What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.
1. Rabi MSP for Marketing Season 2027-28: Backgrounder
The government raised MSPs for all mandated Rabi crops for RMS 2027-28, with about ₹90,962 crore expected to reach farmers; the backgrounder explains how MSP is set and how procurement has grown.
Cabinet approved higher MSPs for all mandated Rabi crops for RMS 2027-28 on 30 September 2026.
Estimated payout is ₹90,962 crore for 324 lakh MT of produce.
Procurement of six Rabi crops: 2,302 LMT (2004-05 to 2013-14) versus 3,921 LMT (2014-15 to 2025-26); payments rose from ₹2.65 lakh crore to ₹8.36 lakh crore.
MSP is announced annually for 22 mandated crops on the recommendation of the CACP.
MSPs for Toria and de-husked coconut are derived from those for rapeseed-mustard and copra respectively.
Key terms
Minimum Support Price (MSP)
— Price announced by the government at which eligible farm produce is procured, offering assured returns to farmers.
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
— Body whose recommendations form the basis for the annual MSP announcements.
Inter-crop price parity
— Keeping MSPs balanced across crops so that farmers are not pushed towards one crop at the expense of others.
Imputed value of family labour
— Notional wage for unpaid family labour, counted in the cost of production.
Farmer Producer Organisation (FPO)
— Farmer collective that supplies inputs and helps in marketing and procurement.
2. India Tops Global Green Hydrogen Offtake Commitments, Over 5.5 Lakh MTPA
Indian firms have signed 23 offtake contracts for about 5.56 lakh MTPA of green hydrogen equivalent since the National Green Hydrogen Mission began, with over 70% meant for export, signalling India's push to become a green fuel supplier.
23 offtake contracts worth 5,55,610 MTPA signed since NGHM's 2023 launch; 18 of them in 2026 alone, covering over 4 lakh MTPA.
Over 70% of the contracted volume is earmarked for exports; investment needed is about ₹90,000 crore (around USD 9.5 billion).
NGHM outlay is ₹19,744 crore up to 2029-30, with a target of at least 5 MMTPA green hydrogen by 2030; current commitments are roughly 11% of that.
Under SIGHT, 6.7 lakh MTPA green ammonia is contracted for 11 fertilizer units and 30,000 MTPA green hydrogen for refineries of IOCL, BPCL, HPCL and NRL.
AM Green won the Asian lot of the H2Global auction (run by HINT.CO) to supply RFNBO ammonia to Germany: minimum EUR 585 million over 10 years, deliveries from 2029.
Key terms
Offtake agreement
— A contract in which a buyer commits in advance to purchase a producer's future output, helping the producer secure financing.
SIGHT Programme
— Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition, the Mission's scheme supporting domestic green hydrogen and derivative production, e.g., for fertilizer and refinery use.
RFNBO
— Renewable Fuels of Non-Biological Origin, such as hydrogen-based fuels made using renewable electricity, as in the Germany ammonia deal.
Ammonia co-firing
— Burning ammonia along with coal in thermal power plants to lower carbon emissions.
H2Global
— An auction-based mechanism, run by HINT.CO GmbH, for procuring green hydrogen derivatives for Germany.
3. PM to release 24th PM-KISAN instalment from Banaskantha, Gujarat
The 24th PM-KISAN instalment of over ₹18,690 crore will reach more than 9.34 crore farmers by DBT, along with the dedication of 521 Agriculture Infrastructure Fund units and 12 horticulture clusters.
At the 13th ADMM-Plus in Cebu, the Defence Minister offered India's counter-terrorism experience to partners, stressed maritime security and ASEAN centrality, and proposed a defence 'Youth Bridge'.
5. Supreme Court Urges RBI to Make Banks Indemnify Digital Arrest Victims
The Supreme Court asked the RBI to require financial institutions to fully compensate digital arrest victims where lax diligence enabled the fraud, and pressed for faster regulatory safeguards.
Supreme Court (CJI Surya Kant) asked RBI to mandate full indemnification of victims where institutional diligence was lacking.
Court wants to examine the proposed RBI (Know Your Customer) Amendment Directions, 2026; the AG said they would be notified by November 30 and operationalised by December 31.
Banks should be able to temporarily suspend transactions that sharply deviate from an account's history, with automated alerts to police and physical verification.
Losses cited: over ₹800 crore this year versus about ₹3,000 crore the previous year; AG said such cases fell 50%, and money was restored in over 11 lakh cases.
States told to furnish details of FIRs, investigation and prosecution; WhatsApp allowed to intervene (it says it banned 9,400 suspicious accounts); amicus curiae is N.S. Nappinai.
Key terms
Digital arrest
— A cyber fraud in which scammers impersonate law enforcement and claim to detain the victim virtually to extort money.
Know Your Customer (KYC) norms
— RBI-prescribed customer identification and verification rules for financial institutions, used to curb fraud and money laundering.
Indemnification
— Compensating a person fully for a loss suffered.
Amicus curiae
— A neutral expert appointed to assist the court in a case.
