What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
The Financial Stability and Development Council, chaired by the Finance Minister, reviewed macro-financial risks, noted a financial-sector cyber security strategy, and pushed for fintech innovation and faster refund of unclaimed assets.
30th FSDC meeting chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in New Delhi; RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra and heads of SEBI, IRDAI, IFSCA, PFRDA and IBBI attended
Council took note of the Financial Sector Cyber Security Strategy (FSCSS), prepared by an Inter-Ministerial Group of regulators and cyber agencies with DEA, DFS and MeitY
Discussed tokenisation of financial and real-world assets, fintech innovation, and cyber preparedness of Regional Rural Banks
Agenda included simplified digital KYC for NRIs and FPIs, scaling DPIs such as Account Aggregator and Unified Lending Interface (ULI) for MSMEs, and rationalising Credit Guarantee Schemes
Minister urged quicker refund of unclaimed assets and noted the 'Your Money, Your Right' district-level campaign; she also asked for FSDC meetings on a predefined, more frequent schedule
Key terms
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
— Apex inter-regulatory body chaired by the Finance Minister to maintain financial stability and promote financial sector development.
Tokenisation
— Converting rights in financial or real-world assets into digital tokens that can be recorded and traded on a digital ledger.
Account Aggregator
— A framework that lets users share their financial data securely and with consent across regulated institutions.
Unified Lending Interface (ULI)
— A digital public infrastructure framework to streamline and speed up lending, with focus here on MSMEs.
Critical Information Infrastructure
— Digital systems whose disruption would seriously affect national security, the economy or public safety.
2. MLC elections: why only some states have Legislative Councils
Polls for 28 Legislative Council seats in UP, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka prompt an explainer on how Councils are created, composed and elected, and why they remain politically contested.
Six states have Legislative Councils: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Article 169: Parliament can create or abolish a Council if the Assembly passes a resolution by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Article 171: Council strength is at most one-third of the Assembly's strength and not less than 40.
Elections use proportional representation by single transferable vote; members serve six years, one-third retire every two years, and the House is not subject to dissolution.
Minimum age is 30 for a Council member, against 25 for the Assembly; the Governor nominates members with special knowledge in literature, science, social service and similar fields.
Key terms
Bicameral legislature
— A legislature with two houses; in states, a Legislative Assembly plus a Legislative Council.
Single transferable vote
— Voting system in which electors rank candidates in order of preference, used for Council elections under proportional representation.
Article 169
— Provision allowing Parliament to create or abolish a state Legislative Council on the Assembly's resolution.
Money Bill
— A financial Bill on which the Council can only make recommendations, which the Assembly may reject.
3. Making India's Rs 20,000 crore CCUS Budget allocation count
With UNEP's Emissions Gap Report saying a breach of the 1.5°C limit is unavoidable, experts propose a phased plan to spend the Budget 2026 CCUS outlay on research, pilots, PPP infrastructure and storage mapping.
UNEP Emissions Gap Report: temperatures likely to reach at least 1.8°C above pre-industrial levels, then must be pulled back to 1.5°C later this century.
Union Budget 2026 earmarks Rs 20,000 crore over five years for CCUS technologies.
Proposed Phase 1: about Rs 4,000 crore (20%) for translational research, breakthrough projects and pilot validation; Phase 2: about Rs 9,000 crore for PPPs.
DST aims to cut capture costs from the current Rs 10,000–20,000 range to under Rs 2,000 per tonne of CO2.
Storage sites suggested for geotechnical study: Cauvery basin, Cambay region, Mahanadi valley, plus Deccan Traps basalt for mineralisation.
Key terms
CCUS
— Carbon capture, utilisation and storage: capturing industrial CO2 and storing it underground or reusing it.
Hard-to-abate industries
— Sectors like steel and cement where emissions are difficult to cut even with cleaner energy.
End-of-Pipe (EOP) technologies
— Methods that separate pollutants right after they are produced, without changing the whole production process.
FEED studies
— Front-end engineering design studies that test the technical and commercial feasibility of scaled-up projects.
Direct Air Capture (DAC)
— Technology that removes CO2 directly from ambient air, ideally powered by clean energy.
4. Third Regional Review Conference on Forest Rights Act Held in Srinagar
The Tribal Affairs Ministry concluded its regional review series on the Forest Rights Act in Srinagar, flagging about 10.45 lakh pending claims and 18.13 lakh rejections and urging States to speed up claim disposal and recognise community…
As of 31 Aug 2026: about 54 lakh FRA claims received, 43.56 lakh (80.64%) disposed of, 25.42 lakh titles distributed over nearly 238 lakh acres, 10.45 lakh pending and 18.13 lakh rejected.
Habitat Rights have been recognised for only 11 of the 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
The Srinagar meet was the third and last in the series, after Bengaluru (10 Sep 2026) and Kolkata (9 Oct 2026); it covered Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, UP, Goa, Rajasthan and J&K.
