GS Paper I of the 2014 Preliminary examination, held on 24 August 2014. 100 questions · 200 marks · one-third negative marking. The questions broke down as Environment & Ecology 23, History 21, General Science 16, Economy 15, Geography 11, Polity & Governance 10, Current Events 4.
The answer under each question is UPSC's official key. The note beside it is the first line of our explanation; the full reasoning, option by option, is one click away.
What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (ICRISAT–WWF, 2009) raises single-bud chip settlings in a nursery and transplants them at wide spacing, cutting seed-cane use by about 75% (statement 1).
If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Montreux Record, under the Ramsar Convention, is a register of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur due to technological development, pollution or other human interference — option (a).
Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Ten Degree Channel, about 150 km wide along the 10° N parallel, separates the Andaman Islands (north) from the Nicobar Islands (south) — option (a).
Consider the following pairs : Programme/Project : Ministry 1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture 2. Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests 3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas : Ministry of Rural Development Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — In 2014 the Drought-Prone Area Programme and Desert Development Programme were both under the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development (merged into the Integrated Watershed Management Programme), not Agriculture or Environment.
With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements : 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Bombay Natural History Society (1883) is a non-governmental organisation — one of India's oldest — not an autonomous body under the Environment Ministry, so statement 1 is wrong.
With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Global Environment Facility (1991) is a multilateral fund that serves as the financial mechanism for the CBD, UNFCCC, UNCCD, Stockholm and Minamata Conventions, channelling grants to developing countries — option (a).
With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements : 1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: photovoltaic cells convert sunlight directly into electricity, while solar thermal (CSP) concentrates sunlight to heat a fluid that drives a turbine.
Consider the following languages : 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada 3. Telugu Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Kannada (2) and Telugu (3) were declared classical languages in 2008, joining Tamil (2004) and Sanskrit (2005); Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014) followed. Gujarati (1) has not been given classical status. Hence 2 and 3 only, option (c).
Consider the following pairs : 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Dampa Tiger Reserve lies in Mamit district of Mizoram on the Bangladesh border (pair 1 correct). Saramati (3,826 m), the highest peak of Nagaland, straddles the Nagaland–Myanmar border (pair 3 correct). Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tripura, around the Gumti reservoir, not Sikkim (pair 2 wrong).
With reference to a conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Wetlands International (1995, from earlier bodies dating to 1954) is an independent non-profit NGO headquartered in the Netherlands, not an intergovernmental body of Ramsar signatories — statement 1 is wrong.
With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements : 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The first BRIC summit was held at Yekaterinburg, Russia, in June 2009 — not Rio de Janeiro, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: South Africa joined in December 2010, attending the 2011 Sanya summit, turning BRIC into BRICS (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and the UAE joined in 2024 and Indonesia…
Consider the following diseases : 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox 3. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Smallpox (3) has been eradicated: India's last case was in 1975, the country was certified smallpox-free in 1977, and global eradication was declared in 1980 — the first human disease ever eradicated.
Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Continental drift (1) separated and joined landmasses, isolating populations and creating new habitats — explaining, for example, marsupials in Australia and lemurs in Madagascar.
Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Dams and barrages (1) fragment dolphin populations, block migration and alter flows and prey. Accidental entanglement in gillnets (3) is a leading cause of death. Fertiliser and pesticide run-off (4) pollutes rivers and bioaccumulates in the dolphins, which sit at the top of the food chain.
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Boundary Commissions for Punjab and Bengal, chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, were set up in July 1947 to demarcate the boundary between India and Pakistan; the 'Radcliffe Line' was announced on 17 August 1947 — option (c).
Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Brominated flame retardants (PBDEs, HBCD) are persistent organic pollutants: they resist degradation and persist in soil, water and dust for years (statement 1).
Consider the following : 1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Hibernation — a state of lowered body temperature and metabolism to survive winter scarcity — occurs in bats (1), which hibernate in caves; bears (2), which enter a lighter winter dormancy often counted as hibernation; and rodents (3) such as ground squirrels, dormice and marmots, the classic deep…
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha, making it the largest parliamentary committee — option (b). The Public Accounts Committee (a) and Committee on Public Undertakings (c) have 22 members each (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha); the Committee on Petitions (d) has 15.
Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Volcanic eruptions (1) release CO2 from the Earth's interior; respiration by plants, animals and microbes (2) releases CO2 from breaking down glucose; decay of organic matter (4) by decomposers returns carbon to the air as CO2.
If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds? 1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Common Myna (2) habitually follows grazing cattle to catch grasshoppers and other insects flushed from the grass, as does the cattle egret.
In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
UPSC's answer: (b) — In early medieval inscriptions (Pala, Pratihara, Chandella), 'mahattara' (elder) and 'pattakila' (from which 'patel' derives) denote village headmen who represented the village in dealings with the State and collected revenue — option (b).
Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
UPSC's answer: (b) — A lichen is a mutualistic partnership between a fungus (which provides structure, water and minerals) and a photosynthetic partner — an alga or cyanobacterium — that supplies food — option (b). As pioneers of primary succession, lichens secrete acids that weather bare rock into soil.
If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there? 1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Sandalwood Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Oaks (banj, kharsu) dominate the temperate Himalayan forests between 1,500 and 3,000 m (1), and rhododendrons form brilliant red forests and alpine scrub up to 4,000 m (2). Sandalwood (3) is a tree of the dry deciduous forests of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, not the Himalaya.
Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Steel-making burns coke and uses sulphur-bearing coal and ore, releasing sulphur oxides (1); high-temperature furnaces produce nitrogen oxides (2); coke ovens and blast furnaces emit carbon monoxide (3); and the whole process is a major source of carbon dioxide (4) — steel accounts for about 7–9%…
Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Buddha's life centred on Kosala (birth at Lumbini in the Shakya territory, long stays at Sravasti) and Magadha (enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, preaching at Rajagriha under Bimbisara and Ajatashatru).
Every year, a monthlong ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The official key identifies the Gond and Korku — tribes of central India (Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra) — as the communities that hold this month-long campaign of planting saplings of fruit-bearing trees — option (b).
The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
UPSC's answer: (d) — Before GST, sales tax/VAT on goods sold within a State was levied under List II (entry 54) and collected by the State Government — option (d).
What does venture capital mean?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Venture capital is long-term equity finance provided by investors to early-stage, high-potential start-ups in exchange for a share of ownership, accepting high risk for the chance of high returns — option (b).
The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–17), India's last, adopted the theme 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth', targeting 8% GDP growth with inclusion and environmental sustainability — option (d).
With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account? 1. Balance of trade 2. Foreign assets 3. Balance of invisibles 4. Special Drawing Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The current account of the Balance of Payments records trade in goods (balance of trade, 1) and invisibles (3) — services, income and transfers/remittances. Foreign assets (2) and SDR transactions (4) belong to the capital/financial account and reserves, not the current account.
The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Marginal Standing Facility rate is the penal rate at which banks borrow overnight from the RBI against government securities beyond the repo window; Net Demand and Time Liabilities is the deposit base on which CRR and SLR are calculated. Both are RBI banking-regulation terms — option (a).
What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Business Correspondents (Bank Mitra/Saathi), permitted by the RBI since 2006, are agents who provide banking services in villages without branches using hand-held devices and Aadhaar-based micro-ATMs.
In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create 2. To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statutory reserve requirements (CRR and SLR) oblige banks to hold a share of their deposits with the RBI or in liquid assets; their primary purpose is monetary control — limiting the credit banks can create (statement 1).
Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Arab Spring began in Tunisia in December 2010 after street vendor Mohamed Bouazizi's self-immolation sparked protests that toppled President Ben Ali in January 2011 (the 'Jasmine Revolution') — option (d). It then spread to Egypt (Mubarak's fall), Libya, Yemen, Syria and Bahrain.
Consider the following countries : 1. Denmark 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United Kingdom 5. United States of America Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Arctic Council (1996) has eight members — the States with Arctic territory: Canada, Denmark (via Greenland), Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the USA (via Alaska).
Consider the following pairs : Region often in news : Country 1. Chechnya : Russian Federation 2. Darfur : Mali 3. Swat Valley : Iraq Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Chechnya is a republic of the Russian Federation in the North Caucasus, scene of two separatist wars (pair 1 correct). Darfur is a region of western Sudan, site of conflict since 2003 — not Mali (pair 2 wrong).
