Daily current affairs · Sat, 26 Sept, 2026

Daily set — Sat, 26 Sept, 2026

What mattered in the last day or two — from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express, written in our own words — then 21 questions in UPSC's formats. +2 for a right answer, −0.67 for a wrong one, 0 for a blank.

  1. 1. PLI Scheme for Bulk Drugs: Five Greenfield Projects Commissioned

    Five greenfield projects under the PLI scheme have commissioned facilities for critical bulk drugs, enhancing domestic supply chain resilience and reducing import dependence.

    • Lyfius Pharma (Aurobindo subsidiary) restored Penicillin G manufacturing in Andhra Pradesh after ~30 years with ₹2,270 crore investment.
    • Kinvan Pvt Ltd established India's first fermentation-based Clavulanic Acid facility in Himachal Pradesh.
    • Meghmani LLP set up a Para Amino Phenol (PAP) plant in Gujarat, securing Paracetamol inputs.
    • Andhra Organics reduced Sulfadiazine imports by ~73% since 2022 through local production.
    • Centrient Pharmaceuticals launched Atorvastatin API production in Punjab with >80% domestic value addition.
    Key terms
    Key Starting Materials (KSMs)
    — Basic chemical compounds used as the starting point for synthesizing APIs and drug intermediates.
    Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs)
    — The biologically active components in a medicine that produce the intended therapeutic effect.
    Backward Integration
    — A strategy where a company controls its supply chain by producing raw materials or intermediate components domestically.
    β-lactamase Inhibitor
    — A substance (like Clavulanic Acid) that prevents bacteria from destroying penicillin-group antibiotics, thereby restoring their effectiveness.
  2. 2. ICG Ship Shaunak Leads QUAD-at-Sea Observer Mission

    The Indian Coast Guard deployed ICGS Shaunak to Australia for the QUAD-at-Sea mission, hosting officers from all four member nations to enhance maritime interoperability.

    • ICG Ship Shaunak sailed from Chennai to Perth on September 25, 2026.
    • Six 'Sea Riders' participated: two each from India and Japan, one each from Australia and the US.
    • Mission aligns with the Quad Foreign Ministers’ Joint Statement of May 26, 2026.
    • Objective is to strengthen interoperability, coordination, and mutual trust among QUAD nations.
    • Supports India’s MAHASAGAR vision for a secure Indo-Pacific maritime environment.
    Key terms
    QUAD-at-Sea
    — A maritime cooperation initiative involving naval and coast guard assets of India, Australia, Japan, and the United States.
    MAHASAGAR
    — India's maritime vision acronym for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
    Interoperability
    — The ability of different military or security forces to work together effectively through shared standards and communication.
  3. 3. 6th Cycle of Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves Launched

    The Union Environment Minister launched the 6th cycle of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) for all 58 Indian Tiger Reserves, introducing new criteria like solid waste management.

    • Launched by Union Minister Bhupender Yadav in New Delhi on September 25, 2026.
    • Organized by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
    • Covers all 58 Tiger Reserves across India.
    • Introduces 'Solid Waste Management' as a separate evaluation criterion for the first time.
    • Based on the IUCN World Commission on Protected Areas (WCPA) Framework.
    Key terms
    Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE)
    — A systematic assessment of how well protected areas are managed to achieve their conservation goals.
    National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
    — A statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change responsible for implementing the Project Tiger scheme.
    IUCN WCPA Framework
    — An international standard developed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature's World Commission on Protected Areas for assessing management effectiveness.
  4. 4. CGTMSE Guarantee Cover Integrated with TReDS for MSMEs

    The Ministry of MSME has integrated CGTMSE credit guarantees with the TReDS platform to enhance working capital access and mitigate financing risks for micro and small enterprises.

    • CGTMSE portal is now integrated with three TReDS platforms: M1xchange, RXIL, and DTX (KredX).
    • The initiative fulfills a Union Budget 2026–27 announcement regarding credit guarantee cover on trade receivables.
    • Guarantee cover extends to 75% of the default amount for eligible Micro and Small Enterprises.
    • Maximum exposure limits are set at ₹10 crore for MSE buyers and ₹2 crore for MSE sellers on a revolving basis.
    • TReDS invoice discounting volume surged from ₹40,000 crore in FY 2021-22 to ₹3.5 lakh crore in FY 2025-26.
    Key terms
    TReDS
    — An RBI-regulated electronic platform for financing and discounting trade receivables of MSMEs through competitive bidding.
    CGTMSE
    — Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises, which provides credit guarantees to facilitate bank loans to MSEs.
    Invoice Discounting
    — A financial practice where a business sells its unpaid invoices to a third party at a discount to receive immediate cash flow.
  5. 5. TDB-DST backs Agnikul Cosmos for ₹200 crore reusable launch vehicle

    The Technology Development Board has sanctioned ₹200 crore to Agnikul Cosmos to advance the Agnibaan RLV from TRL-4 to TRL-8, aiming for full-system reusability.

