What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. National Social Security Board notified for unorganised and gig workers
The Labour Ministry has constituted the National Social Security Board for Unorganised Workers and for Gig & Platform Workers under the Code on Social Security, bringing platform workers formally into the welfare framework.
Constituted under the Code on Social Security by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, notified on 30 Oct 2026.
The Union Labour & Employment Minister presides over the Boards.
Members include Central and State governments, aggregator companies, employers, civil society, workers' unions and gig/platform associations.
The Boards must meet at least three times a year, following procedure rules set by the Centre.
Functions: recommend schemes, advise the Centre, monitor Central schemes, review State-level record keeping and review expenditure from the fund and account.
Key terms
Code on Social Security
— The labour code providing the statutory framework for social security, under which these Boards are set up.
Gig worker
— A person who earns outside the traditional employer-employee relationship, doing work on short-term or task basis.
Platform worker
— A gig worker who gets work through an online platform that matches them with customers.
Aggregator
— A digital platform company that connects workers with customers and whose representatives sit on the Board.
Unorganised worker
— A worker in the informal sector, typically lacking formal social security coverage.
2. Bhutan GLOF: Why glacial lake outburst floods keep recurring in Himalayas
A glacial lake outburst at Shintaphu Lake in Bhutan's Gasa district set off flood alerts along the Sankosh river in Assam and West Bengal, highlighting the growing GLOF threat in a warming Himalaya.
The GLOF occurred at Shintaphu Lake, Gasa district, Bhutan; alerts covered Kokrajhar and Dhubri (Assam) and Cooch Behar (West Bengal) along the Sankosh river.
A GLOF is a sudden release of water held back by a glacier or a moraine (loose debris) dam.
The 2023 Sikkim GLOF killed 55 people; other Himalayan disasters cited include Kedarnath 2013, Chamoli 2021 and Dharali 2025.
An NRSC inventory (2011-15), sponsored by the CWC's Climate Change Directorate, counted 352 glacial lakes and water bodies in the Indus basin, 283 in the Ganga and 1,393 in the Brahmaputra.
NDMA recommends Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) imagery for monitoring lakes, along with mapping of dangerous lakes.
Key terms
Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF)
— Sudden release of water from a lake dammed by a glacier or moraine, causing catastrophic downstream flooding.
Moraine
— Accumulation of debris such as sand, silt, gravel and boulders deposited by a glacier; often forms a weak natural dam.
Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
— Satellite imaging technology recommended by NDMA to detect changes in water bodies and new lakes, including during monsoon cloud cover.
NDMA
— National Disaster Management Authority, which issues guidelines on GLOF identification, monitoring and risk reduction.
3. DNPA's Supreme Court challenge to the DPDP Act, 2023
A digital news publishers' body has challenged the data protection law for lacking a journalism exemption and for diluting RTI, raising the question of how to balance press freedom against privacy.
The Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) has petitioned the Supreme Court against the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and its Rules; the Court has issued notice.
The Act has no specific exemption for journalistic activity, though the 2018, 2019 and 2021 drafts included one.
Penalties for non-compliance can go up to ₹250 crore.
The petition also challenges Section 44(3), which amended the RTI Act, 2005 and removed the earlier public-interest qualification on disclosure of personal information.
Freedom of the press is protected under Article 19(1)(a); there is no specific statutory protection for journalists.
Key terms
Data fiduciary
— Under the DPDP Act, an entity that decides the purpose and means of processing personal data and carries obligations such as notice and consent.
Chilling effect
— Discouragement of legitimate free expression because of fear of legal penalties.
Article 19(1)(a)
— The fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, under which press freedom is protected.
Public-interest override
— A provision allowing disclosure of otherwise protected information when the public benefit outweighs the harm to privacy.
4. Deemed ineligible: Supreme Court questions ECI's SIR deletions
The Supreme Court questioned the Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, especially deleting existing voters for not returning forms and forcing them to re-apply as new voters.
A Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant, with Justice Joymalya Bagchi, heard a petition on the Delhi SIR and called the ECI 'in error' for making struck-off voters re-apply on Form 6 as new voters.
Justice Bagchi noted the Bihar judgment is not a 'binding precedent' and that 'logical discrepancy' checks were allowed in West Bengal only as an interim arrangement.
Draft deletions recorded as 'shifted' or 'absent' rose from 55% in Bihar to 72% in States/UTs in Phase 3.
In Karnataka about 84 lakh electors were deleted, only a net 8.2 lakh added in the claims phase, leaving the final roll 64.5 lakh short of the projected adult population.
The 2002-03 intensive revision enrolled shifted voters at new addresses, with the Chief Electoral Officer reconciling old entries.
Key terms
Special Intensive Revision (SIR)
— A door-to-door verification of electoral rolls by the ECI in which electors must return enumeration forms to stay on the roll.
