What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
The Defence Acquisition Council granted Acceptance of Necessity for about Rs 2,12,000 crore of Army, Navy and Air Force purchases, with roughly 82% to come from Indian industry.
DAC, chaired by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on 26 October 2026, gave Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) to proposals worth about Rs 2,12,000 crore.
Army items include High Mobility Vehicles, a Self-Propelled Tracked Gun System, Light Multi Role Helicopters (shared with the IAF), VSHORADS, counter-drone systems and long-range kamikaze drones.
Navy approvals cover the Active Offboard Decoy System (AODS) against anti-ship missiles, plus indigenously designed and built major platforms.
Air Force approvals cover Special Utility Helicopters, air defence systems, weapons and a Mobile X-Band Doppler Weather Radar for forward areas.
About 82% of the AoNs will be procured from Indian industry.
Key terms
Acceptance of Necessity (AoN)
— In-principle administrative approval by the DAC that a proposed capital acquisition is needed; it starts the procurement process.
Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
— The Defence Ministry's highest body for approving capital acquisition proposals, chaired by the Defence Minister.
VSHORADS
— Very Short-Range Air Defence System, used to engage small, low-flying aerial threats at close range.
Counter-Unmanned Aerial System (C-UAS)
— A system to detect and neutralise hostile drones; here it is platform-based to protect tanks.
X-Band Doppler Weather Radar
— A radar giving high-resolution, localised weather surveillance, here for forward areas.
2. MoRTH amends CMVR to enable E85/E100 flex fuel vehicles
MoRTH has amended the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 to explicitly cover E100 alongside E85 in emission certification, paving the way for purpose-built flex fuel vehicles, without forcing existing vehicle owners to change fuel.
3. CEC removable only like an SC judge, ECI tells Supreme Court
In a joint affidavit, the Election Commission and its three members told the Supreme Court that restraining the CEC's functioning would violate the 2023 Act, that the CEC can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge, and that decisions…
The ECI, CEC Gyanesh Kumar and Election Commissioners Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi filed a joint affidavit of nearly 250 pages in the Supreme Court.
It says the CEC can be removed only on the same grounds and by the same procedure as a Supreme Court judge.
Differences of opinion within the Commission are settled by majority under Section 18 of the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
Petitioners include the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and other INDIA bloc leaders, who rely partly on a media report alleging authoritarian functioning.
The affidavit says the Commission released no internal note or file to any news agency; it also indirectly confirms that Sandhu and Joshi wrote to the Cabinet Secretary about a July 28 order.
Key terms
Chief Election Commissioner
— Head of the Election Commission, with removal protection equal to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Section 18 of the 2023 Act
— Provides that differences of opinion among the Commission's members are decided by majority.
Special Intensive Revision (SIR)
— A drive to re-verify and update electoral rolls, whose errors and objections are in dispute.
Form 6
— The form used to apply for inclusion in the electoral roll; the ECI says it was not amended.
Maintainability
— Whether a petition is legally fit to be heard by a court.
4. Why the Supreme Court is hearing too many Special Leave Petitions
Over 96,000 pending cases fall on 38 Supreme Court judges, and SLPs, meant as a last resort, dominate the docket. The authors argue that clear admission filters, not just more judges, are needed.
The Supreme Court has over 96,000 pending cases for 38 judges, about 2,500 per judge (National Judicial Data Grid).
In May this year the Centre raised the Court's sanctioned strength from 34 to 38 judges.
SLPs are discretionary appeals: the Court may choose whether to hear a challenge to a lower-court judgment. They are estimated at about 80% of fresh filings.
The US Supreme Court hears roughly 70-80 cases a year, and the UK Supreme Court granted 45 of 207 permission applications in 2025-26.
A 2010 judgment warned that without guidelines on admitting SLPs 'the functioning of the court will become impossible'. A later Constitution Bench refused to restrict the power.
Key terms
Special Leave Petition (SLP)
— A petition asking the Supreme Court, at its discretion, to hear an appeal against a lower court's or tribunal's decision.
Constitution Bench
— A Supreme Court bench of at least five judges that decides substantial questions of constitutional law.
National Judicial Data Grid
— Online database giving data on pending and disposed cases across Indian courts.
Sanctioned strength
— The officially approved number of judges for a court.
5. Nepal gets $20 million in first payout from Loss and Damage Fund
The Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD) has made its first allocation, $20 million to flood-hit Nepal, a small sum against needs but a first test of the loss and damage regime.
FRLD approved $20 million (about Rs 190 crore) for Nepal at an emergency board meeting, against estimated recovery needs of about $4.75 billion.
The fund was created in 2022 and operationalised in 2023; its first call for proposals came at COP30 in Brazil.
By the 15 June deadline, 119 countries filed 176 requests worth $2.8 billion; each request is capped at $20 million.
Only $822 million has been pledged by 27 donors, much of it not yet delivered; Italy, France and the UAE have each committed over $100 million.
India has made three requests totalling a little over $52 million; decisions on regular requests are due in December.
Key terms
Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD)
— A new international fund that finances developing countries hit by climate-induced losses and damages.
Loss and damage
— Economic and non-economic harm from climate impacts that adaptation and mitigation cannot prevent, including sudden extreme events and slow-onset changes.