    • ₹200 crore financial support provided via Optionally Convertible Debentures (OCD)
    • Project aims to elevate technology readiness level (TRL) from 4+ to 8
    • Focuses on 'Agnibaan RLV', a fully reusable launch vehicle architecture
    • Key technologies include semi-cryogenic liquid propulsion with deep throttling and restart capability
    • Objective is high-frequency launches, cost reduction, and minimizing space debris
    Key terms
    Technology Readiness Level (TRL)
    — A scale from 1 to 9 measuring the maturity of a technology, with TRL-8 indicating system completion and qualification.
    Optionally Convertible Debentures (OCD)
    — Debt instruments that can be converted into equity shares at a predetermined time or under specific conditions.
    Semi-cryogenic Liquid Propulsion
    — Rocket engines using propellants stored at moderately low temperatures, offering a balance between performance and operational simplicity.
    Deep Throttling
    — The ability of a rocket engine to vary its thrust output over a wide range, essential for controlled landing and maneuvering.
  6. 6. Caste Data Tabulation Method Undecided for Census 2027

    The Union government has not yet finalized the methodology to sort and rationalize caste data collected via an open-column format in the second phase of the 2027 Census.

    • Open-column method allows free-text entry of caste names, unlike list-based surveys in Bihar or Telangana.
    • Respondents can choose a 'no-caste' option or decline to disclose their caste.
    • Critics warn this may replicate the 2011 SECC issue of generating over 46 lakh distinct caste entries.
    • Decision on tabulation rests with the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner, escalating to Home Secretary/Cabinet.
    • Fieldwork begins in remote areas like Ladakh now; rest of India starts February 2027.
    Key terms
    Open-column method
    — A data collection technique where respondents write their answer freely rather than selecting from a predefined list.
    Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC)
    — A 2011 exercise that collected caste and economic data but was criticized for generating excessive, unstandardized caste identifiers.
    Rationalisation
    — The process of sorting, grouping, and standardizing raw data into meaningful categories for analysis and policy use.
  7. 7. Make in India: 12 Years of Low and Patchy Impact

    Twelve years after its launch, the Make in India initiative has shown limited success in significantly boosting manufacturing's share in growth, employment, or global exports.

    • Launched on September 25, 2014
    • Manufacturing share in GDP, employment, and exports remains largely unchanged
    • Recent incentive schemes have yielded gains only in a few sectors
    • Impact described as low and patchy across 12 key metrics
    Key terms
    Make in India
    — A national campaign launched in 2014 to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub.
    Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
    — Government schemes providing financial incentives to companies for incremental production in specific sectors.
  8. 8. Centre's 2026 Mining Law Sparks State Opposition

    Parliament passed an amendment to the Mines and Minerals Act to cap state levies on mining, overriding a 2024 Supreme Court ruling and triggering protests in mineral-rich states over potential revenue loss.

    • The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2026, restricts states from imposing specified levies on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land.
    • The law extinguishes unpaid dues from pre-existing state levies, with estimates of outstanding dues reaching Rs 2 lakh crore.
    • The amendment overrides the July 25, 2024, Supreme Court ruling that upheld states' exclusive power to tax mineral rights and mineral-bearing lands.
    • The 2024 judgment had previously overruled the 1989 India Cement Ltd v. State of Tamil Nadu verdict, which held that royalty was a tax falling under the Union List.
    • States like Jharkhand and Tamil Nadu had imposed Mineral-Bearing Land (MBL) taxes, with Jharkhand raising its iron ore tax to Rs 400 per tonne.
    Key terms
    Mineral-Bearing Land (MBL) Tax
    — A levy imposed by states on mineral-bearing land, which the new central law seeks to restrict or extinguish.
    Own Non-Tax Revenue
    — Revenue generated by states from sources other than taxes, where mineral and petroleum receipts constitute a significant portion (41% nationally).
    Union List
    — The constitutional list of subjects on which only the central government has legislative competence, previously cited in the 1989 ruling regarding royalty.
  9. 9. Can the Chinese Yuan Displace the US Dollar?

    Analysis of the yuan's limited potential to challenge dollar hegemony despite rising de-dollarization trends and geopolitical tensions.

    • US GDP is ~$32 trillion vs China's ~$21 trillion, with China surpassing the Euro area (~$20 trillion).
    • The 'exorbitant privilege' allows the US to print dollars for global trade without causing domestic inflation.
    • Yuan's share in SWIFT payments peaked at 4.7% (July 2024) but fell to 2.75%, ranking sixth.
    • Dollar accounts for over 50% of global transactions and foreign exchange reserves.
    • China’s Cross-Border Interbank Payment System (CIPS) is gaining traction as an alternative settlement mechanism.
    Key terms
    Exorbitant Privilege
    — The unique advantage enjoyed by the US due to the dollar's status as the world's primary reserve currency, allowing it to borrow cheaply and run deficits.
    SWIFT
    — A global financial messaging network used by banks to securely transmit information and instructions such as money transfer orders.
    CIPS
    — Cross-Border Interbank Payment System, a Chinese initiative designed to facilitate international clearing and settlement of the yuan.
  10. 10. Veer Guardian: First Japanese Fighter Deployment in India

    The second edition of the Veer Guardian air exercise marked a milestone with the deployment of Japanese F-2A fighters to Jodhpur, signaling a deepening focus on military interoperability between India and Japan.