6. India rejects TB Alliance patent for BPaL drug-resistant TB regimen
The Indian Patent Office refused TB Alliance's patent application on the BPaL combination, a six-month all-oral regimen for drug-resistant TB, a decision that bears on affordable access to the treatment.
7. US Freedom of Navigation Operations against India: What They Mean
The US carried out three FONOPs against Indian maritime claims in FY2025, the most in a single year since 1991, raising questions about legal intent versus political signalling amid closer naval ties.
Three US FONOPs challenged India in FY2025, the highest in one year since public records began in 1991 (two involved multiple assertions).
The US FON Programme began in March 1979 and pairs diplomatic protests with operational assertions by US forces; UNCLOS was adopted in 1982, and the US has not ratified it.
From 1991 to 2025 there were 616 assertions against 75 countries (about 18 a year); India ranks seventh and has been challenged more often than Japan, South Korea and the Philippines.
The FY2025 challenges concerned Lakshadweep straight baselines, prior consent for military exercises in the EEZ and continental shelf, and prior notification for vessels carrying hazardous cargo.
The US contests provisions of India's Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, EEZ and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, and its historic-waters claims in the Palk Strait, Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar.
Key terms
Freedom of Navigation Operation (FONOP)
— A naval or air operation that physically challenges a coastal state's maritime claim the challenger considers excessive.
Persistent objector
— A state that consistently rejects an emerging rule so it is not bound by it as customary international law.
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
— A maritime zone beyond the territorial sea where the coastal state has sovereign rights over resources, while other states keep navigation and overflight freedoms.
Innocent passage
— The right of foreign ships to pass through a coastal state's territorial sea if the passage is not prejudicial to its peace, order or security.
Straight baselines
— Lines joining points on a coast or its islands from which maritime zones are measured, instead of following the low-water mark.
8. National Workshop on Coastal Resilience through Adaptive Strategies Held in New Delhi
MoEFCC convened a two-day national workshop under the GCF-ECRICC project to turn coastal science into planning and investment, with the National Coastal Mission as the anchor for future adaptation.
Workshop held 29-30 October 2026 in New Delhi under the Green Climate Fund project 'Enhancing Climate Resilience of India's Coastal Communities' (GCF-ECRICC).
Project restores mangroves, coastal watersheds, seagrass, salt marshes and corals while supporting livelihoods of vulnerable coastal communities.
Progress was highlighted in three States: Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.
The 'Climate Champion' model, with women called 'ECRICC Didi', translates technical climate knowledge for local communities.
The National Coastal Mission is to act as the fulcrum for coastal resilience, building on GCF-ECRICC outputs; UNDP and TNC India took part.
Key terms
GCF-ECRICC
— Green Climate Fund-backed project to enhance the climate resilience of India's coastal communities by restoring ecosystems and livelihoods.
National Coastal Mission
— Mission intended to be the central platform for coastal resilience and adaptive interventions, building on project outputs.
Hazard-line mapping
— Demarcation of coastal areas at risk from flooding and erosion, used for planning.
Coastal vulnerability assessment
— Evaluation of how exposed and sensitive coastal areas are to climate and hazard impacts.
Climate Champion (ECRICC Didi)
— Women from coastal communities who convey technical climate action knowledge to local people.
9. Finance Ministry clarifies IDBI Bank strategic disinvestment bidding and valuation process
The Finance Ministry defends how DIPAM ran the two-round sale of IDBI Bank, saying the CGD acted within powers delegated by the CCEA and that valuation was independent and double blind.
First bid round was held in FY 2025-26 under DIPAM's indicative guidelines, which are not rigid legal rules; the second 'best offer' round followed a procedure set by the Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment (CGD).
CCEA on 16 Aug 2017 empowered the CGD to decide procedural issues and allow deviations to implement strategic disinvestment.
RFP Para 5.3.6(iii): if the highest financial bid is below the reserve price, the Government of India decides the next step and qualified bidders cannot question it.
Valuation used the Market Multiple Method (comparable companies approach, using listed public sector banks) because no comparable transactions existed.
Tax-demand indemnity carries a potential liability of only Rs 627 crore, while the bid price rose by Rs 3,917 crore; GoI and LIC keep residual shareholdings.
Key terms
DIPAM
— The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management, which manages government disinvestment and strategic sales.
Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment (CGD)
— A group of secretaries empowered by the CCEA to decide procedure and deviations in strategic disinvestment.
Reserve price
— The minimum acceptable price for a sale; a bid below it leaves the government to decide the next step.
Market Multiple Method
— A valuation approach that prices a firm using multiples of comparable listed companies or comparable transactions.
Functus officio
— A Latin term meaning a process or authority whose purpose is complete and which has no further legal effect.
10. Ayushman Vay Vandana completes two years of elderly health cover
The scheme extending AB PM-JAY cover to everyone aged 70+ has completed two years, with 23.46 lakh hospital admissions authorised worth ₹5,668.80 crore, led by cataract surgery.