Form 6
— The application form for enrolment as a new elector.
Logical discrepancy checks
— Algorithmic flags on roll entries, such as family size or parent-voter age gap, used to question eligibility.
Enumeration form
— The form circulated to electors during SIR for verifying and updating their details.
Chief Electoral Officer
— The State-level official who supervises the preparation and revision of electoral rolls.
5. High Level Committee on Banking for Viksit Bharat constituted
The Finance Ministry has set up a six-month expert committee under Suresh N. Patel to review India's banking sector and recommend reforms that make banks globally competitive, inclusive and resilient by 2047.
Announced in the Union Budget 2026-27 speech by the Finance Minister; now formally constituted by the Government of India.
Chairman: Suresh N. Patel, former Central Vigilance Commissioner. Members: Shirish Chandra Murmu (RBI Deputy Governor), Padmaja Chunduru (ex-MD & CEO, Indian Bank), N S Vishwanathan (ex-RBI Deputy Governor).
Member Secretary: Joint Secretary (Banking), Department of Financial Services; tenure is six months.
Scope covers Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative Banks, Development Financial Institutions and NBFCs, besides commercial banks.
Terms of reference include review of the Priority Sector Lending framework and the Lead Bank Scheme.
Key terms
Viksit Bharat 2047
— The national goal of making India a developed economy by 2047, the centenary of independence.
Priority Sector Lending
— A requirement that banks direct a set share of credit to sectors such as agriculture, MSMEs and weaker sections.
Lead Bank Scheme
— A framework where a designated bank coordinates credit planning and financial inclusion efforts in each district.
Development Financial Institutions
— Institutions that provide long-term finance for infrastructure and industry.
Prudential norms
— Regulatory rules on capital, asset quality and provisioning that keep banks sound.
6. ISRO's GSLV-F18 places NVS-03 navigation satellite in orbit
ISRO launched the NVS-03 navigation satellite on GSLV-F18 from Sriharikota and placed it in the intended geosynchronous transfer orbit, a step towards reviving the weakened NavIC regional navigation system.
GSLV-F18 (the 20th GSLV flight) lifted off from Sriharikota on the night of 30 October and was due to place NVS-03 in geosynchronous transfer orbit about 18.5 minutes later.
NVS-01 flew in May 2023 and NVS-02 in January 2025. NVS-02 could not raise its orbit because its engines failed to fire.
Only three of NavIC's 11 satellites can currently perform primary functions: IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I and NVS-01.
Restoring minimum NavIC capacity needs four working NVS satellites: NVS-01, NVS-03, and the yet-to-launch NVS-04 and NVS-05.
ISRO had three failures in six missions launched from Indian soil between January 2025 and January 2026.
Key terms
NavIC
— India's regional satellite navigation system, built around the NVS and IRNSS satellites.
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
— An intermediate elliptical orbit in which a satellite is first placed before it is raised to its final geosynchronous orbit.
GSLV
— ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, which uses a cryogenic upper stage.
GPS and BeiDou
— The US and Chinese global satellite navigation constellations, used as benchmarks for NavIC.
7. World Bank: India's poverty fell sharply, 496 million lifted out (2011–2023)
The World Bank's October 2026 Poverty and Equity Brief says India cut poverty fast on both monetary and multidimensional measures, though poverty is now concentrated in specific regions and youth unemployment is rising.
8. How Legislative Council (MLC) elections work: composition, voters, voting
After NDA won 16 of 28 Council seats across four states, the article explains how MLCs are chosen, why graduate and teacher constituencies exist, and why ballot papers with preferential voting are used.
9. Digital arrest scams: Supreme Court presses RBI, banks on liability
The Supreme Court, hearing a suo motu case, criticised the RBI for 'soft pedalling' on digital arrest frauds and proposed making banks compensate victims where due diligence failed; the RBI is drafting KYC changes and weighing a 'kill…
A three-judge Bench led by CJI Surya Kant (with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana) heard the suo motu case; the Court took cognizance in October 2025 after a Haryana senior-citizen couple lost over Rs 1 crore.
I4C data: complaints rose from 39,925 (2022) to 1,23,672 (2024, losses about Rs 1,935 crore), fell to 58,239 in 2025 (about Rs 1,211 crore), and 21,928 in Jan–Aug 2026 (over Rs 647 crore).
India has no legal provision for 'digital arrest'; no agency can arrest anyone over a video call or demand money to avoid prosecution.
The Court proposed that banks compensate victims at least to the extent of the loss where they failed to exercise adequate due diligence.
RBI's September draft KYC directions allow temporary debit holds on suspicious funds instead of freezing whole accounts, with safeguards against indefinite freezing.
Key terms
Digital arrest
— A cyber fraud in which criminals pose as law enforcement or judges and hold victims on video calls to extort money; it has no basis in Indian law.