    • Japanese Mitsubishi F-2A fighter aircraft were deployed to India for the first time during the bilateral exercise.
    • Veer Guardian 2026 was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur from September 9 to 22.
    • The exercise involved joint mission planning, operational sorties, and air combat manoeuvring (ACM).
    • India-Japan defence cooperation now spans all three services via Veer Guardian (Air), Dharma Guardian (Land), and JIMEX (Maritime).
    • Japan's 2022 National Security Strategy identifies Chinese unilateral action as its greatest strategic challenge.
    Key terms
    Interoperability
    — The capacity of different forces to work together cogently and efficiently to achieve strategic or operational objectives, covering technical, procedural, and human dimensions.
    Air Combat Manoeuvring (ACM)
    — A tactical aerial engagement involving evasive and offensive maneuvers to gain an advantage over an adversary in the air.
    Free and Open Indo-Pacific
    — A strategic vision advocated by India and Japan for an inclusive regional order where no single power attempts to dominate the area.
  11. 11. Iran's Seven-Day Plan to End US Conflict and Reopen Strait of Hormuz

    Iran proposed a compressed seven-day roadmap to the US, via intermediaries, to end hostilities, lift sanctions, and reopen the strategically vital Strait of Hormuz.

    • Proposed by Iranian FM Abbas Araghchi at the UN General Assembly on September 24.
    • Aims to reopen the Strait of Hormuz, which handles ~20% of global oil flows, within seven days.
    • Requires the US to waive oil sanctions, release $12 billion in frozen assets, and lift naval blockades.
    • Builds upon a failed June Memorandum of Understanding that had a 60-day ceasefire extension.
    • Negotiations are ongoing through Qatari intermediaries despite public threats from US President Donald Trump.
    Key terms
    Strait of Hormuz
    — A narrow waterway between Iran and Oman that serves as a critical chokepoint for global oil transportation.
    Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
    — An agreement between two or more parties outlining their intended common line of action, here referring to the failed June deal.
    Midterm Elections
    — US general elections held midway through a president's four-year term, influencing current diplomatic urgency.
  12. 12. TRAI Launches Digital Connectivity Rating Platform

    TRAI has launched a digital platform to rate and verify the connectivity quality of properties, empowering consumers with transparent data.

    • Launched by Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) on September 25, 2026.
    • Implements the 'Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity' Regulations, 2024 (amended in 2026).
    • Connects Property Managers, registered Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRAs), and consumers.
    • Includes a mobile app for field assessments and eSign integration for certificate verification.
    • Assesses parameters like fibre readiness, mobile network availability, and Wi-Fi infrastructure.
    Key terms
    Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR)
    — A standardized metric assessing a property's readiness for digital services based on fibre, mobile, and Wi-Fi benchmarks.
    Digital Connectivity Rating Agency (DCRA)
    — Registered entities authorized by TRAI to conduct field assessments and issue connectivity ratings for properties.
    Property Manager (PM)
    — Individuals or entities responsible for managing real estate assets who register properties for rating on the DCR platform.
  13. 13. Government Borrowing Plan for H2 FY 2026-27

    The Government of India plans to borrow ₹7.86 lakh crore in the second half of FY 2026-27, including green bonds and treasury bills.

    • Total gross market borrowing for H2 FY 2026-27 is set at ₹7,86,000 crore.
    • Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) issuance accounts for ₹15,000 crore of the total.
    • Borrowing will be executed through 23 weekly auctions across various tenors.
    • Treasury Bills (T-Bills) worth ₹23,000 crore per week are planned for Q3.
    • Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit is fixed at ₹50,000 crore for H2.
    Key terms
    Sovereign Green Bonds
    — Debt instruments issued by the government specifically to raise funds for environmentally friendly projects.
    Treasury Bills
    — Short-term government debt obligations with maturities of less than one year, used to manage immediate cash needs.
    Ways and Means Advances
    — A facility provided by the RBI to the government to meet temporary mismatches in receipts and expenditures.
    Greenshoe Option
    — A provision allowing the issuer to sell additional shares or bonds if there is high demand during an auction.
  14. 14. Kerala Seeks Limiting Western Ghats ESA to Forest Areas

    Kerala has formally recommended limiting the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) in the Western Ghats to forest regions only, excluding populated and agricultural lands.

    • Kerala proposes reducing the ESA from 9,993.7 sq km to 8,590.69 sq km.
    • The state seeks to exclude populated areas, farmlands, and plantations entirely.
    • Recommendations were submitted by Special Secretary M.G. Rajamanickam on September 24, 2026.
    • The proposal aims to resolve issues stemming from multiple draft notifications issued between 2014 and July 2026.
    • Kerala argues that adding new restrictions to existing stringent laws could hinder development and agriculture.
    Key terms
    Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA)
    — Regions designated for special protection due to their fragile ecosystem, biodiversity, or susceptibility to environmental degradation.
    Kasturirangan Committee
    — A committee formed in 2012 to recommend measures for protecting the Western Ghats, whose 2013 report suggested a large ESA.
    Draft Notification
    — Preliminary official announcements by the government regarding policy changes, open for public objection before becoming law.
  15. 15. India's Fuel Crossover: EVs vs Alternative Fuels in Vehicle Sales

    FADA data reveals a historic shift where alternative fuels overtook petrol in passenger vehicles, driven largely by two/three-wheeler EVs and CNG/LPG hybrids rather than pure electric cars.