Ayushman Vay Vandana was launched on 29 October 2024 and extends AB PM-JAY to all citizens aged 70 and above, regardless of socio-economic status.
It is implemented by the National Health Authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and covers about 6 crore seniors in roughly 4.5 crore families.
Cover is up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalisation; seniors in families already under PM-JAY get a separate top-up of up to ₹5 lakh just for themselves.
As of 20 October 2026: 23.46 lakh authorised admissions worth ₹5,668.80 crore.
Cataract surgery is the commonest procedure (4.71 lakh, about 20.1%), followed by chronic haemodialysis (about 2.90 lakh); PTCA (angioplasty) has the highest authorised value at about ₹649 crore.
Key terms
AB PM-JAY
— Publicly funded health assurance scheme giving hospitalisation cover to eligible families, now extended to all aged 70+.
National Health Authority
— Agency under the Health Ministry that implements AB PM-JAY and this elderly extension.
Top-up cover
— Extra ₹5 lakh per year for seniors aged 70+ in existing PM-JAY families, separate from other members' cover.
PTCA
— Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty, a procedure to open blocked heart arteries; the highest-value treatment under the scheme.
Secondary and tertiary care
— Specialist and advanced hospital-level care, as opposed to primary care.
11. ARISE Cities Forum 2026 adopts Delhi Declaration on local climate action
The two-day ARISE Cities Forum in New Delhi ended with the Delhi Declaration, in which Global South cities seek a bigger role in climate governance and will carry this call to COP31 in Antalya, Türkiye.
Second ARISE Cities Forum held 27-28 October 2026 at India Habitat Centre, New Delhi; Delhi Declaration adopted on 28 October.
Organised by ICLEI South Asia with NIUA, supported by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
More than 200 participants from 50+ cities in 18+ countries; three technical plenaries and 14 technical sessions.
Theme: 'From Bharat to Antalya — Commit. Implement. Deliver'; the Declaration will be taken to COP31 in Antalya, Türkiye.
Declaration stresses integrated local action, a just clean energy transition, accessible finance, community participation and a commitment to zero waste.
Key terms
ICLEI
— Local Governments for Sustainability, a global network of local and regional governments working on sustainable development; ICLEI South Asia organised the Forum.
NIUA
— National Institute of Urban Affairs, India's urban-sector think tank and research institute, which collaborated on the Forum.
Multilevel governance
— Coordination among national, state and local governments in planning and delivering climate goals.
Localising NDCs
— Translating a country's Paris Agreement pledges into city-level plans, budgets and projects.
Just clean energy transition
— Shifting to clean energy in a way that is fair to workers and communities affected by the change.
12. Chambal gun culture under scanner in Kuno cheetah cub shooting probe
A 19-month-old cheetah cub from Kuno died after being shot five times outside the park; officials are examining the Chambal region's gun culture and weighing poaching, revenge killing and self-defence as motives.
The cheetah cub, 19 months old and wearing a radio collar, was found on 25 October in compartment 748 of Sheopur Territorial Forest Division, about 50 km from Kuno's boundary; it died on 27 October in Jabalpur.
Five metal pellets from a firearm were recovered from its body, one of them from the lung.
A State-formed special task force of forest and police officers is investigating; a high-level Union Government team visited on 28 October.
State Chief Wildlife Warden Sameeta Rajora said poaching, revenge killing and self-defence are all being examined.
The Additional Director of WCCB met the Superintendents of Police of Sheopur and Morena to improve coordination.
Key terms
Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW)
— The State's top wildlife official, who heads wildlife management and enforcement in the State.
WCCB
— Wildlife Crime Control Bureau, the central agency that helps coordinate action against wildlife crime.
Special Task Force (STF)
— A team of forest and police officers formed by the State Government to probe the cheetah's killing.
Radio collar
— A tracking device fitted to an animal so that its movements can be monitored.
A Supreme Court Bench led by CJI Surya Kant orally criticised the Corporate Affairs Ministry for controlling NCLT staff hiring and sought proposals from the NCLT and NCLAT presidents to fix staffing and infrastructure gaps.
Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant orally remarked that the Ministry of Corporate Affairs had 'hijacked' staff appointments at the NCLT (hearing on October 29, 2026).
Court's view: power to appoint staff must rest with the NCLT president, and a direct employer-employee relationship must exist between staff and the tribunal.
Hearing arose from a plea by contractual employees of the NCLT and NCLAT; staff hiring has reportedly been outsourced to contractors.
Presidents of NCLT and NCLAT must file comprehensive proposals on infrastructure, buildings and staffing within four weeks.
NCLT Principal Bench infrastructure was described as 'collapsing', with two floors shut and courts working at half strength; the Bar Association was told to collect tabulated data on regional benches.
Key terms
NCLT
— National Company Law Tribunal, the quasi-judicial body that adjudicates company law and insolvency disputes.
NCLAT
— National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, which hears appeals against NCLT orders.
Tribunal autonomy
— The independence of a tribunal from the executive in its administration, staffing and functioning.
Contractual employees
— Staff engaged on fixed-term or outsourced terms rather than as regular employees of the institution.