Funding: ₹25 lakh per State for FRA mapping under the Support to Tribal Research Institutes scheme; ₹15 lakh per Community Forest Resource Management Plan under DA-JGUA, plus ₹1 lakh for technical support.
J&K has DLCs in all 20 districts and an SLMC under the Chief Secretary; a 30 July 2026 circular bars eviction of eligible ST/OTFD families before due process is completed.
Key terms
Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights
— Rights of a community to protect, manage and use the traditional forest area of its village, vested in the Gram Sabha.
Habitat Rights
— Rights over customary habitat, recognised under FRA for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
— The most vulnerable tribal communities; 75 are identified nationally.
State Level Monitoring Committee (SLMC)
— State body that monitors FRA implementation; in J&K it is chaired by the Chief Secretary.
District Level Committee (DLC)
— District body that finally approves FRA claims forwarded from lower committees.
5. CAQM Chairperson reviews paddy stubble management in Punjab districts
CAQM's top team inspected power, CBG and biomass plants, a KVK and farms in Ropar, Hoshiarpur and Amritsar to check readiness for curbing stubble burning in the paddy harvest season.
Team led by the Chairperson of the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) visited Ropar, Hoshiarpur and Amritsar in Punjab.
Sites covered: thermal power plants, compressed biogas (CBG) plants, a Krishi Vigyan Kendra, farm fields and a biomass plant.
Review covered both in-situ (on-field) and ex-situ (off-field) paddy straw management.
State authorities were directed to meet co-firing targets in thermal power plants while complying with emission norms.
Commission stressed timely availability of CRM (crop residue management) machinery for farmers in the peak harvest period.
Key terms
CAQM
— Statutory commission for air quality management in the National Capital Region and adjoining areas, coordinating and enforcing anti-pollution measures.
In-situ management
— Handling crop residue on the field itself, such as mixing it into the soil.
Ex-situ management
— Collecting and using crop residue away from the field, e.g. as fuel in power or biomass plants.
Co-firing
— Burning biomass alongside coal in thermal power plants to cut fossil fuel use and absorb crop residue.
CRM machinery
— Equipment used for crop residue management, helping farmers deal with straw without burning.
6. MEA admits PLA patrolling behaviour disturbs LAC; ITBP video removed
MEA said the India-China border gets 'disturbed' when Chinese forces depart from established patrolling patterns, after a report on face-offs in Arunachal; Congress accused the government of suppressing information.
MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal blamed PLA deviations from established patrolling patterns for disturbing the LAC and referred specific queries to the Defence Ministry.
The outgoing ITBP Director General, Shatrujeet Kapur, had spoken of face-offs at several places along the Arunachal border since July 2026; his video, from an Alwar event, was removed from ITBP's YouTube channel.
This is described as the first official acceptance that the border stays tense more than two years after the Modi-Xi détente between the militaries.
India and China agreed to discuss ways to improve their understanding of the LAC in appropriate areas for better border management.
Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge and Pawan Khera questioned the government's handling, trade deficit with China and easing of curbs on Chinese investment.
Key terms
Line of Actual Control (LAC)
— The de facto boundary between Indian- and Chinese-controlled territory, not demarcated on maps or ground and perceived differently by the two sides.
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
— Central armed police force guarding the India-China border, led by a Director General.
Patrolling patterns
— Established routes and frequency by which each side's troops patrol up to what they perceive as the LAC.
Face-off
— A direct standoff between rival patrols or troops at a disputed spot, short of an armed clash.
7. PLFS to be redesigned to count gig workers and unpaid household work
MoSPI's NSSO will change the Periodic Labour Force Survey from January 2027 to track digital platform workers, unpaid care and household work, and labour underutilisation, giving a fuller picture of India's workforce.
8. Core industries hit series-high 7.9% growth, but sustainability doubtful
The Index of Core Industries grew 7.9% in September 2026, but the editorial argues the rise rests on temporary coal and power demand and exposes India to costly oil imports and a shrinking fiscal space.
9. Why India Needs a Sentencing Council to Guide Punishment
Indian judges have near-total discretion in sentencing, producing unequal outcomes for similar crimes; the authors argue for a statutory Sentencing Council on the England and Wales model, as the Law Commission examines the issue.
Statutes fix maximum (sometimes minimum) punishments, but no guidelines say what counts as aggravating or mitigating factors; the choice rests on the individual judge or Bench.
In Sunita Devi vs State of Bihar (2024), the Supreme Court said sentencing should not be a 'mere lottery' and asked the Centre to examine a national sentencing policy, possibly through a Sentencing Commission.
The Centre has referred the matter to the Law Commission of India; the Commission first flagged the concern in its 47th Report over 50 years ago.
England and Wales set up a Sentencing Council under the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, backed by a consolidated Sentencing Code.