    • August 2026 marked a 'historic fuel crossover' with alternative fuels (41.95%) overtaking petrol (40.85%) in new passenger vehicle registrations.
    • Petrol and diesel still dominate the overall market at 83.5%, down from over 95% in 2021.
    • EVs account for 10.6% of total vehicle registrations, with rapid adoption in three-wheelers (60.5% share) and two-wheelers (9.1% share).
    • In the car segment, the decline in petrol/diesel is primarily due to increased sales of CNG/LPG hybrids, not pure EVs.
    Key terms
    Fuel Crossover
    — A milestone where the combined market share of non-petrol/diesel powertrains exceeds that of traditional internal combustion engine vehicles.
    Alternative Fuels
    — In this context, a category comprising Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), hybrid systems, and Electric Vehicles (EVs).
    Vahan Portal
    — The central government's digital platform for vehicle registration data, used here for granular analysis of fuel-type trends.
  16. 16. US-Denmark-Greenland Security Deal: Strategic Shift

    A new tripartite security agreement grants the US expanded military access to Greenland, reinforcing NATO's Arctic strategy while formally restricting hostile power investments.

    • Signed on September 22 by leaders of the US, Denmark, and Greenland.
    • Allows US construction of military facilities in Narsarsuaq (south) and Mestersvig (east).
    • Formalizes a ban on non-NATO countries establishing military bases or investing in sensitive sectors like rare earths.
    • Ensures indefinite US access even if Greenland achieves independence, provided it remains in NATO.
    • Replaces Trump’s earlier threats of acquisition with a diplomatic compromise expanding existing Pituffik Space Base presence.
    Key terms
    Pituffik Space Base
    — Existing US military installation in Greenland used for missile warning and space surveillance.
    Arctic Strategy
    — Geopolitical focus on securing influence over the Arctic region due to its emerging economic and military significance.
    Rare Earths
    — Critical mineral resources essential for high-tech industries, whose investment is restricted to NATO allies under the new deal.
  17. 17. Cybercrime Victims' Mistrust in Authority Hinders Recovery

    A new report reveals that fear of authority and lack of bank accountability significantly impede cybercrime victims' ability to recover losses.

    • The Status of Policing in India Report 2026 was published by Lokniti-CSDS and Common Cause.
    • 72% of cybercrime victims failed to recover any lost money, while only 10% recovered the full amount.
    • Victims are less likely than non-victims to believe police are well-equipped to handle cybercrimes (23% vs 31%).
    • Experts attribute vulnerability to 'social engineering' and a deep-seated fear of public authority rather than just digital illiteracy.
    Key terms
    Social Engineering
    — Manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that compromise security through deception and trust-building.
    Digital Arrest
    — A type of cyber fraud where victims are coerced into believing they are under arrest by authorities via digital means, often leading to extortion.
    Mule Accounts
    — Bank accounts used by criminals to receive and transfer illegally obtained funds to disguise their origin.
  18. 18. J&K HC Quashes PSA Detention: Law and Order vs Public Order

    The Jammu & Kashmir High Court ruled that personal disputes affecting 'law and order' do not justify preventive detention under the Public Safety Act, which requires a threat to 'public order'.

    • The J&K and Ladakh High Court quashed the preventive detention of Mohd. Yousuf under the J&K Public Safety Act (PSA).
    • The court distinguished between 'law and order' issues and 'public order' threats, citing the Supreme Court's concentric circles doctrine.
    • Detention was deemed unjustified as the allegations involved personal altercations and private enmity rather than community-wide disruption.
    • The bench emphasized that ordinary criminal law is sufficient for such cases, reserving PSA for extraordinary situations.
    • Justice Sanjay Dhar led the bench, referencing precedents like Ram Manohar Lohia v. State of Bihar.
    Key terms
    Public Safety Act (PSA)
    — A preventive detention law allowing authorities to detain individuals without trial if they are deemed prejudicial to public order or state security.
    Preventive Detention
    — Detention of a person without trial to prevent them from committing future offenses, distinct from punitive detention after conviction.
    Law and Order
    — A broader concept covering all breaches of peace, including minor crimes and personal disputes, which may not affect the community at large.
    Public Order
    — A narrower subset of law and order involving disturbances that affect the even tempo of community life and public tranquility.
  19. 19. West Bengal Anti-Goonda Bill: Preventive Detention & Presidential Return

    West Bengal's new anti-Goonda Bill, a preventive detention law allowing up to 12-month detention without trial, was returned by the President after the Governor reserved it, sparking legal and constitutional debates.