A Supreme Court Bench said repeated curbs on Deepavali firecrackers are widely flouted, ruled out a total ban, and demanded strict enforcement data from the Centre and Delhi government, with orders to follow.
Bench of Justices M.M. Sundresh and P.B. Varale heard the case on October 29, 2026; it said religious freedom is subject to public health and protection of other fundamental rights.
The court did not favour a complete ban, warning of a 'spiralling effect', but told authorities to act against sellers of spurious and banned crackers.
The Centre cited a CSIR-NEERI report on 'new generation joined firecrackers' that differ from conventional ones in shell/tube size, formulation, burst duration and frequency, with lower noise, particulate emissions and solid waste.
In October 2025 the Court had allowed green crackers in Delhi-NCR during Deepavali, limited to specific hours on the festival day and its eve.
Environment Ministry was directed to resolve the issue after consulting stakeholders; the government must file an affidavit on preventive steps taken, and orders are due in a couple of days.
Key terms
Green crackers
— Firecrackers formulated to emit less particulate matter and noise than conventional ones; allowed by the Court under conditions.
CSIR-NEERI
— Government research body whose report assessed 'new generation joined firecrackers' against conventional ones.
Freedom of religion (subject to public health)
— Religious freedom is not absolute and can be restricted on grounds such as public order, morality and health.
Contempt petition
— Legal action seeking punishment for wilful disobedience of a court order.
15. Hanging glacier collapse could hit Badrinath, DRDO-backed study warns
A modelling study in Landslides finds that collapse of the largest of three hanging glaciers above Badrinath could damage hundreds of structures, and it urges buffer zones and construction curbs.
Study published in the journal Landslides on October 28; researchers from IISc, University of Cambridge and DRDO; funded by DRDO.
Three hanging glaciers at 4,700–5,465 m above sea level were assessed; those with mean surface slope of 30° or more were screened for instability.
Worst case (second glacier, ~5.32 million cubic metres, slope 34.57°): peak velocity 78.5 m/s, flow height 73.5 m, about 398 buildings, 2.66 km of roads, two bridges, a helipad and a parking area damaged.
Badrinath sits at roughly 3,415 m on the Alaknanda, a Ganga tributary; the shrine itself is not expected to be directly hit, though debris could reach it.
An earlier study in April identified 219 hanging glaciers; about 30% of them lie in the Alaknanda basin and have unstable ice.
Key terms
Hanging glacier
— An ice body on a mountain slope or ending at a bedrock cliff, detached from the valley floor and prone to collapse.
Ice avalanche
— Sudden fall of a mass of glacier ice, which can release a large volume of water and debris quickly.
Basal resistance
— Friction at the glacier bed that holds ice in place; it falls as glaciers turn more temperate.
Runout
— The distance that avalanche material travels after release, used to mark impact and buffer zones.
16. BNSS Chapter IX: Preventive Bonds to Keep the Peace
The BNSS, which replaced the CrPC, lets Executive Magistrates require bonds from people likely to disturb public order, as a preventive tool distinct from an FIR.
Chapter IX of the BNSS covers security proceedings: a person must show cause why they should not execute a bond for keeping the peace or good behaviour.
Section 126 covers persons likely to breach peace or disturb public tranquility; Sections 127, 128 and 129 cover good-behaviour bonds for those spreading prohibited material, suspected persons and habitual offenders.
Proceedings are normally held before Executive Magistrates or SDMs; in Commissionerate cities, police officers can act as EMs or Special Executive Magistrates.
The inquiry must ordinarily finish within six months, otherwise the proceedings lapse automatically.
Section 491 governs forfeiture of a bond on default; Section 140 allows rejection of an unfit surety.
Key terms
Security proceedings
— Preventive process under Chapter IX where a person is asked to show cause why they should not give a bond for peace or good behaviour.
Executive Magistrate
— Administrative-side magistrate, such as an SDM, who conducts preventive proceedings to maintain public order.
Bond and bail bond
— A bond is an undertaking without a surety; a bail bond is an undertaking backed by a surety.
Surety
— A person who takes on obligations under the bond and can be made to pay if it is forfeited.
Cognizable offence
— An offence for which police can arrest without a warrant and which leads to an FIR.
17. Arunachal CM Khandu: Transgressions Along China Border Keep Happening, Situation Normal
Arunachal CM Pema Khandu said transgressions occur routinely because China rejects the McMahon Line, a week after the ITBP chief spoke of face-offs at several locations; he also defended the Siang hydropower project as strategic.
The McMahon Line was agreed in 1914 between British India and Tibet; it is the de facto boundary in Arunachal Pradesh, but China does not recognise it, arguing Tibet could not make such an agreement.
ITBP DG Shatrujeet Kapur said on October 22 that face-offs took place at several locations in Arunachal and credited the newly raised Shaurya commandos.
In September, India and China held Corps Commander-level talks at the Wacha-Damai border meeting point, amid reports of tension in Taksing, Upper Subansiri; Wacha is India's easternmost border personnel meeting point (Kibithoo sector).