Slow-onset events
— Gradual climate impacts such as glacial melt, sea-level rise, biodiversity loss and desertification.
Climate finance
— Funds that developed countries are obliged under the UNFCCC and Paris Agreement to provide to developing countries for climate action.
6. Agrivoltaics under PM-KUSUM Phase II: farming beneath solar panels
The government plans to bring agri-photovoltaics into the second phase of PM-KUSUM, pairing crops with solar power on the same land, but pilot-stage evidence and safeguards for small farmers remain open questions.
Agri-PV is planned under PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan) Phase II, the flagship scheme for solarising irrigation.
Panels are mounted 3.5-4 m above ground so that farm machinery and routine operations can continue below.
Agri-PV costs roughly 25-30% more than conventional ground-mounted solar because of the added structural work.
Estimated potential is 1-2 TW (1000-2000 GW); about 30% of India's 160 million hectares of cropland may be suitable.
Early studies find it suitable for fruits and leafy vegetables, not for rice or sugarcane.
Key terms
Agri-photovoltaics (agrivoltaics)
— Elevated solar panels over farmland that let crops be grown below while electricity is generated on the same plot.
PM-KUSUM
— Flagship scheme to solarise irrigation and farm energy, whose second phase is to include agri-PV.
Farmer Producer Organisation (FPO)
— A collective of farmers that can help small holders access finance and form workable business models.
Terawatt (TW)
— Unit of power equal to 1000 gigawatts, used here for India's agri-PV potential.
7. 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum 2026 inaugurated in New Delhi
Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla opened the two-day 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum at Samvidhan Sadan, urging parliaments to turn the BRICS Summit's Joint Statement into concrete, people-centric action.
Inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla on 26 October 2026 at Samvidhan Sadan, Parliament House Complex, New Delhi
Theme: 'Strengthening Parliaments for People-Centric Development'; the Forum runs for two days
Four pillars for deliberation: resilience, innovation, cooperation and sustainability
Delegations from BRICS member and partner countries attended
Follows the BRICS Summit in New Delhi under PM Narendra Modi's chairmanship, where a Joint Statement was adopted unanimously
Key terms
Parliamentary diplomacy
— Engagement among legislators of different countries to exchange views, build trust and find common ground, supplementing government-to-government diplomacy.
Global South
— A term for developing and emerging countries whose concerns BRICS aims to amplify in global governance.
BRICS Joint Statement
— The consensus document adopted at the Summit of Heads of State and Government, containing commitments the parliaments are urged to help implement.
Parliamentary oversight
— The legislature's scrutiny of the executive through debates, questions, committees and budget control.
8. RELIEF Component II under Export Promotion Mission extended to March 2027
The Commerce Department has extended the ECGC-cover support under RELIEF to 31 March 2027, because West Asian disruptions continue to hurt maritime logistics and export risk for Indian exporters.
RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) is a time-bound intervention under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM); it was launched on 19 March 2026.
Component II timelines extended to 31 March 2027 via Notification No. 37/2026-27 dated 30 September 2026.
Exporters who take ECGC cover for shipments to specified regions get 95% risk coverage.
Benefit applies to Standalone Policies and Whole Turnover Policies obtained on or after 16 March 2026.
Cargo covered: FCL, LCL and reefer containers; energy shipments are excluded. Claims go through the ECGC customer portal.
Key terms
Export Promotion Mission (EPM)
— The umbrella framework under which the Commerce Department runs export-support interventions, including the time-bound RELIEF.
ECGC
— Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India, which provides export credit insurance cover to exporters.
Whole Turnover Policy
— An ECGC policy covering an exporter's entire turnover rather than a single shipment or buyer.
Standalone Policy
— An ECGC policy taken for specific shipments or transactions.
FCL / LCL
— Full Container Load (a whole container for one shipper) versus Less than Container Load (shared container space).
9. TRAI Recommends Authorisation Framework for App-based Linear TV (ALTD/FAST) Services
TRAI has proposed bringing internet-delivered linear TV apps, including FAST services, under a light-touch licensing regime in the Telecommunications Act, 2023, to ensure parity with conventional TV distributors, content accountability and…
Triggered by an MIB reference to TRAI under Section 11(1)(a) of the TRAI Act, 1997 (15 Dec 2025) on regulating Free Ad-Supported Streaming Television (FAST).
Recommends ALTD Service as a distinct sub-category of 'Television Channel Distribution Services' under Section 3(1)(a) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023; terms to be notified as Rules under Section 56.
Light-touch terms: national service area, 20-year initial validity renewable for 10-year periods, ₹10,000 processing fee, ₹1 lakh one-time entry fee, and no authorisation fee, bank guarantee or security deposit.
The application provider is the primary entity that must obtain authorisation; MIB to maintain a 'Master ALTD app repository'.
Excludes broadcaster-owned platforms carrying only own or group channels, and live streams on social media intermediaries.
Key terms
ALTD Service
— Aggregation and distribution of linear TV channels over the internet or IP networks through apps, websites or similar interfaces on internet-enabled devices.
FAST (Free Ad-Supported Streaming Television)
— Free streaming of scheduled linear channels, funded by advertising rather than subscription.