Section 258(2) of the BNSS requires a Sessions Judge to hear the convict separately on sentence after conviction.
Key terms
Sentencing Council
— A statutory body that issues guidelines to structure judges' sentencing decisions, as in England and Wales.
Aggravating and mitigating factors
— Circumstances that increase or reduce the severity of the punishment deserved.
Culpability and harm
— Two axes for judging an offence: how blameworthy the offender was and the injury or risk caused.
Probation of Offenders Act 1958
— Law requiring courts to consider releasing eligible offenders on probation instead of imprisonment.
Sentencing hearing (BNSS Section 258(2))
— A separate hearing on punishment held after conviction, to gather material on mitigating and aggravating circumstances.
10. India-Russia naval exercise INDRA 2026 concludes at Vladivostok
INS Sahyadri left Vladivostok on 20 Oct 2026 after the bilateral naval exercise INDRA 2026 with the Russian Navy, which stressed interoperability and maritime security cooperation.
11. India begins development phase of inland small-scale fisheries action plan
The Department of Fisheries has launched the development phase of a National Plan of Action for inland small-scale fisheries under the FAO framework, aiming to tie rising fish output to better livelihoods and freshwater management.
Current fish production is 19.7 million tonnes a year, with inland fisheries giving about three-fourths; seafood exports have crossed Rs 70,000 crore.
Targets: 30 million tonnes of fish production in five years and seafood exports of Rs 1.25 lakh crore; public launch of the plan is expected next month.
Key terms
National Plan of Action (NPOA)
— A national policy document, developed within an FAO framework, that sets priorities and actions for sustainable small-scale fisheries.
BOBP-IGO
— Bay of Bengal Programme Inter-Governmental Organisation, the body collaborating with the Department of Fisheries on the plan.
Inland small-scale fisheries
— Fishing by small operators in freshwater systems such as rivers, reservoirs, lakes, wetlands and tanks.
Value chain
— The full sequence from catch or culture through processing and trade to the market, where income gains for fishers can be made.
12. Army to train Civil Defence Master Trainers in 12 States/UTs
MHA's DGFSCDHG and the Indian Army are piloting a three-day training for 600 Civil Defence Master Trainers, who will in turn train 60,000 volunteers, to build a modern Civil Defence network.
Pilot by the Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards (MHA) with the Indian Army, following the PM's Red Fort announcement of 15 August 2026.
600 Master Trainers (50 per State/UT) to get three-day training at Army establishments by the second week of November 2026.
Twelve participating States/UTs: J&K, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Delhi, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Each Master Trainer will train 100 volunteers, reaching about 60,000 Civil Defence Volunteers.
Syllabus covers threat awareness (hybrid warfare, drones, air raids), protection and emergency response (CBRN, search and rescue), and communication and coordination.
Key terms
Civil Defence
— Organised civilian preparedness and volunteer effort to protect people and property during war, attack or emergencies.
Master Trainer model
— A cascading approach in which a few specially trained people train many others.
Hybrid warfare
— Combining conventional military force with irregular, cyber and information tactics.
CBRN
— Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear threats, which call for specialised emergency response.
Civil-military coordination
— Joint working between armed forces and civil authorities during emergencies.
13. DDWS holds national Training of Trainers under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0
The Jal Shakti Ministry's drinking water department trained state-level trainers using a story-based 8-module package, aiming to make villages own, run and fund their water systems after the pipes are laid.
Organised by the Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti, at India Habitat Centre, New Delhi, for State-Level Trainers under JJM 2.0.
New capacity-building package has 8 modules, titled 'The Story of Panipur', a story-based self-learning handbook, plus a Trainer's Facilitation Manual.
Targets Gram Panchayat representatives, Village Water and Sanitation Committees (VWSCs), Sujalam Shakti Groups and other grassroots bodies.
Nearly 54 lakh stakeholders are proposed to be covered under the broader training programme.
Convergence urged with GPDPs, Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA), 16th Finance Commission tied grants and VB-G RAM G; digital tools mentioned include Sujalam Bharat and layered dashboards.
Key terms
Training of Trainers (ToT)
— A cascade model in which state-level trainers are trained first so they can train large numbers of local stakeholders.
Village Water and Sanitation Committee (VWSC)
— A Gram Panchayat sub-committee that plans, manages and maintains village water supply.
Sujalam Shakti Groups
— Grassroots groups involved in managing rural drinking water services, offering a role for women's leadership.
Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP)
— The local planning document through which Panchayats integrate priorities and resources, including water.
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)
— A scheme for strengthening Panchayati Raj institutions, cited here as a convergence channel.
14. Draft CMVR changes: tougher learner's test, more medical disclosure
The Road Transport Ministry's draft amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 raise the learner's test pass mark to 75% and shift more licence services online, some of them free.
Draft amends the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989; published on the e-Gazette, with 30 days for public feedback.
Pass mark for the preliminary learner's test rises from 60% to 75%.
