GS Paper I of the 2022 Preliminary examination, held on 5 June 2022. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 21, Environment & Ecology 17, History 16, General Science 13, Geography 11, Polity & Governance 10, Current Events 9.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are emergency lending windows of the International Monetary Fund that provide quick, low-conditionality assistance to members facing urgent balance-of-payments needs — option (b).
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The NEER is a trade-weighted index of the rupee against a basket of currencies; the REER adjusts it for relative inflation. Statement 1 is correct: a rise in NEER means the rupee has appreciated against the basket in nominal terms.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: when inflation is high the RBI tightens liquidity by selling government securities (absorbing rupees), not buying them. Statement 2 is correct: to arrest a rapidly depreciating rupee the RBI sells dollars from its reserves, increasing dollar supply and supporting the rupee.
With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements : 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments, agreed in November 2020, was endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club of official creditors, bringing non-Paris Club lenders such as China into a common process — statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)" ? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Inflation-Indexed Bonds link their principal (and hence interest) to a price index such as the CPI, so real returns are preserved. Statement 1 is correct: because investors bear no inflation risk, they accept a lower real coupon, reducing the government's borrowing cost.
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — India allows 100% FDI in the marketplace model of e-commerce but not in the inventory model (Press Note 2, 2018). Statement 1 is wrong: a foreign-owned marketplace may only run a platform linking buyers and sellers; it cannot own inventory and sell its own goods.
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy ? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The real sector produces actual goods and services — agriculture, industry and services like transport — as opposed to the financial sector, which deals in money, credit and securities. Farmers harvesting crops (1) and textile mills converting cotton to fabric (2) are real-sector production.
Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Indirect transfer' refers to the sale of shares of a foreign company whose value derives substantially from assets located in India — for example, Vodafone's 2007 purchase of a Cayman Islands company that held Hutchison's Indian telecom business — option (d).
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Capital expenditure creates or acquires long-lived assets that yield benefits over years; revenue expenditure is spent on day-to-day operations. Statement 1 is correct: acquiring new technology — machinery, software, patents — is capital expenditure, recorded as an asset and depreciated.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: household financial savings held in bank deposits, provident funds, insurance and small-savings schemes are channelled by those institutions into government securities, so a share of household savings finances government borrowing.
Consider the following statements : 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted on the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee (1961–63). Statement 2 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 make the Supreme Court and High Courts 'courts of record' with power to punish for contempt of themselves.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Under the Advocates Act, 1961 an 'advocate' is an individual enrolled with a State Bar Council; corporate lawyers and patent attorneys who hold law degrees can enrol and be recognised, while legal firms as entities are not 'advocates' — so statement 1 is wrong on both counts.
Consider the following statements : 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: a Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House by a minister or private member and needs no prior recommendation of the President.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks; the four-tier hierarchy of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers is a matter of convention and executive practice (Article 74 refers only to the Council of…
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha alone (Article 75(3)), so only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion — item 2 is an exclusive power.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: under paragraph 2(3) of the Tenth Schedule a nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking his seat; he is disqualified only if he joins a party after that period.
Consider the following statements : 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 88 the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House and its committees (without a vote); the Solicitor General has no such right, and ministers who are members participate as members — so the AG and SG are not 'the only…
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Mandamus ('we command') directs a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty. Statement 1 is correct: it does not lie against a private body unless that body is entrusted with a public duty. Statement 2 is correct in the official key: the Supreme Court held in Praga Tools Corporation v.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: under Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker. Statement 3 is correct: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has all the powers of the Speaker, and his rulings are final and cannot be appealed.
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic conditions in which methanogenic bacteria produce methane; rice cultivation is the largest crop-related source of methane, contributing roughly 10% of global agricultural emissions.
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (d) — The System of Rice Intensification transplants single young seedlings at wide spacing and keeps the soil moist but not flooded, with alternate wetting and drying.