    • Passed by the West Bengal Assembly on June 29, 2026, by the new BJP government.
    • Permits detention for up to 12 months without trial and external orders barring entry to specific areas.
    • Defines 'goonda' broadly as anyone reputed to be desperate/dangerous or a habitual offender.
    • Three PILs in the Calcutta High Court were dismissed as premature before Presidential assent.
    • The President returned the Bill to the state legislature for reconsideration under Article 201.
    Key terms
    Preventive Detention
    — A legal mechanism allowing the state to detain individuals without trial to prevent them from engaging in activities deemed harmful to public order or security.
    Extern Order
    — A legal directive barring a person from entering or residing in a specified area, district, or state for a defined period to prevent anti-social activity.
    Article 200
    — A constitutional provision governing the Governor's role in state legislation, including the power to reserve Bills for the President's consideration, especially if they affect High Court powers.
    Article 201
    — A constitutional clause detailing the President's options when a state Bill is reserved, including the power to return it to the legislature for reconsideration.
  20. 20. J&K Assembly Resolution Demands Full Statehood Restoration

    The Jammu & Kashmir Assembly passed a resolution urging the Centre to restore full statehood, triggering strong protests from the BJP over references to past autonomy resolutions.

    • Chief Minister Omar Abdullah moved a resolution calling for the immediate restoration of full statehood to J&K.
    • The resolution cites previous Assembly decisions from June 26, 2000 (Autonomy Resolution) and November 6, 2024.
    • BJP MLAs protested in the well of the House, labeling the resolution 'anti-national' and rejecting any debate on Article 370 or pre-1953 status.
    • Speaker Abdul Rahim Rather adjourned the House after continuous disruptions between ruling National Conference and opposition BJP members.
    Key terms
    Statehood Resolution
    — A formal legislative request by a state assembly asking the central government to restore or grant full state status.
    Pre-1953 Constitutional Position
    — The administrative setup in J&K before 1953, characterized by distinct titles for leaders and specific autonomy provisions.
    Union Territory Legislature
    — The elected body governing a Union Territory with limited powers compared to a full state legislature.

The 21 questions

Answers are shown below. Want to attempt them first?

Consider the following statements regarding the status of Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) negotiations in the Western Ghats as of mid-2026: 1. Kerala sought to reduce its ground-truthed ESA area from 9,993 sq. km to 8,805 sq. km. 2. Maharashtra and Goa sought to have 378 and 21 villages omitted from the ESA framework, respectively. 3. Tamil Nadu had no substantive disagreement with the Centre regarding the ESA framework. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states Kerala wanted to reduce its area from 9,993 sq. km to 8,805 sq. km.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text states Maharashtra and Goa wanted 378 and 21 villages omitted, respectively.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text explicitly mentions that Tamil Nadu had no substantive disagreement.
  • a All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
  • b All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
  • d All three statements are factually supported by the source text.
source (The Hindu)

Consider the following statements regarding the history and features of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves (MEE-TR): 1. MEE was initiated in India in 2006, and five cycles have been completed prior to the 6th cycle launched in 2026. 2. A significant new feature introduced in the 6th Cycle (2026) is the inclusion of 'Solid Waste Management' as a separate evaluation criterion. 3. The 5th Cycle of MEE-TR covered all 58 Tiger Reserves currently existing in the country. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text confirms MEE was initiated in 2006 and lists five completed cycles (2006, 2010, 2014, 2018, 2022).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The release highlights 'Solid Waste Management' as a significant new feature of MEE-TR 2026.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states the 5th Cycle (2022) covered 51 Tiger Reserves. It is the 6th Cycle that will cover all 58 Tiger Reserves.
  • a Statements 1 and 2 are both correct, so 'Only one' is wrong.
  • c Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the coverage of the 5th cycle.
  • d Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
source (PIB)

With reference to the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), consider the following statements: 1. It is an electronic platform regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 2. It facilitates financing and discounting of trade receivables due from corporate buyers, Government Departments, and Public Sector Undertakings. 3. The Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) recently integrated its guarantee cover with TReDS platforms like M1xchange, RXIL, and DTX. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (a)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: TReDS is an RBI-regulated electronic platform, not SEBI-regulated.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly states TReDS finances receivables due from corporate buyers, Govt Departments, and PSUs.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The release confirms CGTMSE integration with M1xchange, RXIL, and DTX.
  • b Statement 1 is incorrect as TReDS is RBI-regulated.
  • c Statement 1 is incorrect as TReDS is RBI-regulated.
  • d Statement 1 is incorrect as TReDS is RBI-regulated.
source (PIB)

Consider the following statements regarding military interoperability in the context of India-Japan defence cooperation: 1. Procedural interoperability relies on shared doctrines, standard operating procedures, and terminologies. 2. The lack of interoperability was highlighted during the Ukraine-Russia war due to issues with Western-donated artillery and NATO training assumptions. 3. India and Japan currently conduct joint exercises across all three services, including Dharma Guardian at sea and JIMEX on land. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text defines procedural interoperability as relying on shared doctrines, standard operating procedures, and terminologies.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text cites the Ukraine-Russia war as an example where functional interchangeability was missing in donated artillery and NATO playbooks failed in contested airspace.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states that Dharma Guardian is a land exercise and JIMEX is a maritime exercise. The statement swaps their domains.
  • a Two statements are correct, not one.
  • c Statement 3 is incorrect due to the mismatch of exercise types and domains.
  • d Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following statements regarding the transition trends in India's two-wheeler and three-wheeler segments up to August 2026: 1. The share of EVs in two-wheelers jumped significantly from 6.4% in 2025 to 9.1% in 2026. 2. Three-wheelers constitute the largest segment of total vehicle registrations in India. 3. The share of petrol and diesel in three-wheeler registrations has halved since 2021. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text notes a jump in EV share in two-wheelers from 6.4% (2025) to 9.1% (2026 till August).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Two-wheelers account for over 70% of new vehicles, while three-wheelers account for only 4%. Thus, three-wheelers are not the largest segment.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The share of petrol and diesel in three-wheelers dropped from nearly 30% in 2021 to less than 15% in 2026, effectively halving.
  • a Two statements (1 and 3) are correct, not just one.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect because three-wheelers are a minor segment (4%), not the largest.
  • d Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
source (The Hindu)