Time to complete the learner's licence process extends from 7 to 15 days; a safe-driving tutorial of at least 30 minutes becomes compulsory.
New Form 2A would combine renewal, duplicate licence, name/address change, personal detail updates and addition of vehicle categories; no fee for changing name, address or other recorded details.
Applicants with epilepsy or a seizure in the past three years, or currently on (or tapering) anti-epileptic medication, would be ineligible.
Key terms
Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989
— Subordinate rules under the Motor Vehicles Act that govern licensing, registration and vehicle standards across India.
Learner's licence
— A preliminary, time-bound permit to drive under supervision, obtained after a basic test, before applying for the permanent licence.
Form 2A
— Proposed single application form covering renewal, duplicates, detail changes and addition of vehicle categories.
Aadhaar authentication
— Identity verification using Aadhaar, used here to enable online and fee-free licence services.
15. Jaishankar in Baku: India and Azerbaijan attempt reset of ties
EAM S. Jaishankar met Azerbaijan's President Aliyev and Foreign Minister Bayramov in Baku, the first bilateral EAM visit in eight years, to repair ties strained by Azerbaijan's criticism of Operation Sindoor.
Jaishankar met President Ilham Aliyev and FM Jeyhun Bayramov in Baku on 23 October 2026.
This is the first bilateral visit by an Indian External Affairs Minister to Azerbaijan in eight years; Sushma Swaraj had gone in April 2018 for a NAM Ministerial meeting.
Ties had worsened after Azerbaijan condemned India's May 2025 Operation Sindoor strikes on Pakistan-based terror targets.
Both sides agreed to deepen political consultations, exchange visits, boost economic activity, build connectivity and strengthen people-to-people ties.
India welcomed the initialling of the Armenia-Azerbaijan peace agreement and said disputes must be settled through dialogue and diplomacy.
Key terms
Operation Sindoor
— India's May 2025 military strikes on terror targets in Pakistan, which Azerbaijan condemned.
OIC Contact Group on Kashmir
— A body of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation that discusses the Kashmir issue, generally in line with Pakistan's position.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
— A grouping of states that avoid formal alignment with major power blocs; it provided the meeting ground for India and Azerbaijan.
Armenia-Azerbaijan peace agreement
— A deal initialled by the two leaders in August 2026 to end their long-running conflict; India has welcomed it.
16. Ladakh–MHA Talks Stall Over 32-Page Draft Proposal
The MHA sub-committee's scheduled 22 October 2026 talks with Ladakh's Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance did not take place, as civil society groups split over the Centre's draft governance framework for the Union Territory.
Talks between an MHA sub-committee and Ladakh representatives were due on 22 October 2026 in New Delhi but did not happen.
The Centre gave the Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) a 32-page draft on 15 October in Leh, proposing a new governance structure.
Ladakh has been a Union Territory since 2019, carved out of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir; it has since demanded statehood and Sixth Schedule inclusion.
A new Leh-based group, the Civil Society Forum of Ladakh (CSFL), has emerged and says LAB and KDA no longer represent all districts.
The Ladakh Chief Secretary said a UT-level democratic body with Article 371-like safeguards is a complex constitutional exercise needing drafting and a parliamentary process.
Key terms
Sixth Schedule
— Constitutional provision allowing autonomous councils with legislative and administrative powers in certain tribal areas.
Article 371-like provisions
— Special constitutional safeguards, as given to some states, protecting local land, culture and administration.
Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance
— Amalgams of political, social, religious and trade groups from Leh and Kargil negotiating with the Centre for Ladakh.
Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC)
— Elected district-level hill council in Ladakh with limited local governance powers.
17. Tree translocation gives mature trees a second life
Groups like Hyderabad's Vata Foundation are moving mature trees to new sites instead of felling them, challenging the sapling-based compensatory plantation approach used in development projects.
Vata Foundation, founded in 2015 by Uday Krishna, identifies trees marked for felling, finds adopters and oversees translocation free of cost.
It reports over 17,500 trees rehomed through a network of about 8,000 people.
Monsoon is described as the season with the highest survival chances for translocated trees; the original orientation to the sun should be preserved.
In April 2025 the Supreme Court took suo motu cognisance of tree felling at Kancha Gachibowli, near the University of Hyderabad, after the Telangana High Court halted felling; about 100 acres had already been cleared.
Vata is partnering with the Indian Navy to translocate trees from Damagundam Reserve Forest, Vikarabad, cleared for a VLF radar station.
Key terms
Tree translocation
— Moving a mature tree with its root ball to a new site instead of felling it.
Compensatory plantation
— Planting saplings to offset trees removed for a development project.
Suo motu cognisance
— A court taking up a matter on its own initiative without a petition.
Chipko Movement
— 1973 Himalayan movement in which villagers hugged trees to stop their felling.
Public interest litigation
— A case brought in court to protect a public cause rather than a personal interest.