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Lake Faguibine in northern Mali, once one of West Africa's largest lakes fed by Niger river floods near Timbuktu, dried up progressively after the Sahel droughts of the 1970s–80s and is now largely desert, with shifting dunes covering former fishing villages — option (b).
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Gandikota, in Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh, is a spectacular gorge often called the 'Grand Canyon of India', carved by the Pennar (Penna) river through red sandstone and granite of the Erramala hills — option (c).
Consider the following pairs : Peak — Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: Nanda Devi (7,816 m), India's second-highest peak, stands in the Kumaon Himalaya of Uttarakhand. Pair 1 is wrong: Namcha Barwa (7,782 m) is the eastern anchor of the Himalaya where the Brahmaputra bends, in Tibet near Arunachal Pradesh — the Assam/Eastern Himalaya, not Garhwal.
The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Levant' (from the French for 'rising', i.e. where the sun rises) is the historical name for the lands along the eastern shore of the Mediterranean — today's Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, Jordan and sometimes Cyprus and parts of Turkey — option (a).
Consider the following countries : 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Afghanistan borders six countries: Pakistan, Iran, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and China (via the Wakhan corridor). Of the listed countries, Tajikistan (longest border, along the Amu Darya/Panj), Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan (across the Amu Darya at Termez) share borders — items 3, 4 and 5.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Monazite is a phosphate mineral found in beach placer sands that contains rare-earth elements (cerium, lanthanum, neodymium) and 8–10% thorium — statements 1 and 2 are correct.
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The longest day in the Northern Hemisphere falls on the summer solstice, when the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. The solstice occurs on 20, 21 or 22 June each year — that is, in the second half of June — option (b).
Consider the following pairs : Wetland/Lake — Location 1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 2 is correct: Renuka Wetland, a Ramsar site since 2005, is in Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Pair 3 is correct: Rudrasagar Lake, with the Neermahal palace, is in Tripura and has been a Ramsar site since 2005.
Consider the following : 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — India's flagship digital public goods are built on open-source foundations so that they can be audited, scaled and shared with other countries.
With reference to Web 3·0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3·0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3·0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3·0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Web 3.0 is the vision of a decentralised internet built on blockchains, in contrast to Web 2.0 dominated by platform companies. Statement 1 is correct: users hold their own data and identity in cryptographic wallets rather than on corporate servers.
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements : 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Software as a Service delivers applications over the internet on subscription, hosted and maintained by the provider, so users need no local installation.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) places a nuclear warhead into a low Earth orbit and then, before completing a full orbit, fires a retro-rocket to deorbit it onto a target — option (c). Because it can approach from any direction (e.g.
Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — A qubit (quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing; unlike a classical bit fixed at 0 or 1, a qubit can exist in a superposition of both states and be entangled with other qubits — option (b).
Consider the following communication technologies : 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Short-Range Devices (SRDs) are low-power radio devices operating over short distances in licence-exempt bands, as defined by the ITU and telecom regulators. Wireless CCTV systems transmitting video over a few hundred metres are classed as SRDs (item 1).
Consider the following statements : 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — A biofilm is a community of microorganisms attached to a surface and embedded in a self-produced slimy matrix. Statement 1 is correct: biofilms form on catheters, heart valves, joint implants and dental plaque, causing persistent infections.
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Probiotics are live microorganisms that confer a health benefit when consumed in adequate amounts. Statement 1 is correct: they include bacteria (Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium) and yeasts (Saccharomyces boulardii).
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: Covishield, made by the Serum Institute under licence from Oxford–AstraZeneca, is a viral-vector vaccine using a chimpanzee adenovirus, not an mRNA vaccine (mRNA vaccines are Pfizer–BioNTech and Moderna).
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth ? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — A major solar storm sends bursts of X-rays and charged particles that disturb the Earth's magnetosphere and ionosphere. Effects include failure of GPS and navigation signals (1), damage to power grids through geomagnetically induced currents, as in Quebec in 1989 (3), intense auroras extending to…
"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific project run by a consortium of research organisations — Climate Analytics and the NewClimate Institute — that rates countries' climate pledges and policies against the Paris Agreement goals — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Climate Group is an international non-profit that drives climate action through business and government networks such as RE100, EV100 and EP100 — statement 1 is correct.
