GS Paper I of the 2015 Preliminary examination, held on 23 August 2015. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Economy 23, History 16, Environment & Ecology 15, Geography 14, Polity & Governance 12, Current Events 10, General Science 10.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for
UPSC's answer: (c) — PMJDY (August 2014) is a national mission for financial inclusion: a basic bank account for every household with a RuPay debit card, accident insurance, overdraft facility and access to pension and credit — option (c).
With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The 14th Finance Commission (Y.V. Reddy, 2015–20) raised the States' share of the divisible pool of central taxes from 32% to 42%, the largest-ever increase (statement 1).
The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Fortaleza Declaration was issued at the sixth BRICS summit at Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014, announcing the New Development Bank (USD 50 billion initial subscribed capital) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (USD 100 billion) — option (b).
A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The tax-to-GDP ratio falls when tax revenue grows slower than GDP; since tax collections are strongly tied to incomes, profits and consumption, a falling ratio typically signals slowing economic activity or weakening compliance (statement 1).
In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Tropical cyclones form where the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone provides low-level convergence and rising air over warm seas.
Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
UPSC's answer: (d) — India's easternmost point is Kibithu in Anjaw district, Arunachal Pradesh (about 97.4° E); its westernmost point is Guhar Moti in Kachchh, Gujarat (about 68.1° E). Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat are therefore the easternmost and westernmost States — option (d).
Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy : 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country. 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Directive Principles (Part IV) set out the goals of a welfare state — social and economic justice, living wage, equal pay, health, education — thus spelling out socio-economic democracy, while Fundamental Rights secure political democracy (statement 1).
In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Index of Eight Core Industries (base 2011–12) has weights: refinery products 28.0%, electricity 19.9%, steel 17.9%, coal 10.3%, crude oil 9.0%, natural gas 6.9%, cement 5.4%, fertilisers 2.6%.
Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Keibul Lamjao National Park on Loktak Lake, Manipur, is the world's only floating national park: it consists of phumdis — floating mats of vegetation and soil — and is the last home of the endangered Sangai (brow-antlered deer) — option (b).
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation–India (NIF)? 1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government. 2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India's premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The National Innovation Foundation (2000) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology, based in Gandhinagar (statement 1).
What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Excess ammonium-based fertiliser (urea, ammonium sulphate) releases hydrogen ions during nitrification, acidifying the soil over time (statement 2). Nitrate, being highly soluble and not held by soil, leaches into groundwater, causing nitrate pollution and 'blue baby syndrome' (statement 3).
With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: IUCN (1948) is a membership union of governments and NGOs with UN observer status, not a UN organ; CITES (1973) is indeed an inter-governmental agreement. Statement 2 is correct: IUCN runs thousands of field projects and publishes the Red List.
The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Fair and Remunerative Price of sugarcane, the minimum mills must pay growers under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, is recommended by the CACP and approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs — option (a).
What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The North and South Equatorial Currents, driven west by the trade winds, pile up water on the western side of ocean basins.
Consider the following pairs : Place of Pilgrimage : Location 1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills 3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Srisailam, with the Mallikarjuna Jyotirlinga, stands on the Nallamala Hills above the Krishna river in Andhra Pradesh (pair 1 correct). Omkareshwar (2) is on Mandhata island in the Narmada near the Vindhya range, not the Satmala Hills (which are in Nashik, Maharashtra).
With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’. 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League. 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Rowlatt Act (1919) was based on the report of the Sedition Committee chaired by Justice Sidney Rowlatt (statement 1). Gandhi, having no organisation of his own yet, used the Home Rule Leagues and his Satyagraha Sabha to mobilise the Rowlatt Satyagraha of April 1919 (statement 2).
Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The 2014–16 Ebola epidemic, the largest in history with over 11,000 deaths, centred on three West African countries — Guinea (where it began), Sierra Leone and Liberia — option (b). WHO declared it a Public Health Emergency of International Concern in August 2014.
With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Fly ash, the fine residue from burning pulverised coal, is used to make bricks (fly-ash bricks are mandated near thermal plants) (statement 1) and as a pozzolanic replacement for 15–35% of Portland cement in concrete (Portland Pozzolana Cement) (statement 2).
With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India. 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The dugong (sea cow) is a herbivorous marine mammal that grazes on seagrass meadows (statement 1) and is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (statement 3).
Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India? 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. G. Subramania Iyer 3. R. C. Dutt Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — The early nationalists developed an economic critique of British rule. Dadabhai Naoroji (1) formulated the 'drain theory' in 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901); G.
Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Global Economic Prospects' is the World Bank's flagship report on global growth, published in January and June each year — option (d). The ADB (a) publishes the Asian Development Outlook; the EBRD (b) its Transition Report; the US Fed (c) the Beige Book. Hence option (d).
When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The SLR is the share of deposits banks must hold in liquid assets such as government securities. A 50-basis-point cut frees funds that banks can lend, lowering their cost of funds and enabling them to cut lending rates — option (c).
With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Nanoparticles can be engineered to carry drugs directly to diseased cells (e.g. tumours) and release them there, reducing dose and side effects — targeted drug delivery (statement 1).
In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
UPSC's answer: (b) — Agricultural marketing is a State subject; markets (mandis) are regulated under each State's Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act, which sets up market yards, licenses traders and levies market fees — option (b).
Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Gangetic river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared India's National Aquatic Animal in 2009 to draw attention to its endangered status in the Ganga–Brahmaputra system — option (c).
With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements : 1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes. 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat. 3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Congress Socialist Party (1934), founded by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Deva and Minoo Masani, worked within the Congress for a socialist programme — land reform, nationalisation of key industries and organisation of workers and peasants.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is correct: under Article 109, Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments to a Money Bill within 14 days; Lok Sabha may accept or reject them, so Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend it.
The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Government of India Act, 1919 for the first time separated central and provincial subjects, demarcating the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments, and further divided provincial subjects into reserved and transferred under dyarchy — option (b).
Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is compiled and released monthly by the Labour Bureau, Shimla, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment — option (c). It is used to fix dearness allowance for government employees and industrial workers; its base year was revised to 2016.
In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news : 1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter. 3. It is buried deep in the ice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — IceCube, completed in 2010 at the Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station, is the world's largest neutrino observatory, with 5,160 optical sensors spread through a cubic kilometre of Antarctic ice (statement 1).
The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Agreement on Agriculture and the SPS Agreement are WTO agreements from the Uruguay Round (1995); the 'Peace Clause' is the Bali (2013) decision that shields developing countries' public food-stockholding subsidies from WTO challenge — all WTO matters, option (c).
With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields. 2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other. 3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — NFC is a short-range contactless technology using electromagnetic radio fields at 13.56 MHz, used in tap-and-pay cards and phones (statement 1). Statement 3 is correct: NFC can use encryption and secure elements when transmitting sensitive data such as payment credentials.
The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Golan Heights is a plateau in south-western Syria captured by Israel in the 1967 Six-Day War and annexed in 1981; the US recognised Israeli sovereignty in 2019 while the UN considers it occupied territory. It is therefore a Middle East issue — option (b). Hence option (b).
Convertibility of rupee implies
UPSC's answer: (c) — Currency convertibility means the freedom to exchange the domestic currency for foreign currencies (and vice versa) at market rates without restrictions — option (c).
Consider the following pairs : Medieval Indian State : Present Region 1. Champaka : Central India 2. Durgara : Jammu 3. Kuluta : Malabar Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Durgara is the old name of the Dogra land around Jammu (pair 2 correct). Champaka (1) is Chamba in Himachal Pradesh, not Central India; Kuluta (3) is the Kullu valley in Himachal, not Malabar. All three were hill states of the western Himalaya, none in Central India or Malabar.
Consider the following rivers : 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Indravati (2), rising in Odisha's Kalahandi and flowing through Chhattisgarh, and the Pranahita (3), formed by the Wardha and Wainganga, are both major left-bank tributaries of the Godavari.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
UPSC's answer: (a) — A joint sitting under Article 108 is summoned by the President to resolve a deadlock between the Houses over an ordinary bill; the Speaker presides. The bill is deemed passed if approved by a majority of the total members of both Houses present and voting — a simple majority — option (a).
Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Andaman & Nicobar Islands have tropical evergreen rainforests in the interior, moist deciduous forests on drier slopes, and extensive mangroves along tidal creeks and coasts — all three types together — option (d).
Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Buddha's life unfolded in Kosala and Magadha: he was born at Lumbini in the Shakya republic (a Kosalan dependency), preached at Sravasti (Kosala's capital) for many rainy seasons, attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya and preached at Rajagriha in Magadha, where kings Bimbisara and Ajatashatru…
Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Montreal Protocol (1987) on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer phases out CFCs, halons and HCFCs; its Kigali Amendment (2016) adds HFCs — option (b). It is the most successful environmental treaty, ratified universally, and the ozone layer is on track to recover by mid-century.