18. Europe's protest wave: the economics behind social unrest
Protests across France, Italy, Belgium, Portugal and Albania are largely about cost of living, yet IMF research shows inequality explains little of unrest, while past turmoil predicts it best and unrest later cuts GDP.
Protests in France began over school facilities and widened into a cost-of-living grievance; France and Italy face national elections in 2027.
World Inequality Report 2026 (data to 2024) measures the 'income gap' as the ratio of the top 10% income share to the bottom 50% share.
Between 2014 and 2024 the income gap rose in France and Italy but fell in the UK, Germany and Spain; India's gap is 38 and South Africa's 118.
IMF study of 340+ indicators using machine learning (Hlatshwayo and Redl) found past domestic and neighbouring-country turmoil about 10 times more informative than any economic or social factor.
IMF finds major unrest is followed by roughly a 1 percentage point fall in GDP after six quarters.
Key terms
Income gap (WIR)
— Ratio of the income share of the top 10% to that of the bottom 50%; a higher ratio means greater inequality.
World Inequality Report 2026
— Report providing the most established cross-country inequality data, here covering up to 2024.
Coordinating signal
— A cue, such as past protests nearby, that tells people others will also protest, similar to a bank run.
Cost of living crisis
— Squeeze on households as prices, especially of food and fuel, rise faster than incomes.
19. Uttarakhand's Two Capitals: Dehradun versus Gairsain Debate
A Gairsain Assembly session with the preparatory meeting held in Dehradun has revived the long dispute over Uttarakhand's permanent capital, which touches on hill-state aspirations and administrative convenience.
Uttarakhand was formed on November 9, 2000 from Uttar Pradesh, with Dehradun designated the temporary capital.
Gairsain, a tehsil in Chamoli district near the Garhwal-Kumaon divide, is called the summer capital; its 2011 Census population was 61,996.
The 1994 Ramashanker Kaushik committee, set up by the UP government, recommended Gairsain as the capital.
The Virender Dixit commission (formed 2001, report 2009) favoured Dehradun as the permanent capital.
Foundation of the Bhararisain Assembly complex was laid in January 2013 by CM Vijay Bahuguna; sessions at Gairsain began in 2014 under Harish Rawat.
Key terms
Business Advisory Committee (BAC)
— Assembly committee that schedules and allots time for legislative business of a session.
Summer/winter capital
— Arrangement where the legislature or government functions from different seats in different seasons; here Gairsain is the summer capital and Dehradun the winter one.
Uttarakhand Kranti Dal (UKD)
— Regional party that campaigned for a separate hill state and for Gairsain as its capital.
20. Second Vande Bharat Sleeper to link Bengaluru and Mumbai from November 1
Railways will launch India's second Vande Bharat Sleeper on the Bengaluru–Mumbai (CSMT) route on 1 November, cutting travel time to about 16 hours from 22-24+ hours.
Statement-I: The redesigned PLFS will introduce a separate Second Stage Stratum to identify households with at least one digital platform worker.
Statement-II: The revision in stratum formation is expected to improve coverage of digital platform workers and enable more comprehensive data collection on this emerging segment of the labour market.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (d)
A separate Second Stage Stratum is to be introduced to identify households with a digital platform worker.
The stated purpose of the revision in SSS formation is to improve coverage of platform workers and facilitate fuller data collection, so Statement-II explains the design change in Statement-I.
a Statement-II is correct as it reflects the expected benefit stated.
b Statement-I is correct, since the separate stratum is being introduced.
c Statement-II gives the very rationale for the stratum, so it does explain Statement-I.
Statement-I: The Sea Phase of INDRA 2026 helped enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the Russian Federation Navy.
Statement-II: The Sea Phase involved coordinated manoeuvring, integrated communications, helicopter operations and medical evacuation drills, allowing the participating units to practise coordinated procedures at sea.
Which one of the following is correct in the context of the above statements?
Answer: (d)
The Sea Phase enabled units to practise coordinated procedures at sea, enhance communication and strengthen interoperability.
The joint activities listed in Statement-II are precisely the means by which interoperability was built, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
a The activities in Statement-II directly produce the interoperability in Statement-I, so it does explain it.
b Statement-II is factually correct as per the exercise's description.
c Statement-I is correct; the exercise aimed at and enhanced interoperability.
With reference to India's National Plan of Action (NPOA) for small-scale inland fisheries, consider the following statements:
1. It is being developed under the framework of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
2. The initiative is led by the Union Department of Fisheries in collaboration with the Bay of Bengal Programme Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO).
3. The proposed plan covers only reservoirs and lakes, leaving out rivers and cold-water systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The NPOA is being developed under the FAO framework and led by the Department of Fisheries with BOBP-IGO.