In the context of the Supreme Court's jurisprudence on preventive detention, particularly in Ram Manohar Lohia v. State of Bihar, how is the relationship between 'Law and Order', 'Public Order', and 'Security of the State' best described?

Answer: (c)

  • The source text explicitly cites the Supreme Court's observation in Ram Manohar Lohia v. State of Bihar describing these concepts as "three concentric circles".
  • It clarifies that "Law and order represents the largest circle," "public order occupying a narrower category" (the next circle), and "security of State" as the "smallest circle".
  • This hierarchy implies that an act may affect law and order without necessarily affecting public order.
  • a The text describes them as concentric circles, implying overlap and hierarchy, not distinct non-overlapping categories.
  • b This reverses the hierarchy stated in the text; 'Security of the State' is the smallest circle, not the largest.
  • d This contradicts the text, which places 'Public Order' inside the larger 'Law and Order' circle, not the other way around.
source (Indian Express)

According to the 'Status of Policing in India Report 2026: Cybercrime—Victim Perspectives and Systemic Responses', which of the following statements regarding the recovery of funds by cybercrime victims is correct?

Answer: (d)

  • The report states that only one in ten victims could recover the whole amount.
  • Statement a is wrong because 72% (three out of four) could not recover any money.
  • Statement c is wrong because the report highlights the lack of any mechanism for accountability of banks.
  • Statement d is wrong because only 23% of victims believe police are well-equipped, whereas 31% is the figure for non-victims.
  • a 23% of victims believe police are well-equipped; 31% is the percentage of non-victims who hold this view.
  • b 72% is the percentage of victims who could NOT recover any money, not those who recovered the full amount.
  • c The report explicitly highlights the lack of a mechanism for bank accountability.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Bulk Drugs, consider the following statements: 1. The scheme aims to strengthen domestic manufacturing capabilities in Key Starting Materials (KSMs), Drug Intermediates (DIs), and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs). 2. Under this scheme, India's first fermentation-based manufacturing facility for Potassium Clavulanate was established in Andhra Pradesh. 3. The commissioning of Penicillin G facilities under this scheme restored domestic manufacturing after a gap of about three decades. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release explicitly states the PLI Scheme for Bulk Drugs strengthens domestic capabilities in KSMs, DIs, and APIs.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The release states that Kinvan Private Limited established India's first fermentation-based facility for Potassium Clavulanate at Nalagarh, Himachal Pradesh, not Andhra Pradesh.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The release notes that the Lyfius Pharma project resulted in the restoration of domestic manufacturing of Penicillin G after a gap of about three decades.
  • b Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the location of the Potassium Clavulanate facility.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the location of the Potassium Clavulanate facility.
  • d Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the location of the Potassium Clavulanate facility.
source (PIB)

With reference to the second phase of the 2027 Census in India, consider the following statements: 1. The caste question is being introduced in India’s census forms for the first time since Independence. 2. The open-column method for recording caste is identical to the method used by the Bihar and Telangana governments in their respective caste surveys. 3. The second phase of the 2027 Census lists a total of 40 questions, of which 13 are new data fields not part of the 2011 Census. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states the caste question is introduced for the first time since Independence.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The open-column method is explicitly described as 'unlike' the list-based method used by Bihar and Telangana.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text confirms 40 total questions with 13 new fields in the second phase.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect because the open-column method differs from the list-based method used by Bihar and Telangana.
  • b Statement 2 is incorrect because the open-column method differs from the list-based method used by Bihar and Telangana.
  • d Statement 2 is incorrect because the open-column method differs from the list-based method used by Bihar and Telangana.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the global financial system and the role of the US dollar, consider the following statements: 1. The 'exorbitant privilege' of the US dollar allows the US to print more dollars to pay for imports, as other countries accept these dollars to buy US bonds, thereby avoiding domestic inflation from excess money supply. 2. The removal of Russian banks from the SWIFT system in 2022 was a unilateral action taken solely by the US government to punish Russia for its invasion of Ukraine. 3. By July 2024, the Chinese Yuan had overtaken the Euro and the British Pound to become the second most used currency in the world for global payments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explains that the US can print dollars to buy goods because other parties accept them to buy US bonds, preventing the domestic inflation that would occur if a country like India printed excess money.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states that the removal of Russian banks from SWIFT was led by the US (under Joe Biden) and 'other Western countries,' not solely by the US.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text states that by July 2024, the Yuan became the fourth most used currency, overtaking the Japanese Yen and Canadian Dollar, while the Euro and British Pound remained ahead of it.
  • a Statement 3 is wrong because the Yuan was the fourth most used currency, not the second (it did not overtake the Euro or Pound).
  • c Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect for the reasons stated above.
  • d Statement 2 is wrong because the action was led by the US and other Western countries, not solely by the US. Statement 3 is wrong because the Yuan was the fourth most used currency, not the second.
source (Indian Express)