The MEA said the LAC situation is disturbed from time to time when Chinese forces depart from established patrolling patterns.
The proposed Siang Upper Multipurpose Project of NHPC (11,200 MW) saw violent protests, with tear gas used and arson in Pasighat, East Siang.
Key terms
McMahon Line
— The 1914 line between British India and Tibet that India treats as the boundary in Arunachal Pradesh; China rejects it.
Line of Actual Control (LAC)
— The de facto, not mutually delineated, boundary between Indian and Chinese-controlled territory.
Transgression
— Crossing of patrols into territory the other side regards as its own along an undefined border.
Siang Upper Multipurpose Project
— A proposed 11,200 MW NHPC hydropower and storage project on the Siang river in Arunachal, facing local protests.
Shaurya commandos
— Newly raised ITBP commando teams credited with a role in the recent face-off situation.
18. Goyal: India to gain 'strong comparative advantage' from US trade deal
Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal says the pending India-US trade deal protects sensitive sectors, especially farmers, and defends India's 2019 exit from RCEP, as US pauses a Russia-sanctions law that threatened tariffs on India.
Goyal spoke at an Institute for Studies in Industrial Development (ISID) conference; he said no sensitive farmer interest has been compromised.
US Secretary of State Marco Rubio said the deal was 'incredibly close' and '99 per cent' of the work was done.
The US paused the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026, which let the US President impose up to 100% tariffs on buyers of Russian oil such as India and China.
India pulled out of RCEP on 4 November 2019 in Bangkok; the other 15 members (10 ASEAN plus China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand) went ahead.
India says its trade agreements cover 38 developed, relatively prosperous countries.
Key terms
Comparative advantage
— A country gains from trade by specialising in goods it produces at lower relative opportunity cost than others.
RCEP
— Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership, a trade bloc of ASEAN plus China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand; India left in 2019.
Section 301 investigation
— A US trade-law probe into other countries' alleged unfair trade practices, which can lead to tariffs.
Structural overcapacity
— Persistent excess production capacity in an industry, often state-supported, that depresses global prices.
19. 1947 Kashmir invasion: How the Army airlift secured Srinagar airport
After tribal raiders backed from Pakistan advanced on Srinagar in October 1947, Hari Singh acceded to India and troops were flown in to hold the valley's only airstrip, which decided the first phase of the Kashmir conflict.
Invasion began on 22 October 1947 under 'Operation Gulmarg'; raiders took Muzaffarabad, Domel and Uri and moved toward Srinagar.
V P Menon, Secretary of the Ministry of States, visited Srinagar on 25 October; Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October.
Indian troops began landing at Srinagar airport on 27 October 1947; about 25 aircraft, mostly Dakotas, were assembled, and an Army Airlift Committee coordinated the effort.
By 6 November India had 3,500 troops in Srinagar; raiders were routed and pushed back to Uri.
J&K was created in 1846 when the Treaty of Amritsar transferred Kashmir to the Dogra ruler Gulab Singh.
Key terms
Instrument of Accession
— Legal document by which a princely state joined India, signed by Hari Singh on 26 October 1947.
Standstill agreement
— Arrangement to continue existing administrative and supply links between a princely state and a dominion until a final decision.
Treaty of Amritsar (1846)
— Treaty under which the East India Company transferred Kashmir to Gulab Singh of Jammu.
Operation Gulmarg
— Codename of the tribal-proxy operation to overrun Jammu and Kashmir.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The absence of a journalistic exemption in the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 may create a chilling effect on investigative reporting.
Statement-II: A journalist treated as a "data fiduciary" may have to notify and seek consent from the very individuals being investigated.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (c)
Without an exemption, reporters investigating misconduct could be treated as data fiduciaries.
They would then have to notify and seek consent from the people they investigate, which is the mechanism behind the chilling effect.
With reference to the BPaL regimen for drug-resistant tuberculosis, consider the following statements:
1. It is a combination of bedaquiline, pretomanid and linezolid.
2. It is a six-month, all-oral regimen recommended by the World Health Organisation for eligible patients with certain forms of drug-resistant TB.
3. The Indian Patent Office has granted the patent for it to the Global Alliance for TB Drug Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
BPaL combines bedaquiline, pretomanid and linezolid, and is a six-month all-oral regimen recommended by the WHO for eligible patients.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Indian Patent Office rejected the TB Alliance's patent application.
a Statement 3 is false because the patent was rejected, not granted.
c Statement 3 is false because the patent was rejected, not granted.
d Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' leaves out a true statement.
With reference to the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), consider the following statements:
1. India withdrew from the RCEP negotiations in 2019, stating that the outcome did not reflect the original intent and was neither fair nor balanced.
2. The 15 countries that went ahead with RCEP comprise the ten ASEAN members along with China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.
3. India is a founding signatory of RCEP and continues to be a member of the grouping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
India pulled out of RCEP in 2019 (announced at Bangkok on 4 November), saying the outcome was neither fair nor balanced.
The remaining 15 nations (10 ASEAN plus China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand) went ahead.
