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UPSC Prelims 2022 question paper

UPSC held the 2022 Preliminary examination on 5 June 2022 — GS Paper I from 9:30 to 11:30 am and CSAT from 2:30 to 4:30 pm. 175 questions from that day are below, each with the Commission's official answer and our explanation of why the other three options fail.

General Studies Paper I

97 questions

Economy 21 · Environment & Ecology 17 · History 16 · General Science 13 · Geography 11 · Polity & Governance 10 · Current Events 9

  1. Q1 "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?
  2. Q2 With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An…
  3. Q3 With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2…
  4. Q4 With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements : 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative…
  5. Q5 With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)" ? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2…
  6. Q6 With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering…
  7. Q7 Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy ? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial…
  8. Q8 Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?
  9. Q9 With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2…
  10. Q10 With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities…
  11. Q11 Consider the following statements : 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the…
  12. Q12 With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are…
  13. Q13 Consider the following statements : 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is…
  14. Q14 Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge…
  15. Q15 Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers…
  16. Q16 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six…
  17. Q17 Consider the following statements : 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the…
  18. Q18 With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with…
  19. Q20 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy…
  20. Q21 Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?
  21. Q22 "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane…
  22. Q23 Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ?
  23. Q24 Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?
  24. Q25 Consider the following pairs : Peak — Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above…
  25. Q26 The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ?
  26. Q27 Consider the following countries : 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ?
  27. Q28 With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire…
  28. Q29 In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :
  29. Q30 Consider the following pairs : Wetland/Lake — Location 1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil…
  30. Q31 Consider the following : 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms ?
  31. Q32 With reference to Web 3·0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3·0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3·0 world, there can be blockchain based…
  32. Q33 With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements : 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can…
  33. Q34 Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media ?
  34. Q35 Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned ?
  35. Q36 Consider the following communication technologies : 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered…
  36. Q37 Consider the following statements : 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can…
  37. Q38 Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but…
  38. Q39 In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named…
  39. Q40 If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth ? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could…
  40. Q41 "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :
  41. Q42 Consider the following statements : 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The…
  42. Q44 In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements : 1. The 24-hour mean of PM₂·₅ should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM₂·₅ should not…
  43. Q45 With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements : 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is…
  44. Q46 With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and…
  45. Q47 Which of the following is NOT a bird ?
  46. Q48 Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given…
  47. Q49 “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations ?
  48. Q50 The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the :
  49. Q51 In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as…
  50. Q52 In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to :
  51. Q53 Consider the following freedom fighters : 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar…
  52. Q54 With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements : 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as…
  53. Q55 With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts : 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are…
  54. Q56 With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs : Historical person — Known as 1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar 3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava…
  55. Q57 With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2. During the reign…
  56. Q58 With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran" ?
  57. Q59 With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati…
  58. Q60 According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct ? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment. 2. If a female slave bore her master…
  59. Q62 Consider the following States : 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States ?
  60. Q63 Consider the following statements : 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited…
  61. Q64 With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct ? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the…
  62. Q65 With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements : 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest…
  63. Q66 Consider the following : 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above ?
  64. Q67 Consider the following statements : 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system…
  65. Q68 In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?
  66. Q69 With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic…
  67. Q70 Consider the following pairs : Reservoirs — States 1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh How many…
  68. Q71 In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers ?
  69. Q72 In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) ? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of…
  70. Q73 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ?
  71. Q74 Consider the following statements : 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health…
  72. Q75 Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
  73. Q76 With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements : 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its…
  74. Q77 Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code' ?
  75. Q78 With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements : 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States. 2…
  76. Q79 With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of…
  77. Q80 Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing" ?
  78. Q81 Consider the following statements : 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation…
  79. Q82 Consider the following statements : 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some…
  80. Q83 Consider the following countries : 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States ?
  81. Q84 Consider the following statements : 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating…
  82. Q85 With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements : 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial…
  83. Q86 Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news ?
  84. Q87 Consider the following pairs : Country — Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China 2. Guinea — Suspension of…
  85. Q88 Consider the following pairs : Region often mentioned in the news — Country 1. Anatolia — Turkey 2. Amhara — Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado — Spain 4. Catalonia — Italy How many pairs…
  86. Q89 With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is…
  87. Q90 Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi ?
  88. Q91 Consider the following pairs : Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts : Location in the State of 1. Dhauli — Odisha 2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi…
  89. Q92 Consider the following pairs : King : Dynasty 1. Nannuka — Chandela 2. Jayashakti — Paramara 3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above…
  90. Q93 Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct ?
  91. Q94 "Yogavāsistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of :
  92. Q95 The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly…
  93. Q96 The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ? 1. Somnath…
  94. Q97 Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ?
  95. Q98 Consider the following statements : 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture…
  96. Q99 Consider the following statements : DNA Barcoding can be a tool to : 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable…
  97. Q100 Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ?