Suo motu cognizance
— A court taking up a matter on its own initiative without a formal petition.
Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C)
— The national body whose complaint data on digital arrest scams was submitted to the Supreme Court.
Mule account
— An intermediary bank account used to receive and rapidly pass on stolen money.
Kill switch
— A mechanism that instantly disables or blocks an account or service in an emergency, here proposed to halt all transactions from an account.
10. CCS clears Rs 40,000-crore plan for eight next-generation corvettes
The Cabinet Committee on Security has approved building eight Navy-designed stealth corvettes at GRSE and Goa Shipyard, adding to India's surface combatant strength and indigenous warship building.
11. DBN, Tamil Nadu and TANFINET sign BharatNet utilisation pact under ABP
Digital Bharat Nidhi, the Tamil Nadu government and TANFINET signed an agreement to use BharatNet under the Amended BharatNet Program in a State-led model, aiming at rural fibre broadband in Tamil Nadu.
Agreement signed at Sanchar Bhawan, New Delhi among Digital Bharat Nidhi (DoT), Government of Tamil Nadu and Tamil Nadu FibreNet Corporation (TANFINET), under the State-led model of the Amended BharatNet Program (ABP).
Union Cabinet approved ABP on 4 August 2023 to upgrade, consolidate and expand BharatNet, connecting all Gram Panchayats and villages on a demand basis.
Expected to enable over five lakh rural home fibre connections in Tamil Nadu with Government of India subsidy support; 4,767 villages to get demand-based connectivity.
Digital Bharat Nidhi is the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), renamed under the Telecommunications Act, 2023; it is an attached office of DoT.
DBN schemes include BharatNet, the 4G Saturation Project, and mobile services in Aspirational Districts, Left Wing Extremism areas, Himalayan and border areas, islands and the North East.
Key terms
Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN)
— Successor to the Universal Service Obligation Fund under the Telecommunications Act, 2023; funds telecom access in underserved rural, remote and urban areas.
Amended BharatNet Program (ABP)
— Cabinet-approved (August 2023) programme to upgrade, consolidate and expand BharatNet to give broadband to all Gram Panchayats and villages on demand.
State-led model
— Implementation approach in which the state government and its agency use and run BharatNet with Centre's subsidy support.
TANFINET
— Tamil Nadu FibreNet Corporation, the state agency party to the agreement.
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)
— Earlier name of the fund set up in 2002 to promote telecom services in unserved areas.
12. CAQM's PAVAN-I3C command centre for NCR air pollution reviewed
Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav reviewed CAQM's new PAVAN-I3C centre, which merges many data streams so NCR pollution sources can be detected and acted on in real time; C&D work in NCR will be halted 5-20 November.
PAVAN stands for Platform for Air quality Vigilance and Analytics for NCR; I3C is the Integrated Command and Control Centre of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
It integrates 30+ APIs and data streams, including 111 CAAQMS stations in Delhi-NCR, 2,300+ industries and 3,200+ active construction sites.
Works on the principle 'Detect, Analyse, Act'; deviations from norms or Statutory Directions trigger alerts and escalation to the concerned agency.
Construction and demolition activity across NCR is to be halted from 5 to 20 November.
State Action Plan module tracks pending actions for Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Key terms
CAQM
— Statutory commission coordinating, researching and enforcing air pollution control in Delhi-NCR and adjoining areas.
CAAQMS
— Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations that give real-time readings of pollutant concentrations.
OCEMS
— Online Continuous Emission Monitoring Systems that track industrial stack emissions such as PM, SO₂, NOx and CO.
Construction and Demolition (C&D) activities
— Building and demolition works that generate road and construction dust, a major source of particulate pollution.
Statutory Directions
— Legally binding directions issued by CAQM that agencies and polluters must follow.
13. MCA clarifies its limited role in NCLT appointments
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs says it only handles administrative work in appointing NCLT's 63 Judicial and Technical Members, while NCLT itself manages its own officers and staff under a 2019 delegation.
MCA's role is only administrative in the appointment process for NCLT's 63 Judicial and Technical Members.
NCLT itself appoints and manages its officers and staff, such as Deputy Registrars, Court Officers, Stenographers, Office Assistants and Multi-Tasking Staff.
The Government delegated this staffing function to NCLT through a notification dated 14 October 2019.
The stated aim of the delegation is effective and independent functioning of the tribunal.
The clarification was issued after news reports on NCLT personnel matters linked to observations of the Supreme Court.
Key terms
National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
— A quasi-judicial body that adjudicates company-law and related matters, with Judicial and Technical Members.
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
— The ministry that administers the appointment process for NCLT Members, in an administrative capacity.
Judicial and Technical Members
— The members who form NCLT benches; 63 such posts are mentioned in the release.