Statement 3 is wrong because India is not a member of RCEP after withdrawing.
b Statement 2 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
c Statement 3 is false, since India left the negotiations and is not a member.
d Statement 3 is false, so not all three are correct.
With reference to the Green Climate Fund project 'Enhancing Climate Resilience of India's Coastal Communities' (GCF-ECRICC), consider the following statements:
1. It focuses on restoring coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, seagrass, salt marshes and corals while strengthening livelihoods of vulnerable communities.
2. Its progress has been highlighted in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.
3. Its Climate Champion model, 'ECRICC Didi', comprises women from coastal communities who translate technical knowledge of climate action for local communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
All three statements match the project's description: ecosystem restoration with livelihood support, progress in Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha, and the ECRICC Didi Climate Champion model.
Hence every statement is correct, and the option covering all three is the key.
a Omits statement 1, which is correct: the project restores mangroves, seagrass, salt marshes and corals.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct: ECRICC Didis are women who communicate climate action knowledge locally.
c Omits statement 2, which is correct: progress was highlighted in Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.
Consider the following statements regarding the 1947 airlift to Srinagar:
Statement-I: Securing Srinagar airport was crucial to preventing the Kashmir Valley from falling to the raiders.
Statement-II: Srinagar had the Kashmir Valley's only airstrip, and with limited road connections to the rest of India, the airport offered the most practical route for rapidly bringing in Indian troops.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
The airport was crucial to stopping the raiders from taking the valley.
It was the valley's only airstrip and road links were limited, so it was the practical route for rapid troop induction.
Statement-II therefore gives the reason for the importance stated in Statement-I.
a Statement-II is correct as per the source.
c Statement-I is correct as the airport's security was crucial.
d Statement-II directly explains why the airport was crucial.
Consider the following statements regarding the utilisation pattern under Ayushman Vay Vandana:
1. Cataract surgery is the most frequently availed procedure.
2. Chronic haemodialysis ranks next in the number of treatments.
3. Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) accounts for the largest share in authorised value.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (c)
Cataract surgery is the most frequent procedure, about 20.1 per cent of authorised treatments.
Chronic haemodialysis ranks next by number of treatments.
PTCA has the largest share by authorised value, so all three statements are correct.
a All three statements are supported, not just one.
b No statement is incorrect, so two is an undercount.
d Each statement matches the facts about the scheme.
With reference to the ARISE Cities Forum 2026 and the Delhi Declaration, consider the following statements:
1. The Forum was organised by ICLEI South Asia in collaboration with the National Institute of Urban Affairs, with support from the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. The Delhi Declaration on Local Action for Global Climate Goals will be carried forward to COP31 in Antalya, Türkiye.
3. The Forum sought to bring urban voices from across the Global South to the forefront.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The Forum was organised by ICLEI South Asia with NIUA, supported by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, so statement 1 is correct.
The Delhi Declaration is to travel to COP31 in Antalya, Türkiye, so statement 2 is correct.
The Forum aimed to bring urban voices from the Global South to the forefront, so statement 3 is correct.
a Statements 2 and 3 are also correct, so this option is incomplete.
b Statement 3 is also correct, so this option is incomplete.
c Statement 1 is also correct, so this option is incomplete.
With reference to the determination of Minimum Support Prices (MSP) in India, consider the following statements:
1. MSPs are announced annually for 22 mandated agricultural crops on the basis of recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
2. The cost of production used in MSP calculations excludes the imputed value of family labour.
3. The MSP for Toria is determined on the basis of the MSP announced for rapeseed and mustard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
MSPs for 22 mandated crops rest on CACP recommendations, which consider the views of State Governments and Central Ministries.
Toria's MSP is derived from the MSP of rapeseed and mustard, and de-husked coconut's from copra.
Statement 2 is wrong: the cost of production includes the imputed value of family labour, to recognise the contribution of family members.
a Statement 2 is incorrect, and this option leaves out the correct statement 1.
b Statement 2 is incorrect, as imputed family labour is included in the cost; this option also leaves out the correct statement 3.
c Statement 2 is incorrect, since family labour is counted in the cost of production.
With reference to the Supreme Court's recent hearing on digital arrest scams in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Court urged the Reserve Bank of India to mandate that financial institutions fully indemnify victims where the crime occurred due to a lack of institutional diligence.
2. The Court suggested that financial institutions should have systems to temporarily suspend transactions that deviate uncharacteristically from an account's transaction history.
3. The Court directed that responsibilities of intermediaries be framed by the Reserve Bank of India through its KYC Directions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Court urged the RBI to make financial institutions indemnify victims where lack of institutional diligence was involved, so statement 1 is correct.
It said systems must exist to temporarily suspend transactions that deviate from an account's history, with automated alerts to police, so statement 2 is correct.
Intermediaries' responsibilities are to be part of instructions issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the Department of Telecom, not the RBI KYC Directions, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong, since MeitY and DoT, not the RBI, will issue intermediary instructions.
b Omits statement 2, which is correct.
d Statement 3 wrongly assigns intermediary responsibilities to the RBI.