With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Agni-IV, developed by DRDO and first successfully tested in 2011, is a surface-to-surface intermediate-range ballistic missile (statement 1). Statement 2 is wrong: it is a two-stage solid-propellant missile, not liquid-fuelled.
With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements : 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: coalbed methane is mostly methane with some other gases, and shale gas is also predominantly methane (with ethane, propane and butane), not 'propane and butane only'.
With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements : 1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool. 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Changpa are nomadic pastoralists of the Changthang plateau in Ladakh, not Uttarakhand — statement 1 is wrong. They rear Changthangi (Pashmina) goats whose fine undercoat yields pashmina wool for Kashmiri shawls (statement 2), along with yaks and sheep.
In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Guar gum, extracted from the seeds of cluster bean, is a thickening agent used in hydraulic fracturing fluid to carry sand into shale rock fractures; the US shale boom sent guar prices soaring around 2012, making Rajasthan farmers rich — option (b).
Which of the following have coral reefs? 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf of Kachchh 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — India's four major coral reef areas are the Andaman & Nicobar Islands (1), the Gulf of Kachchh (2), the Gulf of Mannar (3) and Lakshadweep. The Sundarbans (4) is a mangrove delta with turbid, sediment-laden water where corals cannot grow. Hence 1, 2 and 3 only, option (a).
In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 1. Terrace cultivation 2. Deforestation 3. Tropical climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Deforestation (2) removes the tree cover and roots that bind soil, exposing it to rain and wind — the main human cause of soil erosion in India. Terrace cultivation (1) is a soil-conservation measure that reduces erosion on slopes, not a cause.
The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
UPSC's answer: (c) — 'Monsoon' derives from the Arabic 'mausim' (season); its defining feature is the seasonal reversal of winds — south-westerly in summer bringing rain, north-easterly in winter — driven by differential heating of land and sea — option (c).
With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to
UPSC's answer: (c) — Panchayatana is a temple layout in which the main shrine stands on a raised platform with four subsidiary shrines at its corners, as at the Dashavatara temple (Deogarh), Lakshmana temple (Khajuraho) and the Brahmeswara temple (Bhubaneswar) — option (c).
Consider the following rivers : 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Lohit (2) enters Arunachal from Tibet and joins the Brahmaputra near Sadiya; the Subansiri (3), the Brahmaputra's largest tributary, flows through Arunachal's Upper Subansiri district.
Consider the following pairs : Wetlands : Confluence of rivers 1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej 2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal 3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Harike Wetland (Punjab), a Ramsar site, lies at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej (pair 1 correct). Keoladeo Ghana (Bharatpur) is a man-made wetland fed by the Gambhir and Banganga rivers, not the Banas–Chambal confluence (pair 2 wrong).
Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The six orthodox (astika) systems of Indian philosophy, which accept Vedic authority, are Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Sankhya, Yoga, Mimamsa and Vedanta. Lokayata (Charvaka materialism) is a heterodox school, and Kapalika is a Tantric Shaiva sect, not a philosophical system — option (c). Hence option (c).
Consider the following pairs : Hills : Region 1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast 3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India 4. Mikir Hills : North-East India Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Mahadeo Hills, part of the Satpura range around Pachmarhi in Madhya Pradesh, are in Central India (pair 3 correct); the Mikir Hills (Karbi Anglong) are in Assam, North-East India (pair 4 correct).
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment (1985) and tightened by the 91st Amendment (2003), contains the anti-defection provisions disqualifying legislators who voluntarily give up party membership or defy the whip — option (d).
The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
UPSC's answer: (a) — Biosphere reserves, under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere programme, have a core zone for strict conservation, a buffer zone for research and limited use, and a transition zone where local communities continue traditional livelihoods — integrating biodiversity conservation with traditional human…
Turkey is located between
UPSC's answer: (b) — Turkey occupies the Anatolian peninsula with the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean to the south, and the Aegean to the west; the Bosphorus and Dardanelles link the Black Sea to the Mediterranean through Turkish territory — option (b).