With reference to the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The mission involves the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and is aligned with the Quad Foreign Ministers’ Joint Statement. 2. The participating Sea Riders include two officers each from India and Japan, and one officer each from Australia and the United States. 3. The mission underscores India’s maritime vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release explicitly states the mission is part of the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission involving ICG Ship Shaunak and aligns with the Quad Foreign Ministers’ Joint Statement of May 26, 2026.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text specifies that six Sea Riders embarked, comprising two officers each from India and Japan, and one officer each from Australia and the US.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The release cites India’s maritime vision as MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions), not SAGAR.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect because the vision cited is MAHASAGAR, not SAGAR.
  • b Statement 2 is correct, so excluding it makes this option wrong; also Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • c Statement 3 is incorrect because the vision cited is MAHASAGAR, not SAGAR.
source (PIB)

With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The Act seeks to restrict states from imposing specified levies on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land. 2. It extinguishes unpaid or unrecovered dues arising from such levies imposed before the Act comes into force. 3. The Act upholds the key financial aspects of the July 2024 Supreme Court ruling regarding states' exclusive power to tax mineral rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The amendments explicitly seek to restrict states from imposing specified levies on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The law extinguishes unpaid or unrecovered dues arising from such levies imposed before it comes into force.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The amendments override the key financial aspects of the landmark 2024 Supreme Court ruling (which had upheld states' exclusive power to tax), rather than upholding them.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect as the Act overrides the 2024 SC ruling's financial aspects.
  • c Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • d Statement 3 is incorrect.
source (Indian Express)

In the context of the Make in India campaign's impact over its first twelve years, which of the following statements is correct?

Answer: (c)

  • The text explicitly states that a look at 12 metrics shows the manufacturing sector's share in growth, employment, and exports has 'remained largely the same' since the launch.
  • Options a, b, and d contradict the text by claiming significant increases, dominance, or universal sectoral success, whereas the text describes the impact as 'low and patchy' with gains limited to a 'handful of sectors'.
  • a The text states gains are limited to a 'handful of sectors,' not every sector.
  • b The text indicates the share has remained largely the same, not that it has become the dominant driver or transformed significantly.
  • d The text states the share in global exports has remained largely the same, not shown a substantial rise.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the security dynamics in Greenland, consider the following statements: 1. The 1951 U.S.-Denmark security agreement grants Washington broad rights to build military bases on the island. 2. Under the recent trilateral deal, if Greenland achieves independence, it is required to leave NATO and terminate its security arrangements with the United States. 3. The new agreement explicitly prohibits non-NATO countries from establishing military facilities or investing in sensitive sectors like rare earths in Greenland. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states that the 1951 U.S.-Denmark security agreement provides Washington broad rights to build military bases in the ice-covered island.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text explicitly mentions that even if Greenland becomes independent, it would respect the deal with the U.S. and stay in NATO, providing indefinite access to military facilities.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The deal stipulates that no hostile power (non-NATO countries) can establish military facilities or invest in sensitive areas (mainly rare earths).
  • b Statement 2 is factually incorrect as the deal ensures Greenland stays in NATO even if independent.
  • c Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect, making this option invalid.
  • d Statement 2 is incorrect, so all three cannot be correct.
source (The Hindu)

With reference to the Technology Development Board (TDB) and its support for Agnikul Cosmos, consider the following statements: 1. The financial support is provided under the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund. 2. The funding mechanism involves direct equity investment by the government in the private company. 3. The project aims to advance technology from TRL-4 to TRL-8 for a reusable launch vehicle. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release explicitly states the agreement was signed for financial support under the RDI Fund.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The release specifies that financial support will be provided through 'Optionally Convertible Debentures (OCD)', not direct equity investment.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text mentions the objective is taking technology from TRL-4 and above to TRL-8.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect as the mechanism is OCDs, not direct equity.
  • b Statement 2 is incorrect as the mechanism is OCDs, not direct equity.
  • d Statement 2 is incorrect as the mechanism is OCDs, not direct equity.
source (PIB)

Consider the following statements regarding the operational mechanism of the Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR) Framework: 1. Field assessments are conducted using a dedicated mobile app by registered Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRA). 2. Consumers can verify the authenticity of a rating certificate through a QR code provided on the digitally signed certificate. 3. The framework evaluates digital connectivity based solely on fibre readiness and mobile network availability. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text states, 'Field assessments will be facilitated through a dedicated DCRA mobile app' enabling authorised agencies to undertake measurements.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text confirms consumers can 'verify its authenticity through the QR code provided on the certificate'.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The text specifies that the assessment considers parameters relating to 'fibre readiness, mobile network availability, in-building solutions and Wi-Fi infrastructure', not just the first two.
  • a Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
  • c Statement 3 is incorrect as it omits in-building solutions and Wi-Fi infrastructure.
  • d Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
source (PIB)