With reference to the US Freedom of Navigation (FON) programme, consider the following statements:
1. It combines diplomatic protests with operational assertions by US military forces against what Washington considers excessive maritime claims.
2. It was launched after the adoption of UNCLOS in 1982, and the US has ratified the Convention.
3. In conducting FONOPs, the US takes the status of a "persistent objector" to prevent unilateral restrictions from becoming established through state practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The FON programme pairs diplomatic protests with operational assertions by US forces.
It began in March 1979, during the UNCLOS negotiations and before UNCLOS was adopted in 1982. The US has not ratified UNCLOS, so statement 2 is wrong.
The US takes the status of a "persistent objector" so that contested restrictions do not become established through state practice.
a Statement 2 is wrong, so all three cannot be correct.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the programme began in 1979 and the US has not ratified UNCLOS.
c Omits statement 3, which is correct: the US acts as a persistent objector.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN), consider the following statements:
1. It provides income support to eligible farmer families through Direct Benefit Transfer.
2. It is administered by the Ministry of Rural Development.
3. The instalment transfers money to the bank accounts of farmers across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
PM-KISAN provides income support to eligible farmer families through Direct Benefit Transfer, directly into bank accounts.
The scheme is run by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (its Department of Agriculture), not the Ministry of Rural Development, so statement 2 is wrong.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
a Statement 2 wrongly names the Ministry of Rural Development.
c Statement 3 is also correct, since money goes directly to farmers' bank accounts.
d Statement 2 is wrong because the scheme belongs to the Agriculture Ministry, not Rural Development.
With reference to the ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting (ADMM)-Plus, consider the following statements:
1. Counter-terrorism is one of the areas of cooperation under the ADMM-Plus framework, with India and Malaysia co-chairing the Experts' Working Group on Counter-Terrorism for the 2024 to 2027 cycle.
2. The 13th ADMM-Plus was held in Kuala Lumpur under the theme 'Navigating Our Future, Together'.
3. India proposed a dedicated defence 'Youth Bridge' to enhance institutional people-to-people connectivity and promote digital innovation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
The 13th ADMM-Plus was held in Cebu, Philippines, not Kuala Lumpur, so statement 2 is wrong.
India and Malaysia co-chair the Experts' Working Group on Counter-Terrorism for 2024-27, so statement 1 is correct.
India proposed a defence 'Youth Bridge' for people-to-people connectivity, digital innovation and capacity building, so statement 3 is correct.
a Statement 2 is wrong because the venue was Cebu, Philippines, and statement 1 is correct but left out.
c Statement 2 is wrong because the venue was Cebu; Kuala Lumpur hosted the ASEAN-India informal meeting.
d Statement 3 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
With reference to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Supreme Court's observations on it, consider the following statements:
1. The Bench observed that the ECI erred in making voters struck off for not returning enumeration forms reapply on Form 6 as if they were new voters.
2. The editorial argues that the SIR shifts the burden of enrolment from the elector to the state.
3. The legality of "logical discrepancy" checks was allowed only as an interim arrangement in West Bengal and has not been finally adjudicated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the Bench said the ECI was in error to force deleted voters to reapply on Form 6 as new voters.
Statement 3 is correct: logical discrepancy checks were allowed only as an interim arrangement in West Bengal and are not finally adjudicated.
Statement 2 is reversed: the SIR shifts the burden of enrolment from the state to the elector.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the burden shifts from the state to the elector, not the reverse.
c Statement 2 reverses the direction of the shift in burden.
With reference to the McMahon Line, consider the following statements:
1. It was agreed upon in 1914 between British India and Tibet.
2. It serves as the de facto boundary between India and China in Arunachal Pradesh.
3. China does not recognise it, arguing that it was not for Tibet to enter into such an agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The McMahon Line was agreed in 1914 between British India and Tibet.
It acts as the de facto boundary between India and China in Arunachal Pradesh.
Beijing rejects it, saying Tibet could not enter into such an agreement, so all three statements are correct.
With reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Mission aims to produce at least 5 Million Metric Tonnes per Annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030.
2. Under its SIGHT Programme, Green Ammonia is to be supplied to fertilizer units and Green Hydrogen to refineries.
3. Most of the Green Hydrogen offtake contracts signed since the launch of the Mission are earmarked for domestic consumption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Mission targets at least 5 MMTPA of Green Hydrogen production by 2030, so statement 1 is correct.
Under SIGHT, agreements cover Green Ammonia for fertilizer units and Green Hydrogen for refineries such as IOCL, BPCL, HPCL and NRL, so statement 2 is correct.
Over 70% of the contracts signed are earmarked for exports, not domestic use, so statement 3 is wrong.
a Statement 3 is wrong because most contracts are for exports; it also leaves out the correct statement 1.
b Statement 3 is wrong because over 70% is for exports; it also leaves out the correct statement 2.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, so not all three statements hold.