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? 1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Jakarta lies at about 6° S, Singapore at 1° N, Bangkok at 13.7° N and Hanoi at 21° N. From south to north the order is Jakarta (3) – Singapore (4) – Bangkok (1) – Hanoi (2). Hence 3-4-1-2, option (c).
The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — IPCC assessments project that beyond about 3 °C of warming the terrestrial biosphere could switch from absorbing to emitting carbon as forests die back and soils release CO2 (statement 1), and that widespread coral bleaching and mortality would occur — corals are severely hit even at 1.5–2 °C…
The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
UPSC's answer: (d) — 'Satyameva Jayate' (Truth alone triumphs) is from the Mundaka Upanishad (3.1.6) of the Atharvaveda; it was adopted as the national motto with the State Emblem in 1950, popularised earlier by Madan Mohan Malaviya — option (d).
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 51, a Directive Principle, directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just relations between nations, respect international law and encourage settlement of disputes by arbitration — option (b).
What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Integrated Watershed Management Programme (2009, now part of PMKSY) treats a watershed as a unit, building check dams, contour bunds and percolation tanks to prevent soil run-off (1), harvest rainwater and recharge groundwater (3), and regenerate vegetation on degraded lands (4).
Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? 1. The Finance Commission 2. The National Development Council 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development 5. The Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Under the Five-Year Plan system, the Planning Commission drafted plans, the National Development Council (2) — PM, Union Ministers, Chief Ministers — approved them, and Parliament (5) debated and adopted them and voted the funds.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Cabinet Secretariat, headed by the Cabinet Secretary under the PM, prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings (1), records decisions and follows them up, and provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees (2); it also coordinates among ministries.
Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Constitutionalism means limited government: the Constitution places effective restrictions on the authority of the State — through fundamental rights, separation of powers and judicial review — in order to protect individual liberty (statement 2).
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Governor's discretionary powers include recommending President's Rule under Article 356 (1) and reserving bills for the President's consideration under Article 200 (3); others include choosing a CM when no party has a majority and seeking information from the CM under Article 167.
If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
UPSC's answer: (c) — A lower interest rate cuts the cost of borrowing, so more investment projects become profitable and firms raise investment expenditure — option (c).
Consider the following statements : 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Statement 1 is correct: Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for the convenient transaction of Government business and its allocation among Ministers — the Allocation of Business Rules and Transaction of Business Rules.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India : 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Statement 1 is correct: the Constitution does not mention a no-confidence motion; Article 75(3) only says the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and the motion is provided by Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules.
With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements : 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Neem oil contains azadirachtin, a natural insecticide and miticide used against many crop pests (statement 1), and has pharmaceutical uses in skin, dental and antimicrobial preparations (statement 3).
Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Photosynthesis captures the free (radiant) energy of sunlight and converts it into chemical potential energy stored in glucose, using CO2 and water and releasing oxygen — option (b).
In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 3. Voice recognition Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Biometric identification uses unique physiological or behavioural traits: iris patterns (1, used in Aadhaar), retinal blood-vessel patterns (2), and voice prints (3), besides fingerprints, face and gait. All three are established biometric methods. Hence 1, 2 and 3, option (d).
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants? 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Vegetative propagation (cuttings, grafting, tubers, tissue culture) produces plants genetically identical to the parent — a clonal population (statement 1) — and can be done in most seasons, unlike seed propagation tied to flowering (statement 3).
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft : Purpose 1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — MESSENGER (NASA, 2011–15) orbited and mapped Mercury (pair 2 correct); Voyager 1 and 2 (1977) explored Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune and have now entered interstellar space (pair 3 correct).
Consider the following pairs : Region : Well-known for the production of 1. Kinnaur : Areca nut 2. Mewat : Mango 3. Coromandel : Soya bean Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Kinnaur (Himachal) is known for apples and chilgoza pine nuts, not areca nut, a coastal Karnataka–Kerala crop (pair 1 wrong). Mewat (Haryana) is a dry region growing wheat and mustard, not mango — famous mango belts are Malihabad and Ratnagiri (pair 2 wrong).
Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride 2. Melting of ice 3. Souring of milk Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — A chemical change produces new substances; a physical change alters only state or form. Souring of milk (3) is chemical: bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid, forming new compounds irreversibly.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
UPSC's answer: (c) — Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and one or more States, or between States — cases that start in the Supreme Court itself — option (c).