Internet-native linear television channels
— Scheduled channels designed for internet delivery, which need an approved name and logo to be carried.
OEM
— Original Equipment Manufacturer, such as a TV maker, which must make only authorised ALTD apps available on its devices.
Section 11(1)(a), TRAI Act 1997
— Provision under which the Government can seek TRAI's recommendations on policy matters.
10. Rajnath Singh calls for 'Aatmanirbharta 2.0' in defence at SWAVLAMBAN 2026
At the Navy's fifth SWAVLAMBAN seminar, the Defence Minister urged a second phase of defence self-reliance centred on advanced technologies, R&D, resilient supply chains and private-sector risk-taking.
11. Rajnath Singh to lead India at 13th ADMM-Plus, Cebu
India's Defence Minister will attend the 13th ADMM-Plus in the Philippines on 28-29 October 2026, addressing regional security and holding bilateral talks, in line with India's Act East outreach.
12. Maharashtra to Notify Two New Wildlife Sanctuaries, 14 Conservation Reserves
Maharashtra's State Board for Wildlife approved upgrading Kolamarka and an expanded Tansa area to sanctuaries and cleared 14 conservation reserves, while discussing declaring human-wildlife conflict a natural disaster.
26th meeting of the Maharashtra State Board for Wildlife, chaired by CM Devendra Fadnavis, on 26 October 2026
Kolamarka Conservation Reserve (Gadchiroli, known for wild buffaloes) approved for upgrade to a wildlife sanctuary
Expanded Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary approved; 588.767 ha of revenue and private land from six villages to be added so the sanctuary is free of human habitation
100.139 sq km in Koka Wildlife Sanctuary and 255.79 sq km in Jayakwadi Bird Sanctuary approved as critical wildlife habitats
14 conservation reserves cleared across Pune, Raigad, Nashik, Nandurbar, Thane, Palghar and Chandrapur districts
Key terms
Conservation Reserve
— A protected-area category, usually on government-owned land adjoining parks and sanctuaries, meant to serve as a buffer or corridor.
Wildlife Sanctuary
— A protected area where the habitat and wildlife are conserved, with more regulated human activity than outside but less strict than a national park.
Critical Wildlife Habitat
— Areas within national parks and sanctuaries identified as inviolate for wildlife conservation, notified after consultation with experts and local communities.
State Board for Wildlife
— The state-level body, chaired by the Chief Minister, that advises on protected-area declarations and on projects in and around them.
Eco-sensitive zone
— A buffer area around protected areas where certain activities are regulated to reduce the impact of development.
13. CRPF takes over Sinai SoO camp in Manipur's Kangpokpi
After a raid on the Kuki-Zo Sinai camp and arrests of 17 alleged impersonators, CRPF took control. The camp is one of two the MHA and Manipur government want relocated under the revised 2025 Suspension of Operations pact.
Sinai camp (Kangpokpi district) was raided on 23 October by Manipur Police, CRPF and Assam Rifles; 17 people were arrested and the camp is now in CRPF custody.
Only 18 people were found against a sanctioned strength of 150; police say 17 were posing as registered SoO cadres under false identities.
The original SoO was signed in 2008 with the MHA and Manipur government by Kuki-Zo groups under the UPF and KNO (24 groups); the Manipur government declined to extend it in February 2024.
The SoO was signed afresh on 4 September 2025: KNO and UPF get six camps each (down from 14), sited away from populated areas, national highways, conflict-prone zones, the Myanmar border and inter-State boundaries.
The operation followed the killing of three Meitei villagers near Nongshum, Imphal East, on 19 October.
Key terms
Suspension of Operations (SoO)
— A tripartite agreement under which militants stay in designated camps and security forces halt operations against them while talks proceed.
United Peoples' Front (UPF) and Kuki National Organisation (KNO)
— The two umbrella bodies of Kuki-Zo insurgent groups that are parties to the SoO pact.
NSCN-IM
— The Isak-Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland, a Naga insurgent group, named in the KNO's allegation of a proxy war.
CoBRA
— A specialised unit of the CRPF that took part in the joint operations at the Sinai camp.
14. 21 news publishers challenge DPDP Act in Supreme Court
The Digital News Publishers Association and member outlets have gone to the Supreme Court against the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, saying the absence of a journalism exemption threatens press freedom and the confidentiality…
21 news publishers, represented through the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA), filed the petition in the Supreme Court; it is listed for hearing on 27 October 2026
The target is the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023; most of its contentious provisions take effect from May 2027
Publishers want those provisions quashed; the filing runs to 698 pages
DNPA points out that the EU, Singapore and Britain have written carve-outs for journalism, whereas the Indian Act has none
India ranks 157th of 180 in the RSF World Press Freedom Index this year, down from 140th in 2014; the government rejects such rankings
Key terms
Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
— India's data privacy law setting obligations on those who process digital personal data and giving individuals rights over their data.
Consent and erasure
— The principle that data is processed only with the person's consent, which they can withdraw, and they can ask for their data to be erased.
Journalistic exemption
— A statutory carve-out shielding news-gathering and publication from data protection obligations, found in the EU, Singapore and Britain.