The plan covers rivers, canals, reservoirs, lakes, floodplain wetlands, tanks and cold-water systems, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 3 is incorrect; the plan covers a wide range of water bodies.
c Statement 2 is also correct, so 1 alone is incomplete.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, so this combination fails.
Statement-I: The Civil Defence Master Trainer initiative is expected to extend specialised preparedness skills to a much larger number of Civil Defence Volunteers than the number of Master Trainers directly trained by the Army.
Statement-II: Under the structured Master Trainer model, each trained Master Trainer imparts further training to Civil Defence Volunteers in their respective State/UT, creating a cascading mechanism.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
The initiative trains Master Trainers, who in turn train Civil Defence Volunteers in their own State/UT.
This cascading multiplier effect is what extends skills to far more volunteers than the trainers the Army trains directly.
Hence both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
b The cascading mechanism in Statement-II is exactly the reason for the wider reach in Statement-I, so it does explain it.
c Statement-II accurately describes the Master Trainer model.
d Statement-I is correct, since the multiplier effect reaches many more volunteers than trainers.
Statement-I: Compensatory planting of saplings is not an adequate substitute for felling mature trees, which is why conservationists now ask first whether a mature tree can be translocated.
Statement-II: A sapling takes years to accumulate as much carbon as a mature tree holds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (a)
A sapling is not equal to a mature tree, as it takes years to build up the carbon a mature tree holds.
This gap is why compensatory planting is inadequate and why the focus has shifted to translocating mature trees.
So both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
b Statement-II directly supplies the reason for Statement-I, so it does explain it.
c Statement-II is correct, since saplings take years to match a mature tree's carbon.
d Statement-I is correct, as conservationists now first ask whether a mature tree can be moved.
With reference to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister chaired its 30th meeting, which reviewed the cyber resilience of the Indian financial sector.
2. The Financial Sector Cyber Security Strategy (FSCSS) was formulated by an Inter-Ministerial Group of financial sector regulators and cybersecurity agencies, in coordination with the DEA, DFS and MeitY.
3. The FSDC Sub-Committee is chaired by the Chairperson of SEBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The 30th FSDC meeting was chaired by the Union Finance Minister and reviewed the cyber resilience of the financial sector.
The FSCSS was formulated by an Inter-Ministerial Group of regulators and cybersecurity agencies, in coordination with DEA, DFS and MeitY.
The FSDC Sub-Committee is chaired by the Governor of the RBI, not the SEBI Chairperson, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Includes statement 3, which is wrong, and omits statement 1, which is correct.
b Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
c Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sub-Committee is chaired by the RBI Governor.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The MEA's remarks on patrolling behaviour along the LAC were seen as the first official acceptance by the government that the border areas remain tense despite the détente announced by the Prime Minister and the Chinese President.
Statement-II: The MEA directed queries about the specific situation in Arunachal Pradesh to the Ministry of Defence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
The report describes the MEA statement as the first official acceptance that the border areas remain tense after the détente (Statement-I correct).
Mr. Jaiswal directed queries on the specific situation to the Ministry of Defence (Statement-II correct).
Referring queries to the Defence Ministry is a procedural step and does not explain why the acceptance was significant.
a Statement-I is correct as the report called it the first official acceptance.
b Statement-II is factually correct as the MEA did refer queries to the Defence Ministry.
d Referral to the Defence Ministry does not explain the significance of the acknowledgement.
With reference to the Legislative Councils in the States of India, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution by a special majority.
2. Members of a Legislative Council are chosen for six-year terms, and the Council is not subject to dissolution.
3. The Legislative Council has the same powers as the Legislative Assembly in respect of a Money Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Article 169 allows Parliament to create or abolish a Council on the Assembly's resolution, passed by a majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Like the Rajya Sabha, the Council has six-year terms, is not dissolved, and one-third of members retire every two years.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Council cannot reject the Assembly's suggestions on a Money Bill, so it has fewer powers.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, since the Council is subordinate to the Assembly on Money Bills.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three are correct.
d Omits statement 2, which is correct: members have six-year terms and the Council cannot be dissolved.
With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM), consider the following statements:
1. Its Chairperson led a team to review in-situ and ex-situ paddy straw management measures in Punjab.
2. It directed State authorities to achieve co-firing targets in thermal power plants while ensuring compliance with emission norms.
3. It is administratively placed under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The CAQM Chairperson led the team to Ropar, Hoshiyarpur and Amritsar to review in-situ and ex-situ measures, so statement 1 is correct.
CAQM directed State authorities to meet co-firing targets in thermal plants with compliance with emission norms, so statement 2 is correct.
The release is issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the Agriculture Ministry, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong and statement 2 is correct, so this pairing fails.
c Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three hold.
d Statement 3 is wrong, as CAQM is linked to the Environment Ministry, not Agriculture.