Consider the following : The arrival of Babur into India led to the 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent 2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region's architecture 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Babur, a descendant of Timur, founded the Mughal (Timurid) dynasty in India after Panipat (1526) — statement 3 is correct.
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
UPSC's answer: (d) — NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was created by a Cabinet resolution on 1 January 2015 to replace the Planning Commission (1950), shifting from centralised five-year planning to a policy think-tank promoting cooperative federalism — option (d).
What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Rio+20 was the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development held at Rio de Janeiro in June 2012, twenty years after the 1992 Earth Summit — option (a).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, to be exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him; the Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers that aids and advises the President.
The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
UPSC's answer: (c) — The 'Goldilocks Zone' is the habitable zone around a star where temperatures are 'just right' for liquid water to exist on a planet's surface — neither too hot nor too cold.
Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Parallel to Gandhi's Dandi March, C. Rajagopalachari led a march from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam on the Tanjore coast in April 1930 and broke the salt law there — option (b). V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (a) was the Swadeshi shipping pioneer; K.
Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Harihara I, with his brother Bukka, founded Vijayanagara in 1336 on the south bank of the Tungabhadra (a tributary of the Krishna) near Hampi, and ruled as the deputy of the god Virupaksha, in whose name all land south of the Krishna was held — option (c).
Consider the following statements : 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: Badruddin Tyabji presided over the Madras session of 1887, the first Muslim President of the Congress. Statement 1 is wrong: the first woman President was Annie Besant (Calcutta, 1917); Sarojini Naidu, in 1925 at Kanpur, was the first Indian woman President.
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Green Climate Fund was established in 2010 at the Cancun COP16 as the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC to help developing countries with mitigation and adaptation (statement 1); it is headquartered in Songdo, South Korea.
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was awarded to ISRO for its contribution to space science and applications for development, including the Mars Orbiter Mission success — option (c).
With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It recommended a federal government. 2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts. 3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Cabinet Mission Plan (May 1946) proposed a Union of India with a federal government controlling only defence, foreign affairs and communications, with provinces grouped into three sections holding residuary powers (statement 1).
Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Namdapha National Park in Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh, spans altitudes from about 200 m to 4,571 m (Dapha Bum), giving it climates from tropical through subtropical and temperate to arctic/alpine — option (d).
Amnesty International is
UPSC's answer: (b) — Amnesty International, founded in London in 1961 by lawyer Peter Benenson, is a global human-rights movement of over 10 million members campaigning against torture, the death penalty and political imprisonment — option (b).
With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The rock-cut elephant at Dhauli near Bhubaneswar, carved above Ashoka's rock edicts around 260 BCE, is among the earliest known Indian rock sculptures — option (b). The Varaha image at Udayagiri (d) is Gupta, c.
With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system? 1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority 2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land 3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Indian feudalism (c. 300–1200 CE), as described by R.S. Sharma, arose from land grants that created intermediaries (samantas) with administrative and fiscal rights over land — an administrative structure based on control of land (statement 2).
‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
UPSC's answer: (d) — The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (2013) is a multilateral fund managed by the World Bank, supported by Norway, the UK, Germany and the US, that pays for reduced emissions from land use, forestry and agriculture in developing countries — option (d).
India is a member of which among the following? 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations 3. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — India is a founding member of the East Asia Summit (2005), a leaders' forum of ASEAN plus India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand, the US and Russia (item 3).
In India, the steel production industry requires the import of
UPSC's answer: (c) — Steel-making in blast furnaces needs coking (metallurgical) coal; India's coal is mostly high-ash non-coking coal, so it imports 50–60 million tonnes of coking coal a year, mainly from Australia — option (c).
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Fifth Schedule (Article 244) governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in ten States, with Tribes Advisory Councils and Governor's powers over land transfer; the Sixth Schedule provides Autonomous District Councils for tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and…
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India. 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 2 is correct: under Article 266(3) no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law passed by Parliament.
Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Supreme Court is the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution: through judicial review (Articles 13, 32, 131–136) it protects the Constitution against violations by the legislature and executive and safeguards fundamental rights — option (d).