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements : 1. The 24-hour mean of PM₂·₅ should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM₂·₅ should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM₁₀ can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: the WHO's 2021 Air Quality Guidelines set the annual mean for PM₂·₅ at 5 µg/m³ and the 24-hour mean at 15 µg/m³, far stricter than India's standards. Statement 4 is correct: ground-level ozone irritates the airways and can trigger asthma attacks and reduce lung function.
With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements : 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Gucchi is the Himalayan morel mushroom (Morchella species), a fungus prized for its honeycomb-like cap and sold at tens of thousands of rupees per kilogram — statement 1 is correct.
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is the plastic of beverage bottles and 'polyester' fibre. Statement 1 is correct: polyester fibre is widely blended with cotton and wool to add strength, crease-resistance and durability.
Which of the following is NOT a bird ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora) is a large freshwater fish of Himalayan rivers, prized by anglers and listed as endangered; it is not a bird — option (a). The Indian Nightjar is a nocturnal bird known for its 'stone-skipping' call.
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Nitrogen-fixing plants are legumes (family Fabaceae) that host Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules, converting atmospheric nitrogen into usable compounds. Alfalfa (lucerne), chickpea (gram) and clover are all legumes and fix nitrogen — items 1, 3 and 4.
“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Biorock (mineral accretion) technology passes a low-voltage electric current through steel frames placed in seawater; dissolved minerals crystallise on the frame as limestone, creating a growing substrate on which coral fragments are attached and grow several times faster — option (a).
The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Miyawaki method, devised by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, creates dense, fast-growing 'mini forests' on small plots by planting many native species close together in enriched soil.
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects ? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy in the provinces: 'reserved' subjects were administered by the Governor with his Executive Council, 'transferred' subjects by ministers responsible to the legislature.
In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The fanam was a small gold (later silver) coin of South India, current from the Chola period through the Vijayanagara empire and the Travancore and Mysore kingdoms — option (b).
Consider the following freedom fighters : 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Ghadar Party (1913) was founded by Punjabi immigrants in North America and planned an armed uprising in India in 1915.
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements : 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Cripps Mission (March 1942) offered dominion status after the war and a Constitution-making body. Statement 1 is wrong: members of the constituent body were to be elected by the Provincial Assemblies (by proportional representation), while the Princely States would nominate their…
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts : 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Parishishtaparvan by Hemachandra (12th century) is a Jaina work narrating the lives of Jain teachers and containing valuable accounts of the Mauryas and Chandragupta's conversion to Jainism — item 2 is Jaina.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs : Historical person — Known as 1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar 3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 2 is correct: Dignaga (c. 5th–6th century) was the Buddhist logician who founded the school of Buddhist logic and epistemology. Pair 3 is correct: Nathamuni (c. 10th century) was the first Sri Vaishnava acharya, who compiled the Alvars' hymns into the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: the first Mongol invasion of India came in 1221, when Chingiz Khan pursued Jalal-ud-din Mangbarni to the Indus during Iltutmish's reign — not under Jalal-ud-din Khalji (1290–96).
With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran" ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Kulah-daran' ('cap-wearers') was the term used in Sultanate-era chronicles for the Sayyids — those claiming descent from the Prophet — who wore a distinctive tall cap (kulah) as a mark of their lineage, in contrast to the turban-wearing nobility — option (d).
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Adil Shahi Sultanate of Bijapur in 1510, making it the capital of Portuguese India.
According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct ? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment. 2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free. 3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Arthashastra (Book III) regulates dasas (slaves) in detail and protects some of their rights. Statement 2 is correct: a female slave who bore her master a son was to be freed. Statement 3 is correct: such a son was to be treated as the master's son, with that legal status.