Consider the following statements regarding the Emissions Gap Report and CCUS in India:
1. The Emissions Gap Report is an annual publication of the UN Environment Programme.
2. India's Union Budget 2026 earmarked Rs 20,000 crore for CCUS technologies over the next five years.
3. End-of-Pipe technologies require the entire production process to be modified before they can separate pollutants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
The Emissions Gap Report is an annual UNEP publication, so statement 1 is correct.
The Union Budget 2026 earmarked Rs 20,000 crore for CCUS over five years, so statement 2 is correct.
End-of-Pipe technologies separate pollutants right after they are created and do not need the production process to be changed, so statement 3 is wrong.
b Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is wrong, so this combination fails.
c Statement 2 is also correct, so 1 only is incomplete.
d Statement 3 is wrong, since EOP technologies do not require process modification.
With reference to the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements:
1. Every rejection of a claim must be supported by a reasoned order communicated to the claimant, with statutory appeal rights preserved.
2. Community Forest Resource Management Plans are encouraged to be converged with Forest Department Working Plans.
3. Recognition of Habitat Rights has been completed for most of the country's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statements 1 and 2 reflect the keynote: reasoned orders for rejections with appeal rights, and convergence of CFR Management Plans with Working Plans via a joint MoTA-MoEFCC communication.
Statement 3 is wrong: Habitat Rights are recognised for only 11 of the 75 PVTGs.
a Includes incorrect statement 3 and omits correct statement 1.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, as only 11 of 75 PVTGs have recognised habitat rights.
With reference to the Index of Core Industries in India, consider the following statements:
1. Its growth rose to a series-high in September 2026, the second consecutive month of accelerated performance.
2. In September 2026, growth in the coal sector was in line with its performance over the April-September 2026 period.
3. The rise in refinery output in September 2026 occurred even as the crude oil and natural gas sectors continued to contract.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: core index growth hit a series-high of 7.9% in September 2026, the second consecutive month of acceleration.
Statement 2 is wrong: coal growth jumped suddenly to 10.7% in September, while the sector contracted 1.1% over April-September.
Statement 3 is correct: refinery output rose 10.3% while crude oil and natural gas contracted continuously, implying greater processing of imported oil.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, as coal's September surge contrasted with its half-year contraction.
b Omits statement 3, which is also correct.
d Statement 2 is incorrect, and statement 1 is correct but left out.
With reference to sentencing in India, consider the following statements:
1. Statutes prescribe the maximum and sometimes the minimum sentence, while the choice of the actual sentence within that range is left largely to the discretion of the individual judge or Bench.
2. The Probation of Offenders Act 1958 and Sections 401 and 402 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita provide alternatives to custody.
3. Parliament enacted a comprehensive national sentencing framework following the Law Commission of India's 47th Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Statutes set the maximum and sometimes the minimum; the actual sentence is left almost entirely to judicial discretion, so statement 1 is correct.
The Probation of Offenders Act 1958 and Sections 401-402 of the BNSS already provide alternatives to custody, so statement 2 is correct.
The Law Commission raised the concern in its 47th Report over 50 years ago, yet Parliament has never designed a coherent framework, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is false because Parliament has never taken up the task of a coherent sentencing framework.
b Omits statement 2, which is correct: probation and BNSS provisions are statutory alternatives to custody.
c Statement 3 is false, since Parliament never framed a sentencing framework; it also wrongly leaves out statement 1.
With reference to the Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), consider the following statements:
1. It operates under the financial mechanism of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2. Governments agreed to create it at COP27, and its Governing Instrument was adopted at COP28.
3. Its start-up allocation reserves at least half of the amount for small island developing States and least developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The FRLD works under the UNFCCC financial mechanism, was agreed at COP27 (2022) and its Governing Instrument was adopted at COP28 (2023).
Its start-up allocation reserves at least half for small island developing States and least developed countries.
All three statements are therefore correct.
a Statement 3 is also correct, so this omits it.
c Statement 1 is also correct, so this omits it.
d Statements 2 and 3 are also correct, so 1 alone is incomplete.
With reference to the World Inequality Report 2026 and the 'income gap' discussed in the context of unrest in Europe, consider the following statements:
1. The income gap is the ratio between the income share of the top 10% and that of the bottom 50% of a population.
2. A higher value of the ratio indicates greater inequality.
3. Between 2014 and 2024 the income gap rose in France and Italy, but fell in the UK, Germany and Spain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The WIR 2026 defines the income gap as the ratio of the top 10% income share to the bottom 50% income share.
A higher ratio means greater inequality.
The gap increased in France and Italy between 2014 and 2024, while it fell in the UK, Germany and Spain. All three statements are correct.
a Statement 1 is also correct, as it gives the WIR definition.
b Statement 3 is also correct, as the trends for France, Italy, the UK, Germany and Spain match the data.
With reference to the draft amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 on driving licences, consider the following statements:
1. The pass mark for the preliminary learner's test is proposed to be raised from 60% to 75%.
2. Applicants will be required to complete a safe-driving tutorial before the learner's licence process is completed.
3. A fee will be charged for changing the name or address on a licence to discourage frequent changes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The draft raises the pass mark of the preliminary learner's test from 60% to 75%.