Pre-censorship
— Restraint on content before it is published, which publishers allege the Act's consent requirements would amount to.
World Press Freedom Index
— Annual ranking of 180 countries by Reporters Without Borders on the state of press freedom.
15. West Bengal's C-section rate near 1 in 2 births: NFHS-6
NFHS-6 puts West Bengal's Caesarean rate at 44.5%, far above India's 27.2% and nearly double the 2015-16 level, driven largely by private facilities, raising questions about medical necessity and regulation.
NFHS-6 (2023-24): C-section share of births is 44.5% in West Bengal versus 27.2% nationally; NFHS-4 (2015-16) had 23.8%.
Kolkata and North 24 Parganas recorded 67.5%, about two in three births.
Private facilities in West Bengal: 87.7% of births are C-sections (70.9% in 2015-16), against a national private-sector rate of 54.1%.
Government facilities in West Bengal: 28.8% (18.8% in 2015-16), versus 16.9% nationally; in Kolkata public facilities rose from 32.4% to 59.1% between NFHS-5 and NFHS-6.
WHO's 2015 statement: population-level C-section rates above 10% are not linked to fewer maternal or newborn deaths; WHO sets no specific target rate.
Key terms
NFHS
— National Family Health Survey, a periodic household survey giving health and demographic indicators such as C-section prevalence by State and sector.
Caesarean section
— Surgical delivery of a baby through an abdominal incision, medically needed when vaginal birth is risky.
Prescription audit
— Periodic review of clinical decisions and records to check whether procedures such as C-sections were medically justified.
Institutional delivery
— Childbirth taking place in a health facility rather than at home.
16. Kufri Jamunia: Can a purple biofortified potato tackle hidden hunger?
ICAR-CPRI's purple-fleshed Kufri Jamunia has more vitamin C, iron, zinc and anthocyanins than ordinary potatoes and is being promoted against hidden hunger, but cost, consumption pattern, nutrient delivery and disease susceptibility leave…
Kufri Jamunia was developed by ICAR-Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) by crossing MS/8-1148 (high vitamin C) with CP4242 (purple skin and flesh) in 2015; the result is coded MSP/16-307.
Multi-location trials ran in 2021-23; a central sub-committee on horticultural crop varieties approved it in mid-2024 and the government notified it in November 2024.
Per PIB, 100 g flesh has about 42.75 mg vitamin C (regular 23.15), 3.22 mg iron (0.57), 2.28 mg zinc (0.28) and 42.05 mg anthocyanins.
The purple colour comes from anthocyanins, also found in jamun and blueberries; the crop matures in about 90 days and gives 10-12 tubers per plant.
Hidden hunger means adequate calorie intake but deficient micronutrients.
17. Project GIB to continue Great Indian Bustard releases despite one death
Officials say captive-bred Great Indian Bustard releases in Desert National Park will go on after one of four released birds died near a fox den, and they deny any plan to destroy fox dens.
Union Environment Minister released two six-month-old male captive-bred GIBs at Sam, Jaisalmer, on 4 October; two more were released later, and one of the four was found dead on 17 October near a desert fox den.
Captive breeding began in 2018; Sam and Ramdevra facilities now hold 97 birds (40 from wild-laid eggs, 57 captive-bred), of which 86 are kept for breeding.
First phase will release up to 10 six-month-old birds; the longer-term plan is up to 30 birds a year, with the wild population at about 130.
Saudi Arabia's Houbara bustard project (started 1986) released 1,117 birds between 1991 and 2016 and eventually built a self-sustaining population of 300-400.
About 200 sq km of fenced grassland enclosures exist in Desert National Park; prime nesting areas cover roughly 20 sq km.
Key terms
Critically endangered
— The IUCN Red List category for species facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild, as the GIB does.
Captive breeding and rewilding
— Breeding a species in controlled facilities and then releasing the offspring into natural habitat to rebuild wild populations.
Houbara bustard
— The Great Indian Bustard's evolutionary cousin, whose Saudi Arabian captive-breeding and release project is used as a model.
Predator management
— Measures such as selective translocation of predators or keeping them away from nesting areas to improve survival of a threatened species.
Habitat restoration
— Rehabilitating grasslands and other habitat so a species can feed, nest and survive in the wild.
18. New nanobody-based antivenom could treat diverse Indian cobra bites
IISc Bengaluru and DTU Denmark built a recombinant antibody cocktail that protected mice from venoms of several Indian cobras and king cobras, hinting at a broader alternative to century-old antivenom methods.
19. China's Fifth Plenum: Party discipline takes centre stage
The CPC's four-day Fifth Plenum of the 20th Central Committee in Beijing is expected to focus on rigorous Party self-governance rather than economic planning, with a Party Congress about a year away.
The Fifth Plenum of the CPC's 20th Central Committee is a four-day closed-door meeting in Beijing, starting October 26.
The Central Committee has about 200 members and 175 alternate members; it elects the Politburo (about 24) and its seven-member Standing Committee, headed by General Secretary Xi Jinping.
Past plenums: Third Plenum of 1978 began Deng Xiaoping's reform era; the 2015 Fifth Plenum announced the universal two-child policy; the 2021 Sixth Plenum adopted the third historical resolution.