Consider the following States : 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Tea is grown commercially beyond Assam, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu. Kerala grows tea in Munnar and Wayanad; Himachal Pradesh has the GI-tagged Kangra tea around Palampur; Tripura is a major tea State of the North-East. Andhra Pradesh also has small-scale tea cultivation, though its output is minor.
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: credit rating agencies in India are registered with and regulated by SEBI under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999, not the RBI (the RBI only accredits them for bank-loan ratings).
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct ? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Banks Board Bureau was set up in 2016 on the recommendation of the P.J. Nayak Committee to improve governance of public-sector banks; in 2022 it was replaced by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau.
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements : 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — A convertible bond is a debt instrument that the holder may exchange for a fixed number of the issuer's shares. Statement 1 is correct: because the conversion option has value — the holder can share in equity gains — investors accept a lower coupon than on a plain bond.
Consider the following : 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (2016) and its second-largest shareholder after China. India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in June 2016, its first multilateral export-control grouping.
Consider the following statements : 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: Vietnam has grown at 6–7% a year for much of the past two decades, among the fastest in the world. Statement 3 is correct: its growth rests on integration into global supply chains and export manufacturing (electronics, garments, footwear), with exports exceeding GDP.
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under the amended RBI Act (2016), the primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping growth in mind; the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee targets CPI inflation at 4% with a 2–6% band — option (d).
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A Non-Fungible Token is a unique cryptographic token recorded on a blockchain that certifies ownership of a specific digital or physical item — statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following pairs : Reservoirs — States 1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are NOT correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The question asks how many pairs are NOT correctly matched. Pair 2 is correct: Gandhi Sagar dam on the Chambal is in Mandsaur district, Madhya Pradesh. Pair 1 is wrong: Ghataprabha reservoir (Hidkal dam) is in Belagavi district, Karnataka, not Telangana.
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment at Chandigarh and Shimla, compiles labour statistics: industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, lay-offs, wages and the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers — option (c).
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) ? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Coal Controller's Organisation, under the Ministry of Coal at Kolkata, dates from 1916 (as the Coal Commissioner; its powers were widened by the Colliery Control Order, 1944) and works under the Colliery Control Rules, 2004 and the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor of a State with Scheduled Areas to make regulations for their peace and good government, and specifically to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among Scheduled Tribes and to regulate money-lending.
Consider the following statements : 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the India Sanitation Coalition (2015) is a multi-stakeholder platform hosted by FICCI, bringing together companies, NGOs and funders; it is not funded by the Government of India and the WHO.
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, following a Supreme Court direction, to regulate and control groundwater development — option (c).
With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements : 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Credentials Committee is a nine-member body appointed by the UN General Assembly at the start of each session to examine the credentials of delegates and report to the Assembly — statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: it is a committee of the General Assembly, not the Security Council.
Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code' ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Polar Code — the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters — was adopted by the International Maritime Organization and came into force in 2017 — option (a).
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements : 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: the General Assembly grants observer status to non-member States — the Holy See and the State of Palestine are current examples.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is correct: the Tea Board is a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953. Statement 4 is correct: it has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow to promote Indian tea exports. Statement 2 is wrong: the Board functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Agriculture.
Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing" ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — 'Greenwashing' is marketing or public relations that creates a false or exaggerated impression that a company, product or policy is environmentally friendly — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Clouds affect the energy balance in two opposite ways: reflecting sunlight (cooling) and trapping outgoing infrared (warming); which dominates depends on the cloud's height and thickness.
Consider the following statements : 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is wrong: Bidibidi is in north-western Uganda (Yumbe district), not Kenya; opened in 2016, it became one of the world's largest refugee settlements. Statement 2 is correct: Bidibidi shelters more than 200,000 people who fled the civil war in South Sudan.
Consider the following countries : 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Organization of Turkic States (formerly the Turkic Council, renamed 2021) unites Turkic-speaking nations: Turkey, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Uzbekistan as members, with Turkmenistan and Hungary as observers.