Delegation of responsibility
— Transfer of a function by the Government to another body; here, NCLT's staff appointment and management via the 14 October 2019 notification.
14. TRAI drafts guidelines on responsible AI use in telecom
TRAI has released draft guidelines requiring telecom operators to adopt board-approved AI policies, risk-classify AI systems and report serious AI incidents, to put the India AI Governance Guidelines into practice in the sector.
The draft is titled 'Guidelines on Responsible Use of AI in Telecommunication Networks and Provision of Telecommunication Services' and is open for stakeholder comments.
Operators must sort AI systems into high, medium and low risk, judged by importance to network operations, financial and operational outcomes, and likely impact on consumers.
Each entity needs an internal AI policy approved by its board or equivalent body, covering risk classification, deployment approvals, incident management, human oversight, data governance and grievance redressal.
AI incidents fall into four severity levels: critical, high, moderate and low. Critical and high incidents must be reported to TRAI in a prescribed format and timeframe.
Entities stay accountable for AI outcomes whether the system is built in-house, bought from a third party or a mix of both.
Key terms
Risk-based AI classification
— Sorting AI systems into high, medium and low risk so that oversight is proportionate to potential harm.
Human oversight
— A predefined mechanism for people to supervise and intervene in AI systems to reduce risk.
AI incident
— An AI-related event causing harm or failure, graded critical, high, moderate or low severity.
India AI Governance Guidelines
— The national framework for responsible AI that TRAI's draft seeks to implement in telecom.
Disinvestment and asset monetisation receipts had reached 78% of the FY27 target by September, and the approved IDBI Bank stake sale should take them past it, easing fiscal pressure from slow tax growth and rising capital spending.
16. Jaishankar at G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting: Don't Overlook Terror Dangers
At the G20 foreign ministers' plenary in Atlanta, Jaishankar cautioned against tactical calculations that ignore terrorism, pressed for freedom of navigation under UNCLOS, and criticised the weaponising of supply chains and market access.
Venue: first plenary of the G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting in Atlanta, hosted by US Secretary of State Marco Rubio.
Jaishankar called terrorism a high-risk activity that has 'come back to bite even the practitioners', a veiled reference to US-Pakistan engagement; India cites the April 2025 Pahalgam attack.
He urged freedom of navigation and an end to attacks on shipping within international law, especially UNCLOS; at least 22 Indians, 14 of them seafarers, have died since the West Asia war began in February.
India and Liberia have launched a joint initiative to safeguard seafarers.
Next engagements: Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting in Atlanta, then CHOGM in Antigua & Barbuda (Nov 1-4); the G20 leaders' summit in the US is expected in mid-December.
Key terms
UNCLOS
— UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, the international framework governing maritime rights, navigation and jurisdiction.
Freedom of navigation
— The right of ships to pass through international waters and sea lanes without obstruction or attack.
Global South
— A term for developing and emerging economies, largely in Asia, Africa and Latin America.
De-risking
— Diversifying supply chains and trade links to cut over-dependence on a single country.
CHOGM
— Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting, the Commonwealth's biennial leaders' summit.
17. J&K High Court strikes down water tax on hydropower projects
The J&K and Ladakh High Court held that taxing water used for hydropower under the 2010 Water Resources Act was beyond the legislature's competence, since the levy in substance falls on electricity generation, and it quashed the demand…
Bench of Justices Rajnesh Oswal and Sanjay Dhar struck down provisions of the J&K Water Resources (Regulation and Management) Act, 2010 that taxed water used to generate electricity.
Court held these provisions ultra vires the Constitution because the erstwhile State legislature lacked competence.
Demand notices to petitioners Mass N Ergy Pvt Ltd, Magpie Hydel Construction Operation Industries and Choudhary Power Projects Pvt Ltd were quashed.
Court noted Entry 17 of List-II (water) is a regulatory entry and gives no power to tax; List-II has no separate taxing entry for water.
Key terms
Ultra vires
— Beyond the legal power or authority of the body that made the law; such a law is invalid.
Legislative competence
— The authority of a legislature to make laws on a given subject under the Seventh Schedule.
Entry 17, List-II
— State List entry on water supply, irrigation, canals, drainage and water power, treated by the court as regulatory, not a taxing power.
Regulatory vs taxing entry
— A regulatory entry lets a legislature govern a subject; only a taxing entry lets it impose a tax on it.
18. Bullet Train Corridor: 14 Traction Substations to Power Mumbai-Ahmedabad Line
NHSRCL is building 14 traction substations along the 508-km Mumbai-Ahmedabad high-speed rail corridor, with the first, at Bilimora in Gujarat, nearing completion; they ensure a steady electricity supply for the trains.
19. India to host ICAR-CGIAR Science and Partnership Week 2027
New Delhi will host the CGIAR Science and Partnership Week from 12–17 April 2027, organised by ICAR and CGIAR, to showcase Indian agricultural science and push South–South cooperation.