Consider the following statements : 1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996–97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers. 2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974–75 for the development of water-use efficiency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974–75 to bridge the gap between irrigation potential created and utilised, improving water-use efficiency through field channels and land levelling.
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is constituted under the Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms, 1989, framed under the Environment (Protection)…
In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Bangladesh 2. Cambodia 3. China 4. Myanmar 5. Thailand Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (2000, Vientiane) comprises India and five Mekong countries — Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam — for cooperation in tourism, culture, education and transport.
‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to
UPSC's answer: (b) — Basel III (2010) is the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's set of reforms after the 2008 crisis: higher and better-quality capital, a capital conservation buffer, leverage ratio, and liquidity standards (LCR, NSFR) — to strengthen banks' resilience to financial stress and improve risk…
Consider the following statements : 1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies. 2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 1 is wrong: westerlies blow between 30° and 60° latitude in each hemisphere (30°–60° N and 30°–60° S); 'between 30° N and 60° S' would include the tropics and the trade-wind belts.
With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements : 1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. 2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — IOR-ARC, now the Indian Ocean Rim Association, was founded in 1997 in Mauritius by 14 countries (23 today) — not recently, so statement 1 is wrong.
Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Differences over the scope and methods of the Swadeshi Movement (1905–08) — whether to extend boycott to the whole country and into passive resistance — divided Congress into Moderates (Gokhale) and Extremists (Tilak), culminating in the Surat split of 1907 — option (a).
In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in
UPSC's answer: (a) — Living root bridges are found in the East Khasi and Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya, where the Khasi and Jaintia people guide the aerial roots of the Indian rubber fig (Ficus elastica) across streams over 15–30 years; the double-decker bridge at Nongriat near Cherrapunji is the most famous — option (a).
Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following? 1. Gravitational force of the Sun 2. Gravitational force of the Moon 3. Centrifugal force of the Earth Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Tides result from the Moon's gravitational pull (2), the Sun's pull (1, about 46% as strong, producing spring and neap tides), and the centrifugal force of the Earth–Moon system's rotation about their common centre of mass (3), which raises the bulge on the side away from the Moon.
In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? 1. Assessment of crop productivity 2. Locating groundwater resources 3. Mineral exploration 4. Telecommunications 5. Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — IRS satellites (Resourcesat, Cartosat, RISAT) image the Earth's surface for natural-resource management: crop acreage and yield estimation (1), groundwater prospect mapping under the Rajiv Gandhi Drinking Water Mission (2), and mineral and geological mapping (3).
Consider the following States : 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Mizoram In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Tropical wet evergreen forests need over 200 cm of rain and warm temperatures year-round; in India they occur in the Western Ghats, the Andamans and the north-eastern States — Arunachal Pradesh (1) and Mizoram (3) among them.
The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of
UPSC's answer: (d) — IndARC, deployed in July 2014 by NCAOR and NIOT in Kongsfjorden, Svalbard, is India's first underwater moored observatory in the Arctic, measuring temperature, salinity and currents to study Arctic processes and their links to the Indian monsoon — option (d).
With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (2008), administered by the World Bank, is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples' organisations (statement 1).
Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Odia was granted classical language status in February 2014, becoming the sixth after Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada and Telugu (2008) and Malayalam (2013) — option (a).
With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — BirdLife International (1922) is a global partnership of over 120 national conservation organisations — the Bombay Natural History Society is India's partner (statement 1). It identifies and documents Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs) worldwide — over 550 in India (statement 3).
Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Syria (Latakia), Lebanon (Beirut) and Israel (Haifa, Tel Aviv) all have Mediterranean coastlines. Jordan is landlocked except for a 26-km coast on the Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea); it does not open on the Mediterranean — option (b). Hence option (b).
In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Teak (Tectona grandis) dominates tropical moist deciduous forests, which receive 100–200 cm of rain and shed leaves in the dry season; these cover the Western Ghats' eastern slopes, central India, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand — option (a).
‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the news, is
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women convened by the UN in Beijing in 1995, setting an agenda for gender equality across twelve critical areas such as poverty, education, health, violence and decision-making — option (c).
“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The passage describes the equatorial climate: uniform hot, humid weather every day, with morning sunshine, rising convection as the sun climbs, and afternoon thunderstorms (convectional rain) that pass quickly — option (b).