Consider the following statements : 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world's first fully solar-powered airport in 2015 and won the UN Champions of the Earth award.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements : 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — UNCLOS (1982) codifies maritime zones and their rules; India ratified it in 1995. Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 lets a coastal State set its territorial sea up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Senkaku Islands (Diaoyu to China) are a group of uninhabited islets in the East China Sea administered by Japan since 1972 but claimed by China and Taiwan — option (b).
Consider the following pairs : Country — Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China 2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military 3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression 4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 2 is correct: in September 2021 Guinea's military ousted President Condé, suspended the constitution and dissolved the government.
Consider the following pairs : Region often mentioned in the news — Country 1. Anatolia — Turkey 2. Amhara — Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado — Spain 4. Catalonia — Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Anatolia (Asia Minor) is the Asian part of Turkey. Pair 2 is correct: Amhara is a region of Ethiopia drawn into the Tigray war and later its own insurgency. Pair 3 is wrong: Cabo Delgado is the northern province of Mozambique hit by an Islamist insurgency, not part of Spain.
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: Section 39 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 makes Government property only of wild animals that are hunted, killed, found dead or kept in contravention of the Act — not of all wild animals.
Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Leafcutter ants of the American tropics (Atta and Acromyrmex) cut leaves not to eat but to feed a fungus (Leucoagaricus) that they cultivate in underground gardens and on which the colony lives.
Consider the following pairs : Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts : Location in the State of 1. Dhauli — Odisha 2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi — Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Dhauli near Bhubaneswar, Odisha, has a major rock edict with the famous elephant carving, near the Kalinga battlefield. Pair 2 is correct: Erragudi (Yerragudi) in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh, has both major and minor rock edicts.
Consider the following pairs : King : Dynasty 1. Nannuka — Chandela 2. Jayashakti — Paramara 3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Pair 1 is correct: Nannuka (c. 831) founded the Chandela dynasty of Jejakabhukti (Bundelkhand). Pair 3 is correct: Nagabhata II (c. 805–833) was a Gurjara-Pratihara king who captured Kanauj.
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Sangam poems (c. 300 BCE–300 CE) show awareness of the northern varna scheme: the Tolkappiyam mentions the fourfold division of antanar (Brahmins), arasar (kings), vaisiyar and velalar, so option (b) is correct.
"Yogavāsistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Akbar's court sponsored a large programme of translating Sanskrit works into Persian through the Maktab Khana; the Yogavasistha, a Vedantic philosophical text, was rendered into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati in 1597 during Akbar's reign — option (a).
The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja ?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Ramanuja (11th–12th century), the philosopher of Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism), taught that the soul is distinct from but dependent on God, and that bhakti — loving devotion to Vishnu and surrender (prapatti) — is the best means to salvation — option (a).
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ? 1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: Somnath in Prabhas Patan, Gujarat, is traditionally the first of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. Statement 2 is correct: Al-Biruni, who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni, described the temple's wealth and the 1026 raid in his Kitab al-Hind.
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — B cells and T cells are lymphocytes, the core of the adaptive immune system. B cells produce antibodies that bind and neutralise pathogens; T cells include helper cells that coordinate the response and killer cells that destroy infected cells; both form memory cells for lasting immunity.
Consider the following statements : 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: nanoparticles occur naturally — in volcanic ash, sea spray, forest-fire smoke, dust and even biological structures. Statement 2 is correct: nanoparticles of titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are used in sunscreens and cosmetics for transparent UV protection.
Consider the following statements : DNA Barcoding can be a tool to : 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
UPSC's answer: (d) — DNA barcoding identifies species by sequencing a short standard gene region — the COI gene in animals, rbcL and matK in plants — and matching it against a reference library. Statement 2 is correct: it distinguishes species that look alike, including larvae, fragments and cryptic species.
Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Acid rain forms when sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides emitted from burning fossil fuels react with water and oxygen in the atmosphere to form sulphuric and nitric acids — items 2 and 4. Carbon monoxide is a toxic pollutant but does not form acids in rain.
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