The Fourth Plenum (October 2025) already adopted recommendations for the 15th Five-Year Plan (2026–2030), breaking the usual sequence.
The agenda includes a draft decision on 'comprehensive and rigorous Party self-governance', enforced through the Central Commission for Discipline Inspection (CCDI).
Key terms
Plenum
— Plenary session of the CPC Central Committee held between Party Congresses to decide on major policy, organisational and discipline issues.
Politburo Standing Committee
— Seven-member apex body of China's political leadership, elected by the Central Committee.
Central Commission for Discipline Inspection (CCDI)
— The Party's anti-corruption and discipline watchdog.
Party self-revolution
— Xi's doctrine that the CPC must continuously correct its own weaknesses to preserve its governing authority.
Selective decentralisation
— Giving local officials room to act on local conditions while retaining strong central political control.
20. Fertiliser sales dip as El Nino weakens farm demand
Fertiliser sales fell in April-September 2026 because a deficient monsoon cut farm demand, and a sulphur shortage hit complex fertilisers. Urea sales fell even though imports and production rose.
April-September 2026 vs 2025: complex NPKS fertiliser sales down 22.2%, MOP 11.7%, DAP 0.6%, SSP 1.4%.
Urea sales fell 4.1% year-on-year, the first dip since 2021-22, even though production rose 4.3% and imports 40.5% (FAI data). Record urea sales in 2025-26 were 39.6 million tonnes.
Southwest monsoon rainfall (June-September) was 12.6% below the long-period average, and October had a 51.8% deficit so far.
Urea MRP is Rs 266.50 per 45-kg bag and DAP MRP is Rs 1,350 per 50-kg bag. Complex fertilisers sell at about Rs 2,100-2,400 per bag.
Sulphur import prices are $1,000-1,100 per tonne against $300-400 a year ago, and production of complexes fell 35.5% and SSP 10.4%.
Key terms
El Nino
— Warming of the central-eastern Pacific that typically weakens the Indian monsoon and brings dry conditions.
NPKS complex fertilisers
— Fertilisers combining nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and sulphur in different ratios.
MRP (maximum retail price)
— Government-controlled ceiling price for subsidised fertilisers such as urea and DAP.
DAP (di-ammonium phosphate)
— Widely used phosphatic fertiliser supplying phosphorus and nitrogen.
Kharif and rabi seasons
— Kharif is the monsoon-season crop cycle, and rabi is the winter-spring crop cycle.
Statement-I: Experts who fortify foods in India usually focus on items like rice and iodised salt rather than on a crop such as potato.
Statement-II: Rice and iodised salt are consumed by a large number of people in India, often throughout the year, so the added nutrients reach a significant part of the population.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
Fortification experts focus on rice and iodised salt because these are consumed widely and consistently across the year.
This broad, regular consumption ensures the added nutrients reach a large share of the population, which explains the focus.
Potato is consumed far less consistently in India, so it is a weaker vehicle.
b Statement-II gives exactly the reason for the focus in Statement-I, so it does explain it.
c Statement-II is correct: both items are widely and regularly consumed.
d Statement-I is correct: fortification generally targets rice and iodised salt.
With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) approvals of October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The DAC, chaired by the Raksha Mantri, accorded Acceptance of Necessity (AoN), which is an in-principle administrative approval for capital acquisition proposals.
2. The Light Multi Role Helicopters approved are meant exclusively for the Indian Army for reconnaissance and surveillance tasks.
3. The Active Offboard Decoy System approved for the Indian Navy is intended to enhance the credibility of anti-missile defence against modern anti-ship missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
AoN is an in-principle administrative approval given by the DAC under the Raksha Mantri, so statement 1 is correct.
The LMRH will be used by both the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force, for roles including combat, search and rescue and HADR, so statement 2 is wrong.
The AODS is meant to strengthen anti-missile defence against modern anti-ship missiles, so statement 3 is correct.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the LMRH is not exclusive to the Army and serves the Air Force too.
d It wrongly includes statement 2 and drops the correct statement 1.
With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), consider the following statements:
1. The CEC can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds applicable to the removal of a Supreme Court judge.
2. In case of a difference of opinion among members of the multi-member Commission, decisions are taken by the rule of majority under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
3. In case of a difference of opinion, the CEC has a casting vote that prevails over the view of both the Election Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The ECI's affidavit stated that the CEC cannot be removed except in the manner and on grounds identical to those for a Supreme Court judge.
Section 18 of the 2023 Act provides that the Commission follows the rule of majority when there is a difference of opinion.
Statement 3 is wrong: the majority rule means the CEC has no overriding vote against both Election Commissioners.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, as the majority rule applies rather than a CEC veto.
d Statement 1 is correct, so excluding it is wrong; statement 3 is incorrect because decisions follow the majority.
With reference to Special Leave Petitions (SLPs) in the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has discretion to decide whether to hear an SLP against a lower court's judgment.
2. During the Constituent Assembly debates, the power was justified as a substitute for the monarch's prerogative of justice.
3. A Constitution Bench that examined the matter after 2010 restricted the Court's power by laying down binding guidelines on when an SLP may be entertained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
SLPs are cases the Court may choose to hear; a petitioner may appeal, but the Court is not bound to admit it.