Applicants must take a safe-driving tutorial of at least 30 minutes.
Statement 3 is wrong: the draft proposes no fee for changing a licence holder's name, address or other recorded details.
a Omits statement 2, which is correct since the tutorial is mandatory.
b Statement 3 reverses the proposal; name and address changes are to be free.
c Statement 3 is wrong because the draft proposes no fee for such changes, and statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the question of Uttarakhand's capital, consider the following statements:
1. Dehradun was designated the temporary capital when Uttarakhand was carved out of Uttar Pradesh in 2000.
2. The Ramashanker Kaushik committee, constituted by the Uttar Pradesh government, recommended Gairsain as the most suitable location for the capital of a separate hill state.
3. The commission headed by retired judge Virender Dixit recommended Gairsain as the permanent capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Dehradun was made the temporary capital in 2000, leaving the permanent capital unresolved; statement 1 is correct.
The 1994 Ramashanker Kaushik committee favoured Gairsain because of its location between Garhwal and Kumaon; statement 2 is correct.
The Virender Dixit commission (report in 2009) recommended Dehradun, not Gairsain; statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is incorrect, since the Dixit commission recommended Dehradun.
With reference to the recent India–Azerbaijan engagement in Baku, consider the following statements:
1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar met Azerbaijani President Ilham Aliyev and Foreign Minister Jeyhun Bayramov.
2. Bilateral ties had deteriorated after Azerbaijan condemned India's Operation Sindoor against Pakistan-based terror targets.
3. The visit was the first by an Indian External Affairs Minister to Azerbaijan since Sushma Swaraj attended a Non-Aligned Movement Ministerial meeting in Baku in 2018, and was held in the context of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Jaishankar met both President Aliyev and Foreign Minister Bayramov, so statement 1 is correct.
Azerbaijan condemned the Indian strikes under Operation Sindoor in May 2025, which soured ties, so statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is wrong: the 2018 Swaraj visit was for a NAM Ministerial meeting, and the present visit was bilateral, with no SCO context.
b Statement 1 is correct, and statement 3 is wrong because of the SCO context.
c Statement 3 wrongly links the visit to the SCO, so not all three are correct.
d Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the Vande Bharat Sleeper train to be launched between Bengaluru and Mumbai, consider the following statements:
1. It is developed by BEML using Integral Coach Factory (ICF) technology.
2. It is the second Vande Bharat Sleeper train of the country.
3. Its inaugural journey is to begin from Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus, Mumbai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The train is developed by BEML using Chennai-based ICF technology, and it is the country's second Vande Bharat Sleeper.
A senior railway official confirmed that the inaugural journey will begin from Bengaluru, not CSMT Mumbai, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Omits statement 2, which is also correct: this is the second Vande Bharat Sleeper.
b Statement 3 is incorrect, so this pairing fails.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since the inaugural run starts from Bengaluru.
With reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) 2.0 Capacity Building Package, consider the following statements:
1. It comprises a story-based self-learning handbook titled "The Story of Panipur" along with a Trainer's Facilitation Manual.
2. It is meant mainly for officials of the Public Health Engineering Departments, and Gram Panchayat representatives are outside its target group.
3. The modules employ storytelling, folk communication methods, role plays and gamification techniques.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The package comprises 8 modules titled "The Story of Panipur" and a Trainer's Facilitation Manual, so statement 1 is correct.
It is designed to build the capacities of Gram Panchayat representatives, VWSCs, Sujalam Shakti Groups and other grassroots institutions, so statement 2 is wrong.
The modules use storytelling, folk communication, role plays, community interactions and gamification, so statement 3 is correct.
a Statement 2 is wrong, so all three cannot be correct.
b Statement 2 is wrong, since Gram Panchayat representatives and VWSCs are the core target group.
c Statement 3 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the recent developments concerning Ladakh, consider the following statements:
1. Ladakh became a Union Territory in 2019 after being carved out of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The Leh Apex Body and the Kargil Democratic Alliance have been demanding Statehood and inclusion of the region in the Seventh Schedule.
3. The Union Home Ministry's draft proposal shared with them proposes a new governance structure for Ladakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Ladakh was carved out as a Union Territory in 2019 from the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir, and the MHA draft proposes a new governance structure.
The demand is for inclusion in the Sixth Schedule (autonomy for certain tribal areas), not the Seventh Schedule, so statement 2 is wrong.
a Statement 2 wrongly names the Seventh Schedule, so not all three are correct.
b Statement 2 is wrong (Sixth, not Seventh Schedule), and this option omits the correct statement 1.
d Statement 2 is wrong because the demand is for the Sixth Schedule, not the Seventh; this option also leaves out the correct statement 3.
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