20. Coal Ministry's 'Mining for Future' Consultation: Speeding Up Allocated Blocks
At a Panjim consultation, the Coal Ministry urged captive and commercial block allottees to start production sooner, citing energy-security pressure from the West Asia conflict and rising domestic demand, while stressing responsible mining.
Held in Panjim, Goa, with allottees of captive and commercial blocks, State Governments, CGWA, DGH and MoEFCC; Coal Secretary Vikram Dev Dutt was Chief Guest
India produced 1,041 million tonnes of coal in FY 2025-26; coal supplies over 70% of its electricity
Scheduled operationalisation time cut from 51 to 40 months (fully explored blocks) and from 66 to 52 months (partially explored blocks)
Mining plan approvals now average 4.5 months against 9 earlier; Mine Opening Permission is granted by the company Board
The 2020 framework allows 100% FDI via the automatic route, with revenue-share bidding linked to the National Coal Index
Key terms
Captive and commercial coal blocks
— Blocks allotted for own end-use (captive) or for sale on the market (commercial) to private and public firms.
National Coal Index
— Price index used to link the revenue share in coal block bidding.
Underground Coal Gasification
— Converting coal in situ into gas, a cleaner way to use deep or unminable seams.
Just transition
— Shifting away from fossil-fuel dependence while protecting workers and communities.
Mine closure
— Planned ecological and social restoration of mined-out areas.
21. Congress slams BJP for 'normalising' Chinese transgressions after Khandu's Arunachal remarks
Congress accused BJP leaders of rationalising Chinese incursions in Arunachal Pradesh after CM Pema Khandu said such incidents keep happening because the border is not clearly demarcated; the row highlights the unsettled LAC and the…
Congress's Jairam Ramesh said CM Pema Khandu's remarks contradicted his earlier denial of Chinese incursions in Taksing.
Khandu cited the absence of a defined boundary along the nearly 1,200-km Arunachal border for the transgressions.
A week earlier, the ITBP chief had confirmed face-offs at several northeast locations, some of them continuing.
The MEA says Chinese forces diverge from established patrolling patterns, keeping the LAC disturbed.
Congress recalled the PM's post-Galwan remark 'na koi ghusa hai' and alleged suppression of information after a video of the ITBP chief's remarks was removed.
Key terms
Line of Actual Control (LAC)
— The de facto line separating Indian and Chinese-controlled territory, not formally delineated or agreed on maps.
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
— The central armed police force guarding the India-China border, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Transgression
— Crossing of the border or LAC by troops as perceived by the other side, often arising from differing perceptions of the line.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank's October 2026 Poverty and Equity Brief for India:
Statement-I: The report notes that employment grew by about 134 million between 2017 and 2023, nearly twice the growth in the working-age population, with rural women accounting for much of the gain.
Statement-II: The report finds that wage disparities have vanished, as median earnings of the top 10% of workers were about equal to those of the bottom 10% in 2023.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
Statement-I is correct: employment rose by about 134 million (2017-2023), nearly twice working-age population growth, driven largely by rural women.
Statement-II is incorrect: the report says wage disparities remain pronounced, with top-10% median earnings about 13 times those of the bottom 10%.
a Statement-II is false, so it cannot explain Statement-I.
b Statement-II is false; wage disparities remain pronounced.
d Statement-I is actually correct, while Statement-II is the false one.
With reference to "digital arrest" scams in India, consider the following statements:
1. Digital arrest is a cyber fraud in which criminals impersonate police officers, central investigative agency officials or even judges to convince victims that they are implicated in serious criminal cases.
2. Arrest through a video call is permitted under Indian law, provided it is ordered by a court.
3. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognizance of the issue after a senior citizen couple from Haryana reported being cheated using forged court documents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 correctly describes the modus operandi of digital arrest scams.
Statement 2 is wrong: there is no legal provision for digital arrest in India, and no agency can arrest anyone over a video call.
Statement 3 is correct: the suo motu case began after a senior citizen couple from Haryana was cheated with forged court documents.
a Statement 2 is false because digital arrest has no legal basis in India.
c Omits statement 3, which is also correct.
d Statement 2 is false because digital arrest has no legal basis in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Next-Generation Corvettes (NGC) and corvettes in general:
1. A corvette is typically a larger surface combatant than a frigate or destroyer.
2. The NGC are intended to complement the existing Kamorta-class corvettes, which are primarily ASW-oriented.
3. The NGC programme is meant for a multirole platform covering roles such as anti-submarine warfare, maritime surveillance and coastal defence.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b)
A corvette is typically smaller than a frigate or destroyer, so statement 1 is wrong.
The NGC complement the four Kamorta-class corvettes, which are primarily ASW-oriented, so statement 2 is correct.