H.V. Pataskar in the Constituent Assembly framed the power as India's equivalent of the King as the 'fountainhead of all justice'.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Constitution Bench refused to restrict the Court's power, holding that doing so would work against the interests of justice.
a Statement 3 is false, so not all three are correct.
b It includes statement 3, which is false, and omits the correct statement 2.
d Statement 3 is false, since the Constitution Bench declined to restrict the power.
With reference to the amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 on flex fuel vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. The emission certification provisions now expressly include E100 alongside E85.
2. Owners of existing petrol vehicles compatible with E20 are required to modify their vehicles to run on E85.
3. Flex fuel vehicles are designed to operate on a range of ethanol-petrol blends using a single fuel tank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The amendments update emission certification provisions to expressly include E100 alongside E85, so statement 1 is correct.
Flex fuel vehicles run on a range of ethanol-petrol blends from a single tank, with engine controls adjusting to the fuel composition, so statement 3 is correct.
The notification does not require owners of existing vehicles to switch to E85 or modify their vehicles. Compatibility with E10 or E20 alone does not establish suitability for E85. Statement 2 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is wrong because no existing owner is required to switch or modify the vehicle.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the notification imposes no obligation on owners of existing vehicles.
d Omits statement 3, which is correct: a single fuel tank serves a range of blends.
With reference to the 26th meeting of the Maharashtra State Board for Wildlife, consider the following statements:
1. The Board approved declaring the Kolamarka Conservation Reserve in Gadchiroli district, known for its wild buffaloes, as a wildlife sanctuary.
2. The Board approved declaring parts of Koka Wildlife Sanctuary and Jayakwadi Bird Wildlife Sanctuary as critical wildlife habitats.
3. The Board directed that proposals to declare human-wildlife conflict a natural disaster be notified immediately without further examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Kolamarka Conservation Reserve in Gadchiroli was approved for declaration as a wildlife sanctuary, and areas in Koka and Jayakwadi sanctuaries were approved as critical wildlife habitats.
The human-wildlife conflict proposal was only discussed; the Chief Minister directed that action follow an examination of the Disaster Management Act responsibilities of District Collectors, the compensation mechanism and the Forest Department's powers.
Statement 3 is therefore incorrect.
a Statement 3 is wrong, and it wrongly leaves out the critical wildlife habitat approvals in statement 2.
b Statement 3 is wrong, as no immediate notification was directed.
c Statement 3 is wrong, since the proposal was referred for examination rather than notified immediately.
With reference to the Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), consider the following statements:
1. It was created to provide financial assistance to developing countries, particularly small and vulnerable ones, affected by climate events.
2. It has a fixed resource mobilisation target, which donor countries are legally bound to meet.
3. Its first allocation was an out-of-turn emergency decision for Nepal, taken at an emergency board meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The FRLD is a financing instrument meant to help developing countries, especially small and vulnerable ones, hit by climate events (statement 1 is correct).
It has no target to mobilise funds; countries are encouraged to contribute as and when they can, so statement 2 is wrong.
Nepal's $20 million was an out-of-turn allocation decided at an emergency board meeting, and was the fund's first decision (statement 3 is correct).
a Statement 2 is wrong, since contributions are voluntary and there is no target.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct.
d Includes statement 2, which is wrong because the FRLD has no mobilisation target.
With reference to the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum 2026 held in New Delhi, consider the following statements:
1. Its theme was 'Strengthening Parliaments for People-Centric Development'.
2. Deliberations were organised around four pillars: resilience, innovation, cooperation and sustainability.
3. It was inaugurated by the Prime Minister at the Samvidhan Sadan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The theme was 'Strengthening Parliaments for People-Centric Development', and the four pillars were resilience, innovation, cooperation and sustainability, so statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Forum was inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, not the Prime Minister, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Prime Minister chaired the separate BRICS Summit of Heads of State and Government.
a Statement 3 is wrong because the Speaker inaugurated the Forum, and statement 1 is correct but left out.
b Statement 3 is wrong because the Speaker, not the Prime Minister, inaugurated the Forum.
d Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the Suspension of Operations (SoO) agreement with Kuki-Zo insurgent groups in Manipur, consider the following statements:
1. It was first signed in 2008 by the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Manipur government with groups under the umbrella of the UPF and the KNO.
2. The agreement signed afresh in 2025 provides that the KNO and UPF shall have six camps each, instead of the 14 total camps presently.
3. The 2025 agreement requires that the camps be located close to the Myanmar border and inter-State boundaries to facilitate monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The SoO pact was signed in 2008 by the MHA and the Manipur government with the UPF and KNO groups; it was signed afresh on 4 September 2025.
The new terms cap camps at six each for the KNO and UPF, against 14 at present.
Statement 3 is altered: camps must be at a reasonable distance from the Myanmar border and inter-State boundaries, as well as away from populated areas and highways.
a Statement 3 reverses the condition; camps must be at a reasonable distance from the border.
b Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
c Statement 1 is correct, and statement 3 is wrong because camps must be kept away from the border.