With reference to the Government Borrowing Plan for the second half of FY 2026-27, consider the following statements: 1. The gross market borrowing is planned to be completed through weekly auctions spread over securities with tenors ranging from 3 years to 50 years. 2. Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) are issued as a separate instrument outside the gross market borrowing limit of ₹7,86,000 crore. 3. The Reserve Bank of India fixes the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit to manage temporary mismatches in Government accounts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The release states that the gross market borrowing will be spread over securities of tenor 3, 5, 7, 10, 15, 30, 40 and 50 years through 23 weekly auctions.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The release explicitly mentions that the total borrowing of ₹7,86,000 crore includes Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) issuance of ₹15,000 crore; they are not outside this limit.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The release notes that RBI has fixed the WMA limit at ₹50,000 crore to take care of temporary mismatches in Government accounts.
  • a Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • b Statement 3 is also correct, so '1 only' is incomplete.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect because SGrBs are included within the total borrowing figure, not issued separately outside it.
source (PIB)

With reference to the resolutions passed by the Jammu & Kashmir Assembly regarding statehood and autonomy, consider the following statements: 1. The resolution passed in June 2000 sought a return to the pre-1953 constitutional position, including the reintroduction of designations such as Wazir-e-Azam. 2. The November 2024 resolution, passed after the first elections for the UT Assembly, sought dialogue for the restoration of special status and constitutional guarantees. 3. The recent resolution moved by Chief Minister Omar Abdullah replaces and subsumes the earlier resolutions of 2000 and 2024 to present a unified demand for full statehood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text explicitly states the June 2000 'Autonomy Resolution' called for reverting to the pre-1953 position, including the reintroduction of Wazir-e-Azam and Sadr-e-Risayat.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The November 2024 resolution sought dialogue for restoring special status and constitutional guarantees to the Union Territory.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: CM Omar Abdullah clarified that the new resolution 'neither replaces nor subsumes' the earlier resolutions; they stand as they are.
  • a Statement 3 is incorrect as the new resolution does not replace or subsume previous ones.
  • c Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • d Statement 3 is incorrect, making this option invalid despite Statement 1 being correct.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical context of the proposed resolution to the West Asia conflict: 1. The Strait of Hormuz accounted for one-fifth of global oil flows prior to the onset of the war. 2. Recent polling suggests that the Republican Party holds a significant advantage over the Democrats ahead of the US midterm elections. 3. Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi indicated that Tehran is eager to finalize the deal before the November elections to alleviate domestic economic strain. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct: The text describes the Strait of Hormuz as the waterway that 'accounted for a fifth of global oil flows before the West Asia war began.'
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The text states, 'Recent polling suggests that the Democrats hold a modest advantage over the incumbents [Republicans] just over a month ahead of the midterm elections.'
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While Araghchi noted it would be 'better' if done before elections, he insisted that 'Tehran was “not in a hurry”' and 'We don’t care about the timing,' contradicting the claim that they are 'eager' to finalize it specifically due to election pressure or domestic strain in that manner.
  • b Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
  • c Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
  • d Statement 1 is correct.
source (Indian Express)

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions related to State Bills requiring Presidential assent: 1. Under Article 200, a Governor must reserve a Bill for the President's consideration if it derogates from the powers of the High Court. 2. If the President returns a non-Money Bill to the State Legislature under Article 201, the Legislature has one year to reconsider it. 3. Preventive detention laws are legislated under the 'Public Order' subject, which falls within the State List. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 200 mandates that the Governor shall reserve for the President any Bill which, in the Governor's opinion, would derogate from the powers of the High Court.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 201, the state legislature has six months (not one year) to reconsider the Bill from the date of receipt of the President's message.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text notes that preventive detention issues are legislated under 'public order,' which is a state subject.
  • a Statements 1 and 3 are both correct, so 'Only one' is wrong.
  • c Statement 2 is incorrect due to the wrong time limit (six months vs one year).
  • d Statements 1 and 3 are correct, so 'None' is wrong.
source (Indian Express)

How many of the following statements are correct with respect to the status of the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) notifications in Kerala? 1. The Ministry of Environment and Forests issued a final notification in July 2026 accepting the State's request to reduce the ESA to 8,590.69 sq km. 2. Multiple notifications issued between 2014 and July 2026 remained in the form of drafts, prompting the State to seek a final notification from the Centre. 3. The number of villages included in the ESA increased from 123 to 131 due to bifurcation, even though the total area did not change after the Oommen V. Oommen Committee study.

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The seventh draft published on July 27, 2026, did not accept the State's change; it was still a draft, not a final notification.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text notes that notifications from 2014 to July 2026 have all been drafts, and Kerala is seeking a final notification.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The text confirms the village count rose to 131 due to bifurcation while the total area remained unchanged after the Oommen V. Oommen study.
  • a Two statements (2 and 3) are correct, not just one.
  • c Statement 1 is false because the July 2026 document was a draft that rejected the State's specific area reduction, not a final acceptance.
  • d At least two statements are factually supported by the release.
source (The Hindu)

Items are summarised in our own words from PIB, The Hindu and The Indian Express; nothing is reproduced from the articles, and each item links to the original. Questions are generated from those releases and re-checked against the source text by a second model before publishing. If one looks wrong, use Feedback — every report is read.

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