With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: nominal GDP at market prices in rupees rises every year because it reflects both real growth and inflation, so it has steadily increased.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 171 the Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the Assembly's strength (and must have at least 40 members).
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
UPSC's answer: (d) — ‘To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India’ is Article 51A(c), one of the Fundamental Duties (Part IVA) added by the 42nd Amendment (1976); the list now has eleven duties after the 86th Amendment (2002) — option (d).
Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
UPSC's answer: (c) — An ecosystem (Tansley, 1935) is a community of living organisms (biotic components) interacting with each other and with their non-living environment (abiotic components — soil, water, air, sunlight) as a functional unit — option (c).
The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People's participation in development 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralization 4. Financial mobilization Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Panchayati Raj, as envisaged by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) and constitutionalised by the 73rd Amendment, aims at democratic decentralisation — devolving power to elected village, block and district bodies (3) — and at securing people's participation in planning and development (1).
With reference to Indian economy, consider the following : 1. Bank rate 2. Open market operations 3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Monetary policy is the RBI's management of money supply and interest rates; its tools include the bank rate (1), repo/reverse repo, CRR, SLR and open market operations (2) — buying and selling government securities to adjust liquidity.
With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Inflation is 'too much money chasing too few goods'; reducing money in circulation through tighter monetary policy (higher rates, CRR) curbs demand and helps control inflation — option (c).
Consider the following countries : 1. China 2. France 3. India 4. Israel 5. Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The NPT (1968) recognises as Nuclear Weapon States only the five that tested before 1 January 1967: the USA, USSR/Russia, UK, France and China.
The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) enshrine the welfare state: Article 38 (social order with justice), 39 (equitable distribution), 41 (work, education, public assistance), 43 (living wage), 47 (nutrition and health) — option (b).
The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of
UPSC's answer: (b) — Replacing wooden ploughs with steel ploughs improves the quality and productivity of the capital equipment itself, so the same investment yields more output — capital-augmenting technological progress — option (b).
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
UPSC's answer: (d) — The defining feature of the parliamentary system is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)): the executive is drawn from and can be removed by the legislature — option (d).
H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
UPSC's answer: (d) — H1N1 is the influenza A subtype that caused the 2009 'swine flu' pandemic, so named because the strain combined swine, avian and human flu genes — option (d). AIDS (a) is caused by HIV; bird flu (b) by H5N1/H7N9; dengue (c) by a flavivirus spread by Aedes mosquitoes.
With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements : 1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum. 2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Indian Railways' bio-toilets, developed with DRDO, use a consortium of anaerobic bacteria (not fungi) in a bio-digester tank to break down human waste — so statement 1 is wrong.
The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
UPSC's answer: (c) — International liquidity is the stock of internationally acceptable means of payment — chiefly US dollars and other hard (freely convertible) currencies, gold and SDRs — that countries hold to settle balance-of-payments deficits.
With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — A hydrogen fuel cell combines hydrogen and oxygen electrochemically; with pure hydrogen the only by-products are water and heat (statement 1). Statement 2 is wrong: fuel cells power everything from buildings and vehicles to portable devices such as laptops and phones (micro fuel cells).
Kalamkari painting refers to
UPSC's answer: (a) — Kalamkari ('pen work') is a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile of Andhra Pradesh, using natural dyes and a bamboo pen (kalam): the Srikalahasti style is freehand-painted with mythological themes, the Machilipatnam style is block-printed — option (a).
Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Seed Village Programme trains groups of farmers in a village in quality seed production, supplies them foundation seed at subsidised rates, and helps them produce certified/quality seed for their own use and for sale to neighbours at the right time and affordable cost — option (b).
There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit? 1. Reducing revenue expenditure 2. Introducing new welfare schemes 3. Rationalizing subsidies 4. Expanding industries Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — A budget deficit is reduced by cutting expenditure or raising revenue. Reducing revenue expenditure (1) and rationalising subsidies (3) directly lower government spending.
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma 3. Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Banaras Brocades and Sarees received GI status in 2009 (1), and Tirupati Laddu, the prasadam of the Tirumala temple, in 2009 (3). Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma (2) is a traditional dish but has no GI registration. Hence 1 and 3 only, option (c).
With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Public Limited Government Company. 2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — IREDA (1987) is a Public Limited Government Company under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (statement 1), now a listed Navratna CPSE. It is registered with the RBI as a Non-Banking Financial Company (statement 2), financing renewable-energy and energy-efficiency projects.
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