With reference to agri-photovoltaics (agrivoltaics) proposed under the second phase of PM-KUSUM, consider the following statements:
1. It involves installing solar panels on elevated structures over agricultural land so that cultivation continues underneath.
2. The photovoltaic technology used differs fundamentally from that in conventional ground-mounted solar projects.
3. Initial government assessment studies have found it suitable for fruits and leafy vegetables but not for crops such as rice and sugarcane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Agri-PV places panels on elevated structures over farmland, letting farming continue beneath while generating power.
The photovoltaic technology is the same as in conventional ground-mounted projects; the difference lies in the extra civil and structural infrastructure to elevate panels.
Initial assessments found it suitable for fruits and leafy vegetables, but not for rice and sugarcane.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, since the PV technology is the same as in conventional projects.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
c Statement 3 is also correct, so 1 only is incomplete.
With reference to Component II of RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) under the Export Promotion Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It encourages exporters to obtain Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India cover for upcoming shipments to specified regions.
2. The premium payable by eligible exporters is protected against increases beyond pre-disruption levels during the eligible period.
3. Energy shipments are the principal cargo category covered under it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Component II encourages exporters to take ECGC cover for upcoming shipments to specified regions, with 95 per cent risk coverage.
The premium is protected against increases beyond pre-disruption levels during the eligible period.
Covered cargo includes FCL, LCL and reefer containers, and energy shipments are excluded, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
b Includes statement 3, which is incorrect.
d Statement 3 is incorrect because energy shipments are excluded.
With reference to the challenge by news publishers to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 in the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. The petitioners argue that the Act contains no written exemption for journalists, unlike laws in the European Union, Singapore and Britain.
2. The petitioners' concern about consent is that a journalist may have to notify and seek consent from the subject of an investigation.
3. The petitioners' main objection is that the Act empowers the Election Commission of India to block access to news content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The Digital News Publishers Association says the lack of a written carve-out for journalists, as exists in the EU, Singapore and Britain, is alarming.
It also argues that requiring a journalist to seek the consent of an investigation's subject could let the subject destroy evidence and intimidate witnesses.
The blocking power under the law is granted to the Union government, not to the Election Commission, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is incorrect because the blocking power lies with the Union government, not the Election Commission.
b Statement 3 wrongly names the Election Commission and is incorrect.
c Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the new nanobody-based antivenom developed by IISc Bengaluru and the Technical University of Denmark, consider the following statements:
1. Antibodies were obtained from animals such as alpacas and llamas that had been exposed to snake venom.
2. Antibody fragments were displayed on bacteriophages and screened against venom to isolate those that neutralise toxins.
3. The antibody cocktail was tested in mice and protected them only against venom of the spectacled cobra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Antibodies were taken from alpacas and llamas exposed to venom, then displayed on bacteriophages and screened against venom to isolate binding fragments, so statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is wrong: the mice were challenged with venom of spectacled cobras, monocled cobras and two species of king cobras, not only the spectacled cobra.
a Statement 2 is also correct, since phage display was used to isolate neutralising fragments.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because protection covered several cobra and king cobra species, and statement 1 is correct.
d Statement 3 wrongly limits the test to the spectacled cobra.
With reference to the recommendations of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) on Application-based Linear Television Distribution (ALTD) Services, consider the following statements:
1. ALTD Service is recommended to be introduced as a distinct sub-category under 'Television Channel Distribution Services' within the broadcasting authorisation framework under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
2. The Application Provider is recommended as the primary entity responsible for obtaining authorisation for providing the service.
3. Broadcaster-owned platforms distributing only their own channels are brought within the scope of ALTD Service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
ALTD is proposed as a distinct sub-category under Television Channel Distribution Services in the broadcasting authorisation framework under Section 3(1)(a) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, so statement 1 is correct.
The Application Provider is the primary entity responsible for authorisation and compliance, so statement 2 is correct.
Broadcaster-owned platforms distributing only their own (or subsidiary/holding company) channels are excluded from the scope, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong because such broadcaster-owned platforms are excluded; this option also leaves out statement 1.
b Omits statement 2, which is correct: the Application Provider is the primary responsible entity.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since broadcaster-owned platforms distributing only their own channels are excluded.
With reference to the regulation of medical education by the National Medical Commission (NMC), consider the following statements:
1. The Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) can fine errant medical institutions under the 2023 Establishment of Medical Institutions, Assessment and Rating Regulations.
2. The NMC justified withdrawing the Maintenance of Standards of Medical Education Regulations (MSMER), 2023 by saying that it created a parallel mechanism for evaluating institutions through undergraduate and postgraduate boards.
3. After the withdrawal of MSMER, the MARB and the NMC can penalise individual faculty members at all medical colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
MARB retains the power to fine institutions (up to ₹1 crore) under the 2023 Assessment and Rating Regulations, so statement 1 is correct.
The NMC said MSMER introduced a parallel evaluation mechanism through UG and PG boards, encroaching on MARB's role, so statement 2 is correct.
MARB and NMC can penalise only institutions. Individual faculty can be fined only at postgraduate colleges, under the PG Medical Education Regulations, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three hold.
b Statement 3 is wrong, since MARB and NMC can penalise only institutions.
d Statement 3 is wrong, and statement 2 is correct, so this pairing fails.