Consider the following techniques/phenomena : 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Transgenic crops carry genes inserted by genetic engineering. Gene silencing (3), via RNA interference, is a transgenic technique — e.g.
Consider the following statements : 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Maize is India's main source of industrial starch (corn starch), used in food, textiles and paper (statement 1). Corn oil extracted from the germ can be converted into biodiesel (statement 2), and maize is fermented to make ethanol and beverages such as bourbon whiskey and corn beer (statement 3).
Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Mites, scorpions and spiders belong to the class Arachnida (eight legs, no antennae); the crab belongs to the class Crustacea (ten legs, two pairs of antennae) — option (a). All four are arthropods, but the crab is the odd one at class level. Hence option (a).
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
UPSC's answer: (b) — Article 124(1) fixes the Supreme Court's strength at the Chief Justice plus such number of judges as Parliament may by law prescribe; Parliament raised it through the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act from 7 in 1950 to 34 in 2019 — option (b).
Consider the following towns of India : 1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi 3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Chanderi (Madhya Pradesh) is famed for its sheer silk-cotton Chanderi sarees, and Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) for its heavy silk sarees with zari — both GI-tagged (items 2 and 3). Bhadrachalam (Telangana) is a Rama temple town and Karnal (Haryana) is known for rice and dairy research, not textiles.
Consider the following pairs : National Highway : Cities connected 1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad 2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata 3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Under the old numbering in force in 2014, NH 4 ran Mumbai–Pune–Bengaluru–Chennai (not Chennai–Hyderabad, which was NH 5/NH 9); NH 6 ran Hazira/Surat–Nagpur–Kolkata (not Mumbai–Kolkata); NH 15 ran Pathankot–Samakhiali via Bikaner and Jaisalmer (not Ahmedabad–Jodhpur).
Consider the following international agreements : 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 3. The World Heritage Convention Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
UPSC's answer: (d) — The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources (2001) conserves crop genetic diversity and farmers' rights (1); the UNCCD (1994) protects dryland ecosystems and their biodiversity (2); the World Heritage Convention (1972) protects natural sites of outstanding biodiversity value such as the…
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ : 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Earth Hour, begun by WWF in Sydney in 2007, asks people worldwide to switch off non-essential lights for one hour on a Saturday in late March (statement 2) to raise awareness about climate change and protecting the planet (statement 3).
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
UPSC's answer: (a) — In a marine food chain energy flows from producers to consumers: diatoms (phytoplankton) photosynthesise, crustaceans such as copepods graze on them, and herrings feed on the crustaceans. Diatoms → Crustaceans → Herrings is therefore the correct order — option (a).
The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
UPSC's answer: (b) — Curzon's partition of Bengal (October 1905) provoked the Swadeshi movement; under its pressure the British annulled the partition, and King George V announced the reunification of Bengal (and the shift of the capital to Delhi) at the Delhi Durbar of December 1911 — option (b).
The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
UPSC's answer: (b) — At the Lahore session of December 1929, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, the Congress adopted 'Poorna Swaraj' (complete independence) as its goal, replacing Dominion status, and fixed 26 January 1930 as Independence Day — option (b).
With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements : 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama. 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam. 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Sattriya, recognised as a classical dance in 2000, combines music, dance and drama (statement 1) and has been a living tradition of the Vaishnava sattras (monasteries) of Assam since Srimanta Sankardeva introduced it in the late 15th–early 16th century (statement 2).
Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Indian national calendar (Saka Era, adopted 1957) begins the year on Chaitra 1, which falls on 22 March in a normal year and 21 March in a leap year, aligning with the spring equinox — option (a). The Saka Era began in 78 CE; 2026 CE is Saka 1948. Hence option (a).
With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs : Famous work of sculpture : Site 1. A grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below : Ajanta 2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock : Mount Abu 3. “Arjuna's Penance” / “Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders : Mamallapuram Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Pair 1 is correct: Ajanta Cave 26 has a 7-metre reclining Buddha in Mahaparinirvana with celestial beings above and mourning followers below. Pair 3 is correct: 'Arjuna's Penance'/'Descent of the Ganga' is the great Pallava relief on two boulders at Mamallapuram.