The NGC are a versatile platform for ASW, surveillance, reconnaissance and coastal and littoral defence, so statement 3 is correct.
a Two statements (2 and 3) are correct, not one.
c Statement 1 is incorrect because corvettes are smaller, not larger, than frigates and destroyers.
d Statements 2 and 3 are correct, so the count is not zero.
With reference to India's positions articulated at the G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting in Atlanta, consider the following statements:
1. India stressed that tactical calculations should not lead to overlooking the dangers of terrorism.
2. India called for preserving the freedom of navigation within the framework of international law, especially UNCLOS.
3. India argued that the right to industrialize is being denied through weaponizing of supply chains and market distortions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
All three statements reflect Jaishankar's remarks at the first plenary session.
He warned that terrorism is a high-risk activity that has bitten even its practitioners.
He urged preserving freedom of navigation under international law, especially UNCLOS.
He criticised the flooding of markets, weaponizing of supply chains and market distortions as denying the right to industrialize.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India is described as a natural host for the CGIAR Science and Partnership Week 2027.
Statement-II: ICAR leads one of the world's largest national agricultural research systems, and its scientists have worked with CGIAR for over fifty years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
The release calls India a natural host precisely because ICAR leads one of the world's largest national agricultural research systems.
ICAR scientists have also worked with CGIAR for more than 50 years.
Statement-II therefore gives the reason for Statement-I.
a Statement-II is the very reason given for India being a natural host, so it does explain Statement-I.
c Statement-I is correct; the release calls India a natural host.
d Statement-II is stated in the release and is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ministry of Coal's 'Mining for Future' stakeholder consultation:
1. It focused on faster operationalisation of already allocated captive and commercial coal blocks.
2. The Ministry stressed that sustainability must move in tandem with scale, including scientific mine closure and CSR.
3. Mine Opening Permission is now granted by the company Board.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
The consultation aimed at faster operationalisation of allocated blocks, with next-generation reforms.
Sustainability, scientific mine closure and CSR were stressed alongside scale.
Mine Opening Permission is granted by the company Board under the reforms.
a More than one statement is correct.
b The third statement is also correct, so all three hold.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is among the forces that guard India's border with China.
2. Arunachal Pradesh's border with China runs for nearly 1,200 km and, in the Chief Minister's explanation, transgressions occur because the boundary is not clearly defined.
3. The Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh is Jairam Ramesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statements 1 and 2 are consistent with the report: the ITBP chief confirmed face-offs in Arunachal Pradesh, and Pema Khandu cited the absence of a defined boundary along the nearly 1,200-km border.
Statement 3 is wrong: Pema Khandu is the Chief Minister, while Jairam Ramesh is the Congress general secretary in-charge of communications.
a It includes statement 3, which is false, and omits the correct statement 2.
b Statement 3 is false, so not all three are correct.
c Statement 3 wrongly names Jairam Ramesh as Chief Minister, so any option including it fails.
With reference to the National Social Security Board for Unorganised Workers and Gig & Platform Workers, consider the following statements:
1. It is constituted under the statutory framework of the Code on Social Security.
2. It is chaired by the Union Minister for Labour & Employment.
3. It can directly frame and administer welfare schemes for gig workers without referring to the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The Boards are established under the Code on Social Security and presided over by the Union Labour Minister, so statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Boards only recommend schemes to the Central Government, advise it and monitor schemes administered by it; they do not frame or administer schemes on their own, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, as the Board's role is recommendatory and advisory.
c Statement 2 is correct, so excluding it is wrong, and statement 3 is incorrect.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, as the Board recommends schemes and does not frame them independently.
With reference to India's NavIC and the NVS-series satellites, consider the following statements:
1. NVS-01 is a second-generation satellite and NVS-02 could not raise its orbit because its onboard engines failed to fire.
2. Restoring NavIC to its minimum operational capacity would require NVS-04 and NVS-05 in addition to NVS-01 and NVS-03.
3. IRNSS-1B and IRNSS-1I are second-generation satellites that remain capable of performing NavIC's primary functions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
NVS-01 is a second-generation satellite, and NVS-02 (January 2025) failed to raise its orbit because its engines did not fire, so statement 1 is correct.
The minimum constellation of four needs NVS-01, NVS-03, NVS-04 and NVS-05, so statement 2 is correct.
IRNSS-1B and IRNSS-1I are first-generation satellites, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
c Statement 3 wrongly calls IRNSS-1B and 1I second-generation satellites.
d Statement 3 is wrong because IRNSS-1B and 1I are first-generation, and statement 1 is also correct.
