilateral banks and UN agencies are used, and statement 1 is correct.
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