With reference to the structure of the Communist Party of China (CPC) and its plenums, consider the following statements:
1. The Central Committee, elected by the National Congress, in turn elects the Politburo and its Standing Committee.
2. Plenums are convened between National Congresses to deliberate on political, organisational and policy questions.
3. The State Council is the national legislature of China, while the National People's Congress performs administrative functions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The National Congress elects the Central Committee, which elects the Politburo and its Standing Committee; plenums are held between Congresses to deliberate on major questions.
Statement 3 reverses the roles: the State Council is the administrative body (like a Union Cabinet) and the National People's Congress is the legislature.
b Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
d Statement 3 is wrong because it swaps the functions of the State Council and the National People's Congress.
With reference to SWAVLAMBAN and the call for 'Aatmanirbharta 2.0' in the defence sector, consider the following statements:
1. SWAVLAMBAN is the Indian Navy's Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Seminar.
2. Aatmanirbharta 2.0 emphasises top-end technologies, stronger R&D and resilient supply chains to reduce import dependence.
3. A 'Dual Technology Roadmap' has been proposed to identify technologies serving only military requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
SWAVLAMBAN is the Indian Navy's Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Seminar, and Aatmanirbharta 2.0 stresses advanced technologies, R&D and resilient supply chains.
The Dual Technology Roadmap is meant for technologies serving both civilian and military needs, not military alone, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 2 is correct, so excluding it is wrong, and statement 3 is false.
b Statement 3 is false, so all three cannot be correct.
c Statement 3 is altered: the roadmap covers both civilian and military requirements.
With reference to the findings of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-6, 2023-24) on Caesarean sections in West Bengal, consider the following statements:
1. West Bengal's Caesarean rate is nearly double its NFHS-4 level and well above the national average.
2. The share of births by C-section is higher in private facilities than in government facilities in the State.
3. The WHO has recommended a specific ideal Caesarean rate of 10% for every country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
NFHS-6 puts West Bengal at 44.5%, against 23.8% in NFHS-4 and 27.2% for India, so statement 1 is correct.
In West Bengal, 87.7% of births in private facilities are Caesareans, against 28.8% in government facilities, so statement 2 is correct.
The WHO does not recommend a specific rate. It said only that rates above 10% across a population are not associated with fewer maternal or newborn deaths, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong because the WHO gives no specific recommended rate.
b Statement 3 is wrong, and statement 2 is correct but is left out.
c Statement 3 is wrong because the WHO recommends no specific rate, and statement 1 is correct and is left out.
With reference to the conservation of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) in India, consider the following statements:
1. Project GIB releases six-month-old captive-bred sub-adults into the wild, since at that age they have gained flight capability yet remain young enough to adapt.
2. The captive breeding programme for the GIB in India was modelled on an earlier Saudi Arabian project for the Houbara bustard.
3. Project GIB's strategy relies on the complete removal of desert foxes from the release area in the Desert National Park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the six-month cut-off is ideal because birds reach 70-75% of adult size and can fly, yet remain adaptable.
Statement 2 is correct: Saudi Arabia ran a similar captive-breeding and release project for the Houbara bustard, the GIB's evolutionary cousin, from 1986, before India began in 2018.
Statement 3 is wrong: officials ruled out destroying fox dens or mass removal of desert foxes; predation losses are factored into rewilding.
b Statement 3 is wrong, and statement 2 is correct, so this pairing fails.
c Statement 3 is wrong, as officials rejected removal of desert foxes.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
With reference to the ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting (ADMM) and ADMM-Plus, consider the following statements:
1. The ADMM is the highest defence consultative and cooperative mechanism within ASEAN.
2. ADMM-Plus brings together the ASEAN member states and eight Dialogue Partners, including India, Japan and Australia.
3. ADMM-Plus Ministers have met annually since its inaugural meeting in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: the ADMM is ASEAN's highest defence consultative and cooperative mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct: ADMM-Plus links ASEAN members with eight Dialogue Partners, including India, Japan and Australia.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the inaugural meeting was in Hanoi in 2010, but annual meetings began only in 2017.
a Statement 3 is wrong, since annual meetings started in 2017, not 2010.
c Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
d Statement 3 is wrong, since annual meetings started in 2017, not 2010.
With reference to the fertiliser situation in India during April-September 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Among the fertilisers mentioned, the sharpest fall in sales over the same period of the previous year was for complex NPKS fertilisers.
2. Urea production and imports both rose over the previous year, yet urea sales fell.
3. Sulphur, whose scarcity has hurt the making of complex fertilisers and SSP, is a byproduct of oil refining and natural gas processing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Complex fertiliser sales fell 22.2%, the sharpest, followed by MOP at 11.7%.
Urea production (+4.3%) and imports (+40.5%) rose, but sales fell 4.1% because of weak demand in the El Nino-hit season.
Sulphur is a byproduct of oil refining and gas processing; its scarcity and high import prices cut production of P-containing complexes and SSP.
So all three statements are correct.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct: urea output and imports rose while sales fell.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct: sulphur is a byproduct of refining and gas processing.
c Omits statement 1, which is correct: complex fertilisers saw the steepest sales fall at 22.2%.
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