With reference to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in the Himalayas, consider the following statements:
1. A GLOF occurs when water dammed by a glacier or a moraine is released suddenly.
2. Moraine dams are solid bedrock barriers, which makes their failure unlikely compared to earthen dams.
3. The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) inventory of glacial lakes was sponsored by the Ministry of Jal Shakti's National Mission for Clean Ganga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
A GLOF is the sudden release of water dammed by a glacier or moraine, so statement 1 is correct.
A moraine is a barrier of loose material (sand, silt, gravel, boulders), not solid bedrock, and its weak structure causes abrupt failure, so statement 2 is wrong.
The NRSC project was sponsored by the Climate Change Directorate of the Central Water Commission, not the National Mission for Clean Ganga, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Both 2 and 3 are wrong; the sponsor was the CWC's Climate Change Directorate.
b Statements 2 and 3 are altered and incorrect.
c Statement 2 is wrong because moraines are loose debris and fail abruptly.
With reference to the High Level Committee on Banking for Viksit Bharat, consider the following statements:
1. It was announced in the Budget speech 2026-27 by the Union Finance Minister.
2. Its Terms of Reference are confined to Scheduled Commercial Banks and exclude Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative Banks.
3. The Joint Secretary (Banking), Department of Financial Services is its Member Secretary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Committee was announced in the Budget speech 2026-27, and the Joint Secretary (Banking), DFS is its Member Secretary, so statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Its Terms of Reference expressly cover the legal and regulatory frameworks for Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative Banks, so statement 2 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because RRBs and Cooperative Banks are covered.
b Statement 3 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
With reference to the Legislative Councils in the States of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution requires every State to have a Legislative Council in addition to the Legislative Assembly.
2. Under Article 171, a Legislative Council has a minimum of 40 members and a maximum of one-third of the strength of the Legislative Assembly.
3. Members elected by the Legislative Assembly members make up one-third of the Council's strength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The Constitution only gives States the option of a second chamber, so statement 1 is wrong.
Article 171 sets a floor of 40 members and a cap of one-third of the Assembly's size.
MLAs elect one-third of the Council's members, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.
a It includes statement 1, which is wrong, and leaves out the correct statement 2.
c Statement 1 is wrong because a Council is optional for States, not mandatory.
d Statement 1 is wrong, so all three cannot be correct.
With reference to Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN), consider the following statements:
1. It is the successor to the Universal Service Obligation Fund under The Telecommunications Act, 2023.
2. It is an attached office of the Department of Telecommunications.
3. Its mandate is confined to supporting telecommunication services in underserved rural areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Under The Telecommunications Act, 2023, the Universal Service Obligation Fund became the Digital Bharat Nidhi, so statement 1 is correct.
DBN is an attached office of the DoT, Ministry of Communications, so statement 2 is correct.
Its mandate covers underserved rural, remote and urban areas, not rural areas alone, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct since DBN is an attached office of DoT.
b Statement 3 is wrong because the mandate also covers remote and urban underserved areas.
c Statement 3 is wrong, so the combination with 2 cannot be correct; statement 1 is also left out.
With reference to the roles of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) and the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements:
1. The MCA performs only the administrative role in conducting the appointment process for the Judicial and Technical Members of the NCLT.
2. The NCLT independently undertakes the appointment and management of its own officers and staff, such as Deputy Registrars and Stenographers.
3. The responsibility for appointing the NCLT's officers and staff was delegated to the NCLT by the Government through a notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The MCA only performs the administrative role in the appointment process for Judicial and Technical Members of the NCLT.
The NCLT independently handles appointment and management of its officers and staff, including Deputy Registrars and Stenographers.
This responsibility was delegated by the Government through a notification of 14 October 2019, so all three statements are correct.
b Statement 1 is also correct, since the MCA's role is administrative in the member appointment process.
c Statement 3 is also correct, since the delegation was done by a Government notification.
d Statements 2 and 3 are also correct, so 1 alone is incomplete.
With reference to the challenge by the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
1. The Act contains no specific exemption for journalistic activity, although the drafts of 2018, 2019 and 2021 carried one.
2. Section 44(3) of the Act amended the RTI Act, 2005, by removing the earlier public-interest qualification concerning disclosure of personal information.
3. The Act provides no exemption for any category of data processing, including research and statistical purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: the Act omits a journalistic exemption though the 2018, 2019 and 2021 drafts had one.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 44(3) amended the RTI Act and removed the public-interest qualification on disclosing personal information.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Act already exempts certain processing, such as for research and statistical purposes.
a Statement 3 is false, and statement 2 is true, so this pairing fails.
c Statement 3 is false, so not all three are correct.
d Statement 3 is false, as the Act exempts research and statistical processing.
With reference to PAVAN-I3C of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), consider the following statements:
1. It is designed as a single-window digital platform that integrates air quality, emissions, satellite, mobility and complaint data from multiple agencies.
2. It works on the principle of 'Detect, Analyse, Act', with deviations from prescribed norms triggering alerts and escalation to the concerned agency.