With reference to the investigation into the killing of a cheetah cub from Kuno in Madhya Pradesh, consider the following statements:
1. The probe is being carried out by a special task force of forest and police officers formed by the State Government.
2. The cub was found in the Sheopur Territorial Forest Division, on the border of Sheopur and Morena districts, inside the boundaries of Kuno.
3. The Additional Director of the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau met the Superintendents of Police of the two districts to improve coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The probe is run by a State Government-formed STF of forest and police officers, and the WCCB Additional Director met the Superintendents of Police of Sheopur and Morena.
Statement 2 is wrong: the cub was found about 50 km away from Kuno's boundaries, not inside them.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because the cub was found about 50 km outside Kuno's boundaries.
b Omits statement 3, which is correct: the WCCB Additional Director met the Superintendents of Police.
d Statement 2 is incorrect because the cub was found about 50 km outside Kuno's boundaries.
With reference to hanging glaciers, consider the following statements:
1. They are ice bodies on mountain slopes or ending abruptly at bedrock cliffs, detached from the valley floor.
2. Their failure can cause ice avalanches that release a large volume of water and debris in a short duration.
3. Reduced basal resistance under more temperate conditions lowers the likelihood of ice detachment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Hanging glaciers are ice bodies on slopes or ending at bedrock cliffs, detached from the valley floor, so statement 1 is correct.
Their detachment can cause ice avalanches releasing large volumes of water and debris quickly, so statement 2 is correct.
As glaciers become more temperate, reduced basal resistance enhances the likelihood of detachment, so statement 3 reverses the idea and is incorrect.
b Omits statement 2, which is also correct.
c Statement 3 is wrongly included; reduced basal resistance enhances detachment likelihood.
d Statement 3 is incorrect, since reduced basal resistance raises, not lowers, the chance of detachment; statement 1 is also correct.
With reference to the strategic disinvestment of IDBI Bank, consider the following statements:
1. The Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment (CGD) has been empowered by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs to consider deviations from procedure for effective implementation of approved strategic disinvestment transactions.
2. The independent valuation of the enterprise is used as a fixed a-priori benchmark that every bid must meet.
3. Bidders were not told the valuation, and the valuers did not see the bids.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The CCEA, in its 16 August 2017 decision, empowered the CGD to take policy decisions on procedural issues and consider deviations.
The process was double blind: bidders did not know the valuation and valuers did not see the bids.
Statement 2 is wrong: there is no a-priori benchmark for bidding; the independent valuation is only a comparator to assess the reasonableness of bids, and bids can be above or below it.
a Statement 2 is incorrect because no a-priori benchmark exists; the valuation is only a comparator.
b Statement 2 is incorrect; the valuation is a comparator, not a fixed benchmark.
d Omits statement 3, which is also correct (double-blind process).
With reference to the observations of the Supreme Court on the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements:
1. The Court observed that the power to make staff appointments must remain with the NCLT president.
2. The Court observed that an employer-employee relationship must prevail between the staff members and the tribunal.
3. The Court directed the Ministry of Corporate Affairs to take over the recruitment of tribunal staff through outside contractors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
The Bench headed by the CJI said staff appointment power must remain with the NCLT president.
It also said an employer-employee relationship must prevail between staff and the tribunal.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Court criticised the outsourcing of appointments and the Ministry's grip, and suggested options like UPSC/SSC.
a Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court criticised the Ministry's control and outsourcing.
b Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court did not direct contractor-based recruitment by the Ministry.
With reference to the Supreme Court's recent hearing on firecrackers during Deepavali, consider the following statements:
1. The Bench observed that the right to religious freedom is subject to public health and the protection of fundamental rights.
2. The Bench expressed support for a complete ban on firecrackers as the only workable way to control pollution.
3. The Bench directed the Ministry of Environment to resolve the firecracker issue after taking stakeholders onboard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
The Bench said religious freedom is subject to public health and protection of fundamental rights, so statement 1 is correct.
The Bench directed the Environment Ministry to resolve the issue after taking stakeholders onboard, so statement 3 is correct.
The Bench said it was not in favour of a complete ban, as that may have a spiralling effect, so statement 2 is wrong.
a Omits statement 3, which is correct.
b Statement 2 is wrong because the court opposed a complete ban, and this option omits statement 1.
c Includes statement 2, which is wrong, and omits statement 3.
Statement-I: Signing a bond to keep the peace under the BNSS does not require the person to pay the bond amount at the outset.
Statement-II: Sureties undertake their own obligations under the bond and provide an additional source from which the amount may be recovered if the bond is lawfully forfeited.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer: (b)
The bond amount is payable only on default and forfeiture (Section 491), not at signing, so Statement-I is correct.
Sureties give an additional source of recovery on forfeiture, so Statement-II is correct.
Statement-II describes the role of sureties; it does not explain why no payment is due at the outset. That follows from the bond being only an undertaking, payable on default.
a Surety's role does not explain why no payment is due at the start; the bond is simply a conditional undertaking.
c Statement-II is correct as per the source.
d Statement-I is correct, as the bond amount is not paid at the outset.
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