The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
UPSC's answer: (a) — The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 by Punjabi immigrants in the USA and Canada, with headquarters at San Francisco (Yugantar Ashram) under Sohan Singh Bhakna and Lala Har Dayal; its paper 'Ghadar' called for armed revolt against British rule — option (a).
With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art of Kerala, practised in a 'kalari' (training ground) with strikes, kicks, grappling, weapons and healing arts; it is considered one of the oldest fighting systems and influenced Asian martial arts — option (d).
Consider the following pairs : 1. Garba : Gujarat 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha 3. Yakshagana : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Garba is the circular folk dance of Gujarat performed during Navratri (pair 1 correct); Yakshagana is the traditional theatre-dance of coastal Karnataka (pair 3 correct). Mohiniattam is the classical dance of Kerala, not Odisha (whose classical dance is Odissi) — pair 2 wrong.
With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs : Famous shrine : Location 1. Tabo monastery and temple complex : Spiti Valley 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako : Zanskar Valley 3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (c) — Tabo monastery (996 CE), the 'Ajanta of the Himalaya', is in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh (pair 1 correct); the Alchi complex, with 11th-century murals, is in Ladakh (pair 3 correct).
Consider the following statements : 1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal. 2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (d) — Statement 1 is wrong: the 'Bijak' is the collection of Kabir's verses compiled by the Kabirpanth; Dadu Dayal's teachings are in the 'Dadu Bani'.
A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their
UPSC's answer: (b) — The Manganiyars are a Muslim community of hereditary folk musicians from the Thar Desert districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer (Rajasthan) and Sindh, who sing for Rajput patrons accompanied by the kamaicha and dholak — option (b).
What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)? 1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown 3. To regulate East India Company's trade with India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (a) — Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1 November 1858, read at Allahabad by Lord Canning, transferred the government of India from the East India Company to the British Crown (statement 2) and promised to respect the rights and territories of Indian princes, disclaiming further annexation (statement 1)…
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
UPSC's answer: (c) — The Ibadat Khana (House of Worship), built by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575, was the hall where he held religious debates — first among Muslim theologians, then from 1578 with Hindus, Jains, Parsis and Jesuits — option (c). These discussions led to the Mahzar (1579) and Din-i-Ilahi (1582).
In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater implementation? 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. 2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (b) — Seed replacement rate is the share of area sown with fresh certified seed rather than farm-saved seed. Statement 3 is correct: for low-value, high-volume crops such as wheat, paddy and pulses, private companies find seed production unprofitable, leaving a demand–supply gap in quality seed that…
With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Eco-Sensitive Zones around protected areas are notified by the Environment Ministry under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — not the Wildlife (Protection) Act — so statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
UPSC's answer: (b) — Statement 2 is correct: the NTCA became a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006 (Section 38L). Statement 3 is correct: the National Ganga River Basin Authority (2009) was chaired by the Prime Minister (later replaced by the National Ganga Council, also PM-chaired).
Consider the following pairs : Vitamin : Deficiency disease 1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 2. Vitamin D : Rickets 3. Vitamin E : Night blindness Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
UPSC's answer: (a) — Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy (pair 1 correct) and vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults (pair 2 correct). Night blindness is caused by vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin E (pair 3 wrong); vitamin E deficiency causes neurological problems and haemolysis.
There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (d) — Engineered nanoparticles (silver, titanium dioxide, zinc oxide) used in cosmetics, textiles and coatings are so small and reactive that they persist and accumulate in water and soil (1), are taken up by organisms and move through food chains (2), and their high surface reactivity can generate…
Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
UPSC's answer: (a) — The World Economic Outlook is the IMF's flagship survey of the global economy, published in April and October with updates in January and July — option (a). UNDP (b) publishes the Human Development Report; WEF (c) the Global Competitiveness Report; the World Bank (d) Global Economic Prospects.
With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure? 1. Defence expenditure 2. Interest payments 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC's answer: (c) — Until 2017–18 the Union Budget divided expenditure into Plan (schemes under the Five-Year Plans) and Non-Plan. Non-Plan expenditure covered the Government's committed and routine outgo — defence (1), interest payments (2), salaries and pensions (3), subsidies (4), grants to States and loans to…
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