3. It replaces the State Pollution Control Boards as the agency responsible for field-level enforcement in the NCR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
PAVAN-I3C is a single-window data integration platform working on 'Detect, Analyse, Act'.
Deviations from norms trigger alerts and escalation to the concerned agency, so statements 1 and 2 are correct.
It enables SPCBs to work from a single verified source of information; it does not replace them. Statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 3 is wrong, because PAVAN-I3C supports SPCBs and does not replace them.
d Statement 3 is wrong, since SPCBs and other agencies continue to act on the alerts.
With reference to the draft 'Guidelines on Responsible Use of AI in Telecommunication Networks and Provision of Telecommunication Services' proposed by TRAI, consider the following statements:
1. Entities must classify their AI systems into high-, medium- and low-risk categories.
2. Accountability for AI outcomes applies only to AI systems developed internally by the entity.
3. Critical and high-severity AI incidents are to be mandatorily reported to TRAI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The draft requires risk classification of AI systems into high, medium and low categories, based on significance to networks, outcomes and consumers.
Critical and high-severity incidents (out of four categories) must be reported to TRAI.
Statement 2 is wrong: accountability applies irrespective of whether AI is developed internally, procured from a third party or both.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, as accountability covers outsourced AI too.
c Omits statement 3, which is correct.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, so all three cannot be correct.
With reference to disinvestment and asset monetisation by the Centre in 2026-27, consider the following statements:
1. DIPAM data show that receipts from disinvestment and asset monetisation in April-September 2026 had already reached about 78% of the full-year budget target.
2. The government's approval of the sale of its stake in IDBI Bank makes it likely that the budget target will be exceeded.
3. Net tax revenue grew faster than capital expenditure in April-August 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are consistent with the report: collections had reached 78% of the ₹80,000 crore target, and the IDBI stake sale makes exceeding the target likely.
Statement 3 is wrong: net tax revenue rose a modest 3.4%, while capital expenditure rose by over 18%.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, since capital expenditure grew much faster than net tax revenue.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, as tax revenue growth (3.4%) was far below capital expenditure growth (over 18%).
d Statement 2 is correct and is wrongly left out, while statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to the traction power supply system of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train corridor, consider the following statements:
1. Traction substations receive electricity from the main grid, transform it to the required voltage and transmit it to the Overhead Equipment along the track.
2. The corridor will use a 2 × 25 kV traction power supply system.
3. The Bilimora traction substation in Navsari district, Maharashtra, is the first to near completion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Traction substations take power from the grid, step it to the required voltage and feed the Overhead Equipment; the corridor uses a 2 × 25 kV system, so statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Bilimora lies in Navsari district of Gujarat, not Maharashtra, so statement 3 is incorrect.
b Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is wrong, so this combination is wrong.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because Bilimora is in Gujarat.
d Statement 3 wrongly places Bilimora in Maharashtra, and statement 1 is correct, so this option is wrong.
With reference to the J&K High Court's ruling on the Jammu and Kashmir Water Resources (Regulation and Management) Act, 2010, consider the following statements:
1. The court held that the levy was, in substance, a tax on the generation of electricity rather than a charge for the use of water.
2. The court held that Entry 17 of List-II of the Seventh Schedule, relating to water, is a taxing entry empowering States to impose tax on water.
3. The court upheld the demand notices issued against the petitioners while striking down the rules framed under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The court looked at the nature and character of the levy and concluded it was in substance on generation of electricity, not on water use.
Entry 17 of List-II was described as a regulatory entry that does not vest power to tax water; there is no corresponding taxing entry for water in List-II.
The court quashed the demand notices against the petitioners, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Both 2 and 3 are wrong; the notices were quashed and Entry 17 is not a taxing entry.
b Statements 2 and 3 contradict the court's findings.
c Statement 2 is wrong: Entry 17 is a regulatory, not a taxing, entry.
Consider the following statements regarding the "logical discrepancy" checks used in the SIR of electoral rolls:
Statement-I: The legality of "logical discrepancy" checks has not been finally adjudicated by the Supreme Court, having been allowed only as an interim arrangement in West Bengal.
Statement-II: No statute or rule provides for judging a voter's eligibility on the basis of family size or the age gap between voters and their parents.
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement-I is correct: Justice Bagchi noted the checks were allowed only as an interim arrangement in West Bengal and not finally adjudicated.
Statement-II is correct: no statute or rule provides for eligibility judged by family size or parent age gap.
Statement-II is the editorial's criticism of the checks; it is not the reason the Court allowed them on an interim basis.
a Statement-II is not the Court's reason for permitting the checks; it is a criticism of them.
c Statement-II is correct, as no statute or rule provides for such checks.
d Statement-I is correct, as the legality was not finally adjudicated.
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