CSAT Paper II

78 questions

Comprehension 27 · Basic Numeracy 22 · Mental Ability 14 · Logical Reasoning 8 · Data Interpretation 7

  1. Q1 Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? 1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels 2. Limited availability of resources 3. Expansion of recycling Select…
  2. Q2 Consider the following statements : Developed countries can support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development by 1. making clean energy sources available…
  3. Q3 According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following? 1. Depletion of soil resource 2. Shortage of land for the common…
  4. Q4 What is the value of X in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?
  5. Q6 Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X…
  6. Q7 Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday?
  7. Q8 A bill for ₹ 1,840 is paid in the denominations of ₹ 50, ₹ 20 and ₹ 10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements : 1. 25 notes of ₹ 50 are used and the…
  8. Q9 Which number amongst 2⁴⁰, 3²¹, 4¹⁸ and 8¹² is the smallest?
  9. Q10 The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first…
  10. Q11 Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?
  11. Q12 Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the ‘poor’ debatable?
  12. Q13 Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the 'poor'?
  13. Q14 What does the author mean by 'poverty of a life'?
  14. Q15 X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3 : 2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first…
  15. Q16 If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents…
  16. Q17 In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the…
  17. Q18 How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5 ?
  18. Q19 Consider the Question and two Statements given below : Question : Is x an integer? Statement-1 : x/3 is not an integer. Statement-2 : 3x is an integer. Which one of the following…
  19. Q20 The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?
  20. Q21 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries. 2. Agricultural technology is…
  21. Q22 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing farming techniques. 2. Developed countries…
  22. Q23 Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge. 2. Corporate farming is a viable option…
  23. Q24 The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible?
  24. Q25 Consider the Question and two Statements given below : Question : Is Z brother of X ? Statement-1 : X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z. Statement-2 : X, Y and Z are…
  25. Q26 On one side of a 1·01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
  26. Q27 A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different roads from A to C. In how many different…
  27. Q28 A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now…
  28. Q29 In the series AABABCABCDABCDE..., which letter appears at the 100th place?
  29. Q30 Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons between B and C. If there are 11 persons…
  30. Q31 According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as 1. species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them…
  31. Q32 The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because
  32. Q33 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate…
  33. Q34 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
  34. Q35 How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and x seconds?
  35. Q37 Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State : Question : How far is city P from city Q? Statement-1 : City Q is 18 km…
  36. Q38 Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all…
  37. Q39 Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read…
  38. Q40 Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not necessarily in the same order. B and D sit…
  39. Q41 The passage is based on the idea that
  40. Q42 Man does not seek self-improvement because he
  41. Q43 Which of the following would invariably happen in a country, when the demographic dividend has begun to operate? 1. The number of illiterate people will decrease. 2. The ratio of…
  42. Q44 With reference to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn? 1. Demographic dividend is an essential condition for a country to rapidly increase its economic…
  43. Q45 Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below : 1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did. 2. P and Q together purchased 21…
  44. Q46 A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a…
  45. Q47 A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of…
  46. Q48 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Consider the Question and two Statements given…
  47. Q49 Consider the Question and two Statements given below : Question : What is the age of Manisha? Statement-1 : Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother. Statement-2 : 5 years…
  48. Q50 Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. Consider the Question and two Statements given below : Question : Which…
  49. Q51 Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
  50. Q52 With reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?
  51. Q53 The author of the passage is against
  52. Q54 Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition. Consider the following statements…
  53. Q55 There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing…
  54. Q56 There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the diameter as one side of the triangle?
  55. Q57 24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?
  56. Q58 What is the remainder when 91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99 is divided by 1261?
  57. Q59 Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm : 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exactly into 4 square sheets. 2. It is…
  58. Q60 When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of…
  59. Q61 Which one of the following is implied by the passage?
  60. Q62 What is the main idea of the passage?
  61. Q63 With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Conventions are the sources of rights of man. 2. Rights of man can be exercised only when…
  62. Q64 Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes…
  63. Q65 What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?
  64. Q66 Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If p × q = 2430, then what is the difference between p and q?
  65. Q67 Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number : 1. p × q can be an odd number. 2. q/p can…
  66. Q68 Consider the following statements : 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second…
  67. Q69 There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After mixing well, 20 ml of the mixture in Y…
  68. Q70 A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90°, 50°, 45° and 75° respectively, then what is the…
  69. Q71 The author's assumption about scientific research is that
  70. Q72 According to the author
  71. Q73 Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?
  72. Q74 If 15 × 14 × 13 × ⋯ × 3 × 2 × 1 = 3ᵐ × n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?
  73. Q75 What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X ?
  74. Q76 One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end…
  75. Q77 There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so…
  76. Q78 The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?
  77. Q79 What is the number of numbers of the form 0·XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?
  78. Q80 The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?

Question papers and answer keys: Union Public Service Commission. Explanations: UPSC Answer Check.

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